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Microbiology > Chapter 18 Micro > Flashcards

Chapter 18 Micro Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is variolation?

A

Exposure of individuals to smallpox scabs by inhalation or through open wounds

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2
Q

What is vaccination?

A

Inoculation of cowpox virus into skin (Edward Jenner)

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3
Q

Why/how does vaccination work?

A
  • Exposure generates a primary immune response producing antibodies and memory B- and T-cells.
  • Secondary immune response upon re-exposure is therefore rapid and strong.
  • Vaccination is one of the great achievements of modern medicine.
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4
Q

Measles

A
  • Measles is caused by measles virus (paramyxovirus, – strand, unsegmented, enveloped, no animal reservoirs)
  • Highly contagious, airborne spread by coughs and sneezes. Complications include blindness, inflammation of brain, pneumonia and death
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5
Q

Measles vaccine

A
  • Highly effective for long-term protection against measles infection
  • Live attenuated virus given with mumps and rubella (MMR vaccine) as shot and a booster
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6
Q

Why is vaccination useful?

A
  • For disease prevention in individuals and the public at large
  • Useful against viruses for which there are few or no treatments
  • Does not require that everyone be vaccinated for it to be effective; herd immunity limits epidemics
  • Commonly administered to children and adult travelers
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7
Q

What are the different types vaccines?

A 
-Attenuated whole-agent vaccines (live)
MMR, Sabin polio (OPV)
-Inactivated whole-agent vaccines (killed)
Salk polio (IPV)
-Toxoids (inactivated toxins)
Tetanus
-Subunit vaccines (antigenic proteins or fractions)
Acellular pertussis
Recombinant hepatitis B
SARS-CoV-2
-Conjugated vaccines
The antigen is linked to another immunogenic molecule
Particularly useful for polysaccharides
Effective in children <18 months
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8
Q

What are mRNA vaccines?

A
  • Against SARS-CoV-2 contain an mRNAs for just the Spike protein embedded within a lipid “nanoparticle”.
  • The lipid nanoparticle protects the mRNA from degradation until the mRNA gets inside the cell where it can be translated
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9
Q

What is the first type of polio vaccine?

A 
Inactivated whole-agent vaccine (killed):
-Salk: Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)
1955
-virus inactivated with formalin
-injection, produces IgG in blood
-prevents virus spreading to CNS
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10
Q

What is the second type of polio vaccine?

A 
Attenuated whole-agent vaccine (live)
-Sabin: Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)
1962
-mutant “attenuated” virus strains
-droplet or sugar cube, gut immunity
-provides contact immunity
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11
Q

What is the varicella vaccine?

A
  • prevents chicken pox in children
  • can prevent shingles (zoster) in elderly
  • no vaccine-associated deaths in 40M doses (safe)
  • vaccination not routine in some countries (e.g., UK)
  • vaccination required in 41 states in US
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12
Q

What is the HPV vaccine?

A

-there are more than 150 serotypes of HPV
-90% of genital warts caused by HPV Types 6 and 11
-70% of cervical cancers caused by Types 16 and 18
-Types 16 and 18 cause half of vaginal, vulval, penile, anal and oropharyngeal cancers
-Cervarix vaccine is against Types 16 and 18.
-Gardasil is against Types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
recommended for 11-12 year-old girls and boys
and women to 26 years old
**cervical cancer is one of the few preventable cancers

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13
Q

What is the Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)?

A
  • conjugate vaccine: polysaccharide + protein
  • H. influenzae type B causes meningitis
  • polysaccharide alone doesn’t work well in children under 18 mos. of age
  • conjugate is effective in kids, who have immature immune systems
  • herd immunity: giving vaccine to children reduces H. influenza type B infections in adults
  • H.i.B polysaccharide fused to either tetanus, diptheria or meningococcal proteins
  • Hib vaccine is one of WHO’s Essential Medicines
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14
Q

What is control, elimination, eradication?

A

-Control: Reduction to an acceptable level
-Eradication: Permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection caused by a specific agent as a result of deliberate efforts; intervention measures are no longer needed.
Example: smallpox
-Elimination of disease: Reduction to zero of a disease’s incidence in a defined area.
-Elimination of infections: Reduction to zero of infection in a defined area. Example: polio.

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15
Q

What is extinction?

A

The specific infectious agent no longer exists in nature or in the laboratory.
Example: none

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16
Q

How was smallpox eradicated?

A
  • First effort was in 1950
  • 1980 was declared eradicated
  • Jenner first used cowpox in 1792
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17
Q

What are some characteristic to develop new vaccines?

A
  • Must be profitable
  • Must be able to culture pathogen
  • Recombinant DNA techniques
  • Adjuvants
  • Deliver in combo
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18
Q

There are no useful vaccines for what?

A

chlamydias, fungi, protozoa, helminths
HIV*
those against cholera and tuberculosis are not reliable
the easy vaccines may have already been made

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19
Q

What vaccines are still in the experimental stage?

A

Ebola

-Using AAV or VSV viruses to deliver Ebola

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20
Q

Why are oral vaccines useful?

A
  • easy to admin

- effective for protection at mucous membranes

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21
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

risk vs benefit

Example: OPV sometimes causes poliomyelitis

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22
Q

What is the Global Eradication Initiative?

A
  • Program to eradicate polio primarily funded by Bill Gates

- Has reduced polio incidence of 99%

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23
Q

What is an example of diagnostic immunology?

A

Koch’s experiment:
-Guinea pigs with TB injected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis: Site became red and slightly swollen
-like the Tuberculin (or Mantoux) test
due to cell-mediated immunity

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24
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

True positive rate. Probability that the test is reactive if the specimen is a true positive

25
Q

What is specificity?

A

True negative rate. Probability that the test is not reactive if a specimen is a true negative

26
Q

What is a false positive?

A

A positive test on an individual that is in reality negative

False positive rate = 1 – specificity

27
Q

What is a false negative?

A

A negative test on an individual that is in reality positive

False negative rate = 1 – sensitivity

28
Q

What is diagnostic immunology?

A

adaptive immune system of vertebrates is highly specific and therefore a powerful source of diagnostic tools

29
Q

Some tests look for presence of ANTIGEN using ___ as tool

A

ANTIBODY

30
Q

Some tests look for presence of ANTIBODY using ___ as tool

A

ANTIGEN

31
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

B-cells normally reproduce only a few times under cell culture conditions

32
Q

What is hybridoma?

A

“Immortal” cancerous B cell fused with an antibody-producing normal B cell, produces

33
Q

What are the characteristics of monoclonal antibodies?

A
  1. single, uniform antibody
  2. can be highly specific for an antigen
  3. can be produced in large quantities
34
Q

What are some uses for monoclonal antibodies?

A

-diagnostic tests to detect a pathogen
-pregnancy tests to detect a hormone
-therapeutic agents
Muromonab-CD3: minimize rejection of kidney transplant
Infliximab: For Crohn’s disease
Ibritumomab + rituximab: For non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Trastuzumab: Herceptin for breast cancer

35
Q

What are chimeric MABS?

A

Genetically modified mice that produce Ab with a human constant region

36
Q

What are humanized MABS?

A

Mabs that are mostly human, except for mouse antigen–binding

37
Q

What are fully human antibodies?

A

Mabs produced from a human gene on a mouse (e.g. Herceptin)

38
Q

What are two monoclonal antibodies that have been used to treat COVID?

A

casirivimab/imdevimab

must be given as injection

39
Q

What is precipitation?

A

Soluble antigens

40
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Particulate antigens

41
Q

What is neutralization?

A

Inactivates toxin or virus

42
Q

What is fluorescent-antibody technique?

A

Antibodies linked to fluorescent dye

43
Q

What is complement fixation?

A

RBCs are indicator

44
Q

What is ELISA?

A

Chromogenic substrate + enzyme is the indicator

45
Q

What is precipitation reactions?

A

Visible precipitate occurs when the two are at optimal ratios

46
Q

What is agglutination reactions?

A
  • Particulate antigens and antibodies
  • Antigens on a cell (direct agglutination)
  • red blood cells, bacteria, fungi
47
Q

What is indirect agglutination?

A

latex agglutination tests are more rapid than typical agglutination tests

48
Q

What is an antibody titer?

A

Concentration of antibodies against a particular antigen
The higher the titer, the greater the amount of antibody.
1:20 is a low titer
1:640 is a high titer
A rise in titer indicates seroconversion

49
Q

What is hemagglutination?

A

Hemagglutination involves agglutination of RBCs

Some viruses agglutinate RBCs in vitro

50
Q

What viral hemagglutination-inhibition?

A

Hemagglutination involves agglutination of RBCs
Some viruses agglutinate RBCs in vitro
Antibodies prevent hemagglutination

51
Q

What are neutralization reactions?

A

Eliminate the harmful effect of a virus or exotoxin

52
Q

What is the complement fixation test?

A

Can detect a very small amount of antibody

53
Q

What is direct FA?

A

antibody is conjugated (chemically linked) to fluorine isothiocyanate (FITC), a fluorescent dye

54
Q

What is indirect FA?

A

can be more sensitive, but sometimes less reliable than direct FA
To detect human antibodies, requires anti-human immune serum globulin (anti-HISG)

55
Q

What is the Fluorescence-Activated Cell Sorter (FACS)?

A

Based on flow cytometer, which measures different wavelengths of light as cells pass by a laser
Can detect cell size, DNA content, and fluorescent signals from antibodies or other reagents
Can sort cells based on any of these parameters by putting a slight charge on the cell.

56
Q

What is ELISA?

A
  • An antibody in the assay is covalently linked to an enzyme that causes a substrate to become colored or fluorescent
  • The enzyme is typically horseradish peroxidase (HRP) and alkaline phosphatase (AP)
57
Q

direct ELISA

A

tests for antigen

58
Q

indirect ELISA

A

tests for antibody

59
Q

example of serological tests

A

pregnancy test

Microbiology (7 decks)

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