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BIO 235 FINALS REVIEW > Chapter 19 > Flashcards

Chapter 19 Flashcards

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1
Q

1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood?
a) Transportation of nutrients
b) Regulation of blood pH
c) Protection against infectious disease
d) Transportation of heat
e) Production of oxygen

A

e) Production of oxygen

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2
Q

2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood?
a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4o F.
b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45.
c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood.
d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC.
e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix.

A

c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood.

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3
Q

3) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by
a) WBCs.
b) platelets.
c) RBCs.
d) plasma.
e) plasma proteins.

A

c) RBCs.

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4
Q

4) What percentage of blood plasma is water?
a) 95.1%
b) 91.5%
c) 88.5%
d) 4.9%
e) 8.5%

A

b) 91.5%

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5
Q

5) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Myoglobin
e) Hemoglobin

A

b) Globulins

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6
Q

6) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?
a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Prostaglandins
e) None of these choices

A

c) Fibrinogen

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7
Q

7) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called
a) hematospermia.
b) hemopoiesis.
c) thrombocytosis.
d) hemostasis.
e) polycythemia.

A

b) hemopoiesis.

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8
Q

8) A megakaryoblast will develop into
a) a red blood cell.
b) a white blood cell.
c) a platelet.
d) either a white blood cell or a platelet.
e) none of these choices.

A

c) a platelet.

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9
Q

9) During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into
a) proerythroblasts.
b) T lymphoblasts.
c) B lymphoblasts.
d) NK lymphoblasts.
e) all of these choices.

A

a) proerythroblasts.

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10
Q

10) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?
a) erythropoietin (EPO)
b) thrombopoietin (TPO)
c) human growth hormone (hGH)
d) calcitonin (CT)
e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

a) erythropoietin (EPO)

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11
Q

11) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC?
a) 50 million
b) 100 million
c) 280 million
d) 320 million
e) 430 million

A

c) 280 million

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12
Q

12) Ferritin is a protein used to
a) transport iron in the blood.
b) store iron in the liver.
c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes.
d) synthesize iron.
e) absorb iron across intestinal cells.

A

b) store iron in the liver.

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13
Q

13) The major function of red blood cells is
a) nutrient transport.
b) cytokine stimulation.
c) blood cell proliferation.
d) gas transport.
e) disease resistance.

A

d) gas transport.

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14
Q

14) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a
a) proerythroblast.
b) megakaryocyte.
c) progenitor cell.
d) mature erythrocyte.
e) reticulocyte.

A

e) reticulocyte.

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15
Q

15) Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte?
a) Neutrophil
b) Platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Erythrocyte

A

a) Neutrophil

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16
Q

16) Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?
a) Erythrocyte
b) Platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

A

b) Platelet

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17
Q

17) Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

A

d) Basophil

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18
Q

18) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

A

a) Eosinophil

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19
Q

19) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders?
a) Eosinophil
b) Macrophage
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Platelet

A

c) Lymphocyte

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20
Q

20) Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte?
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophage
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) All of these choices

A

d) Basophil

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21
Q

21) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called
a) emigration.
b) diaphysis.
c) adhesion.
d) opsonization.
e) phagocytosis.

A

a) emigration.

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22
Q

22) Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells?
a) Heparin
b) Histamine
c) Nitric oxide
d) Proteases
e) All of these choices

A

c) Nitric oxide

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23
Q

23) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts?
a) Erythropoietin
b) Thrombopoietin
c) Nitric oxide
d) Human growth hormone
e) Heparin

A

b) Thrombopoietin

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24
Q

24) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?
a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia
b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis
d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting
e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation

A

d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting

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25
Q

25) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of
a) thromboplastin.
b) prothrombinase.
c) clotting factor XII.
d) fibrin.
e) tissue factor.

A

b) prothrombinase.

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26
Q

26) Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot?
a) Factor V
b) Factor VII
c) Factor XI
d) Factor XIII
e) Factor XIV

A

d) Factor XIII

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27
Q

27) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?
a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative
b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative
d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.

A

b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive

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28
Q

28) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release?
a) Heparin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Plasmin
d) Antithrombin
e) Prostacyclin

A

e) Prostacyclin

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29
Q

29) Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils?
a) Heparin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Thromboxane A2
d) Prostacyclin
e) Plasmin

A

a) Heparin

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30
Q

30) Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

e) E

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31
Q

31) Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

a) A

32
Q

32) Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivided into categories of small and large versions of this cell type?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

d) D

33
Q

33) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a WBC?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) Both B and C
e) All of these choices

A

c) C

34
Q

34) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) G

A

a) A

35
Q

35) Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) G

A

b) B

36
Q

36) Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into thrombocytes?
a) G
b) J
c) K
d) L
e) E

A

a) G

37
Q

37) What is this figure demonstrating?
a) Erythropoiesis
b) RBC differentiation
c) Emigration
d) Clot formation
e) Clot retraction

A

c) Emigration

38
Q

38) What does this figure represent?
a) Erythropoiesis
b) RBC differentiation
c) Emigration
d) Clot formation
e) Clot retraction

A

d) Clot formation

39
Q

39) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood?
a) anti-A
b) anti-B
c) anti-A and anti-B
d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens
e) Not enough information to answer

A

c) anti-A and anti-B

40
Q

40) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin?
a) A
b) B
c) O
d) AB
e) Not enough information is provided to answer question.

A

b) B

41
Q

41) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.

A

Solution: 1) Transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, hormones and heat; 2) Regulation of pH via buffers, body temperature via properties of water in plasma, and water balance via osmotic pressure created by plasma proteins; 3)Protection via clotting, antibodies, phagocytosis, and complement.

42
Q

42) Describe the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis. Under what circumstances would you expect the rate of erythropoiesis to increase? How would it be possible to tell if the rate of erythropoiesis is elevated?

A

Solution: Hypoxia in the kidney leads to secretion of erythropoietin, which targets proerythroblasts in red bone marrow to mature into reticulocytes, which enter circulation to become red blood cells thus increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Tissue hypoxia is induced by any form of anemia (reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood), or when oxygen levels in the external environment are low (e.g., high altitudes). High levels of reticulocytes in the circulation are a strong indicator of increased erythropoiesis.

43
Q

43) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.

A

Solution: The gaseous hormone nitric oxide (NO), produced by the endothelial cells that line blood vessels, binds to hemoglobin. Under some circumstances, hemoglobin releases NO. The released NO causes vasodilation, an increase in blood vessel diameter that occurs when the smooth muscle in the vessel wall relaxes. Vasodilation improves blood flow and enhances oxygen delivery to cells near the site of NO release.

44
Q

44) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?

A

Solution: Blood may come in contact with collagen in the surrounding basal lamina, which activates clotting factor XII, which ultimately leads to the formation of fibrin clots. Platelets also adhere to collagen exposed by damage to the endothelium and begin their release reaction

45
Q

45) When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume?
a) plasma
b) red blood cells
c) platelets
d) buffy coat
e) white blood cells

A

a) plasma

46
Q

46) What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure?
a) 400,000–1 million cells/μL
b) 150–200 cells/μL
c) 4.8–5.4 million cells/μL
d) 150,000–400,000 cells/μL
e) 5,000–10,000 cells/μL

A

c) 4.8–5.4 million cells/μL

47
Q

47) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?
a) eosinophils
b) monocytes
c) lymphocytes
d) neutrophils
e) basophils

A

d) neutrophils

48
Q

48) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?
a) eosinophils
b) monocytes
c) lymphocytes
d) neutrophils
e) basophils

A

e) basophils

49
Q

49) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure?
a) globulin
b) albumin
c) fibrinogen
d) thrombin
e) keratin

A

b) albumin

50
Q

50) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure?
a) globulin
b) albumin
c) fibrinogen
d) all of the protein listed are found in equal percentages
e) none of proteins listed are found in component I

A

c) fibrinogen

51
Q

51) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils?
a) Megakaryoblast
b) Proerythroblast
c) T lymphoblast
d) Monoblast
e) Myeloblast

A

e) Myeloblast

52
Q

52) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to the platelets?
a) Megakaryoblast
b) Proerythroblast
c) T lymphoblast
d) Monoblast
e) Myeloblast

A

a) Megakaryoblast

53
Q

53) Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes?
a) Platelets
b) Erythrocytes
c) T lymphocytes
d) Monocytes
e) Basophils

A

b) Erythrocytes

54
Q

54) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes?
a) Proerythroblast
b) Megakaryoblast
c) Lymphoblast
d) Myeloblast
e) None of the selections are correct.

A

c) Lymphoblast

55
Q

55) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to granular leukocytes?
a) Proerythroblast
b) Megakaryoblast
c) Lymphoblast
d) Myeloblast
e) None of the selections are correct.

A

d) Myeloblast

56
Q

56) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

a) A

57
Q

57) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate viral infections?
a) A & B
b) B & C
c) C & D
d) D & E
e) E & C

A

d) D & E

58
Q

58) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

b) B

59
Q

59) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate cancer or hypothyroidism?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

c) C

60
Q

60) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

e) E

61
Q

61) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

c) C

62
Q

62) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systemic lupus erythromatosus?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

a) A

63
Q

63) Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol?
a) A & B
b) B & C
c) C & D
d) D & E
e) E & C

A

d) D & E

64
Q

64) Serum is
a) the same as plasma.
b) plasma without the clotting factors.
c) the same as lymph.
d) formed during the first step in blood clotting.
e) pulmonary interstitial fluid.

A

b) plasma without the clotting factors.

65
Q

65) Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called
a) hemorrhagic anemia.
b) aplastic anemia.
c) megaloblastic anemia.
d) pernicious anemia.
e) iron deficiency anemia.

A

d) pernicious anemia.

66
Q

66) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in
a) hemorrhagic anemia.
b) aplastic anemia.
c) megaloblastic anemia.
d) pernicious anemia.
e) iron deficiency anemia.

A

b) aplastic anemia.

67
Q

67) A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes production of large abnormal red blood cells is called
a) hemorrhagic anemia.
b) aplastic anemia.
c) megaloblastic anemia.
d) pernicious anemia.
e) iron deficiency anemia.

A

c) megaloblastic anemia.

68
Q

68) Anemia is defined as
a) a condition where blood does not clot properly.
b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response.
c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding.
d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.
e) none of these choices.

A

d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.

69
Q

69) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.

A

Solution: 1) Vascular spasm occurs when circularly arranged smooth muscles in arteriole walls contract to reduce blood loss. 2) Platelet plug formation starts when platelets making contact with collagen fibers from a damaged vessel. This will initiate a series of reactions, which leads to platelet activation and the release of their vesicular content that ultimately attracts more platelets to the area, eventually leading to the formation of a plug over the damaged area. 3) Blood clotting involves a cascade of enzymatic reactions following platelet plug formation. The clot enables the damaged vessel to heal and repair properly.

70
Q

70) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is
a) 4 to 5 years.
b) 4 to 5 hours.
c) 5 to 9 days.
d) 120 days.
e) 120 weeks.

A

d) 120 days.

71
Q

71) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and thromobocytes?
a) no nucleus
b) large segmented nucleus
c) cytoplasmic granules
d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days
e) develop from myeloblasts
f) more than one answer selection is correct

A

a) no nucleus

72
Q

72) Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation?
a) erythrocytes
b) thrombocytes
c) monocytes
d) basophils
e) eosinophils

A

b) thrombocytes

73
Q

73) A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining the stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from
a) the spermatic cord of a donor’s testes.
b) the spinal cord of the patient.
c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth.
d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient.
e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus.

A

c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth.

74
Q

74) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient?
a) Agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells.
b) Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells.
c) Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys.
d) More than one of the answer selection is correct.
e) No adverse reactions would occur.

A

d) More than one of the answer selection is correct.

75
Q

75) Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum?
a) AB negative
b) AB positive
c) O negative
d) O positive
e) None of the selections are correct

A

a) AB negative

BIO 235 FINALS REVIEW (11 decks)

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