Chapter 18: Infertility Flashcards

1
Q

INFERTILITY. You are a trainee intern in a general practice. You are seeing Liz, a 26 year old Pākehā woman who has recently stopped the combined oral contraceptive pill as she would like to conceive. She presents wishing to know whether she is ovulating. From the following options, which symptom would best CONFIRM for Liz that she is likely ovulating?

  1. Breast tenderness a week before her period
  2. Periods painful on first or second day
  3. Regular and predictable periods each month
  4. Clots with her periods?
  5. Thicker mucus at midcycle
  6. Heavy menstrual loss
A
  1. Regular and predictable periods each month

A regular predictable cycle means that a woman such as Liz is likely ovulating. Breast tenderness, clotting, menstrual loss, pain and mucus may be features of an ovulatory cycle, but are unreliable in regards to confirmation of ovulation.

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2
Q

INFERTILITY. You are a trainee intern in general practice with Rosie, a 28 year old G0P0 NZ European woman. She has a 2 year history of primary infertility, and her periods have become increasingly painful over the last 3 years. Her periods are regular and not heavy. Her 31 year old husband has a 6 year old child by a previous relationship. Neither have had treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. Examination reveals a fixed and retroverted uterus. There is tenderness in the posterior fornix and nodules are palpable on the utero-sacral ligaments. From the options provided, select the MOST LIKELY cause of their infertility.

  1. Endometriosis
  2. Adenomyosis
  3. Fibroids
  4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
  5. Low sperm count / male factor infertility
  6. PCOS
A
  1. Endometriosis

The symptoms and signs are suggestive of endometriosis, which accounts for around 10% of infertility, and is contributory of a further 30%. The degree of endometriosis in this woman is likely to be moderate to severe. Pelvic inflammatory disease in most cases results from an ascending infection from the lower genital tract. Adenomyosis is difficult to diagnose clinically and its association with infertility is controversial. Nodules palpated on the uterosacral ligaments are a classical association with endometriosis. PCOS is most commonly associated with irregular periods and normal vaginal findings.

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3
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Manaia and Nikau, a Māori couple both of whom are aged 28 years. They have been together for two years and stopped condom contraception two months ago. He had bilateral orchidopexies when aged 6 yrs. His testis volumes are both 16 mls (N=15 – 25mls). Because of the history of testis surgery, your colleague had arranged a semen analysis. They present to discuss the results. Nikau’s semen analysis shows: Volume 5 ml (N= 2-6 ml) Concentration 22 million per ml(N > 15 million per ml) Total motility 70% (N > 40%) Which of the following options is the MOST APPROPRIATE management?

  1. Refer to the local hospital for consideration of laparoscopy and tubal dye studies
  2. Repeat the semen analysis at the laboratory in a month
  3. Reassurance and offer review in 6 to 9 months if they have not conceived
  4. Arrange a hysterosalpingogram
  5. Refer to a tertiary fertility provider for consideration of IVF with ICSI
A
  1. Reassurance and offer review in 6 to 9 months if they have not conceived

Nikau has a normal examination and semenanalysis. Repeating the semen test at the local lab is also not necessary – that is recommended only if the result is abnormal. No further investigation or fertility treatment is warranted at this stage as the couple have been trying to conceive for only two months.

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4
Q

You are a trainee intern in a gynaecology clinic seeing Zara, a 29-year-old Pākehā woman and her 31-year-old male partner. They have been referred because of a 1 year history of primary infertility. The couple have sexual intercourse 2-3 times per week. Zara has regular cycles every 27-30 days, without any abnormal pain or bleeding. Examination is normal. You arrange various blood investigations. Of the following options, what is the MOST IMPORTANT blood test to confirm that Zara has a normal ovulatory cycle?

A. Day 21 or day 22 serum progesterone

B. Day 2-3 serum FSH

C. Day 14 serum LH

D. Day 8 serum progesterone

E. Day 21 or day 22 oestradiol

A

A. Day 21 or day 22 serum progesterone

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5
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice. You are seeing Amber, a 28 year old nulligravid Pākehā woman who wishes to be referred to fertility services as she and her wife Moana wish to conceive a baby using donor sperm. Prior to the referral, you arrange routine bloods, vaginal swabs and a cervical smear. Which of the following test results would require TREATMENT prior to Amber embarking on fertility treatment?

A. Blood Group A Negative

B. Hep B (s) Antigen: Negative

C. Rubella IgG Antibody: 5 IU/ l (Normal >11)

D. Red Cell antibody negative

E. Chlamydia swab: Negative

F. Syphilis EIA screen: Non-reactive

G. Cytology - Cervical Smear; Satisfactory for evaluation; Negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy

A

C. Rubella IgG Antibody: 5 IU/ l (Normal >11)

Initial investigations of the female include a rubella screen, with a normal result being 11 or greater IU/L. Rubella infection during pregnancy can be devastating to the fetus. Fetal complications of maternal infection include cardiac malformations, microcephaly, cataracts, cognitive impairment and hearing abnormalities. The risk of congenital rubella syndrome is highest when maternal infection occurs at less than 11 weeks gestation. Pre-pregnancy vaccination essentially prevents maternal risk. Conception should be avoided for one month as the vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine.

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6
Q

You are a trainee intern in a general practice. You see a couple (both Samoan) who have a 12 month history of infertility. Siale, the woman, who is aged 30 years, has had two children from a previous relationship aged 4 and 7 years. Since stopping the oral contraceptive pill 18 months ago she has had regular 27-30 day menstrual cycles with no abnormal bleeding or pain. The couple have been having sexual intercourse 3-4 times per week. LH ovulation detection kits are positive on Day 13-14, and they are ensuring they are having regular coitus around this time. Her partner is aged 30 and has not had any pregnancies in previous relationships. Neither have ever had a sexually transmitted infection. Genital examination of both partners is normal. From the options provided, select which initial investigation is MOST LIKELY to be ABNORMAL given the above history?

A. Anti-Mullerian Hormone

B. Semen analysis

C. Pelvic ultrasound

D. Day 2-4 FSH and/or E2

E. Rubella serology

F. Day 21 progesterone

G. Hysterosalpingogram

A

B. Semen analysis

Siale does not have an ovulatory problem, and a tubal problem is unlikely as her previous fertility has been very normal and ovarian reserve (as judged by Day 2-3 FSH and E2, and/or AMH) at her age is unlikely to be compromised, especially given her previous fertility history. As she has never had an STI, tubal disease is unlikely. At least 35% of infertility is male factor. In this case, a semenanalysis is the most likely investigation to be abnormal. Determination of rubella status will not be useful at this time to help determine the cause of the couple’s delay in conceiving.

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7
Q

You are seeing Sarah, a 29-year-old Māori wahine and her 31-year-old male partner who have been referred because of a 1 year history of primary infertility. The couple have regular sexual intercourse 2-3 times per week. Sarah has regular and pain-free menstrual cycles. Examination of both is normal. A semen analysis is also normal. Mid-luteal progesterones have confirmed ovulatory cycles. Day 2-3 FSH and AMH levels are indicative of adequate ovarian reserve. Pelvic ultrasound was normal. Neither partner has any history of sexually transmitted infections. From the following options, what is the BEST NEXT INVESTIGATION recommended?

A. Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) or Hysterosalpingo Contrast Sonography (HyCoSy)

B. Hysteroscopy, D & C

C. Repeat semen analysis

D. Saline sonar hysterogram

E. Hysteroscopy, laparoscopy and tubal insufflation

A

A. Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) or Hysterosalpingo Contrast Sonography (HyCoSy)

In the presence of a normal transvaginal ultrasound, and the absence of any other obvious cause for delay in achieving pregnancy, tubal patency testing is indicated. As the initial semen analysis is normal, a further test is not necessary. Given there is no reason to suspect pelvic pathology, radiology to assess fallopian tubes is indicated. This may be performed with a hysterosalpingogram or a Hysterosalpingo Contrast Sonography (HyCoSy). If history, examination or ultrasound gives cause to suspect pelvic pathology, then tubal patency testing is generally performed with laparoscopy with tubal dye insufflations. This is performed under general anaesthetic, and will also give the surgeon the opportunity to search for other possible causes of subfertility such as endometriosis. A saline sonar hysterogram is sometimes performed if intrauterine pathology is suspected such as fibroids, polyps or adhesions.

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8
Q

You are a trainee intern in a general practice with Lopini, a 29-year-old G0P0 Tongan woman and her 31-year-old male partner who present with primary infertility for 1 year. The couple have sexual intercourse 2-3 times per week. Lopini has regular periods every 28-29 days. After a full reproductive, sexual, medical and surgical history, examination of both partners is also normal/unremarkable. Which of the following is the next MOST IMPORTANT investigation of their infertility?

A. Semen analysis

B. Karyotyping of both partners

C. Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound

D. Blood tests of ovarian reserve

E. Blood tests to confirm ovulation

F. Blood tests of her thyroid function and prolactin levels

A

A. Semen analysis

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9
Q

You are trainee intern in general practice. You are about to ring Hone, a 30 year old Māori male whom you saw last week. Hone and his female partner had a primary fertility workup the previous week. History and examination was unremarkable and his partner’s initial tests have been normal. His semen analysis result is: Volume 4ml (N = 2-6ml) Concentration 11 million/ml (N >15) Motility 38% (N >40%) Morphology 8% (N >4%) From the following options, which is the BEST ADVICE for the next step in management?

A. Testicular ultrasound scan

B. Serum testosterone

C. Karyotype

D. Serum FSH

E. Reassure all tests are normal, and review in four months if not pregnant

F. Arrange a repeat sample with 3 days abstinence

A

F. Arrange a repeat sample with 3 days abstinence

If the result of a man’s first semen analysis is abnormal, a repeat confirmatory test should be offered, particularly when it is only mildly abnormal. Investigation into the cause of mild oligospermia is not indicated as this stage.

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10
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Anna, a 26 year old G0P0 NZ European woman and her 30 year old husband. They have been wanting to conceive for the last 2 months. He has not been able to maintain an erection to achieve penetrative intercourse. He is able to ejaculate with masturbation. History and examination of both are unremarkable. Which of the following options is NOT appropriate?

A. Discuss the use of a medication such as sildenafil (Viagra)

B. Show empathy with the couple, as this may be a difficult topic for them to discuss

C. Agree that feelings such as guilt and self-blame are common feelings in couples who are having similar problems

D. Reassure them that the problem is common

E. Offer referral to a sexual counsellor/ therapist

F. Advise them that they do not meet the definition for infertility until they have been trying for a pregnancy for 12 months

A

F. Advise them that they do not meet the definition for infertility until they have been trying for a pregnancy for 12 months

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11
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Edith, a 26 year old G0P0 NZ European woman who has just stopped the pill and wishes to become pregnant. Edith is seeking information about the best time to conceive. Prior to going on the pill a year ago, her periods were regular and normal every 28 days. History and examination of her is normal. Her husband is also aged 26. Which of the following options is the MOST APPROPRIATE advice?

A. The best time to have sex is when you have preovulatory mucus, which is that increased watery clear discharge at midcycle

B. Use a daily temperature chart to check you are ovulating, as the temperature rises about 0.5O C after normal ovulation

C. Use an LH urine kit to determine when you are ovulating, and thus the best time to have sex

D. Confine sex to your most fertile period, which is likely to be between Days 12-16

E. Have sex daily or every other day if possible for the 5 days leading up to and including the day of ovulation which is likely between days 10-16 in a regular 28 day cycle

F. When you have the mid-cycle ovulation discomfort, you are ovulating, and that is the best time to have sex

A

E. Have sex daily or every other day if possible for the 5 days leading up to and including the day of ovulation which is likely between days 10-16 in a regular 28 day cycle

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12
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Penny, a 19 year old G0P0 Pākehā woman who has just advised you that this will be the last prescription for the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has been using the pill for four years, and is stopping as she wishes to become pregnant. Addressing which of the following lifestyle issues would MOST BENEFIT her fertility?

A. Her BMI of 29.4

B. Her weekly use of marijuana

C. Her caffeine intake of 5+ cups of coffee per day

D. Her smoking of 20 cigarettes per day

E. Her alcohol intake of 3 units per week

A

D. Her smoking of 20 cigarettes per day

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13
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Hannah, a 28 year old G0P0 Pākehā woman who presents with her husband as they haven’t conceived six months after she stopped the pill. She started on the pill at age 16 for irregular periods. Since stopping the pill Hannah has had two periods; the last was two months ago. A home pregnancy test was negative. Apart from her weight (BMI 29 kg/m2), there are no abnormalities on examination, and particularly no hirsutism or acne. You wonder if this could be PCOS and arrange several investigations. Which of the following options would be MOST LIKELY to help confirm this diagnosis?

A. FSH

B. Oestradiol

C. A transvaginal pelvic ultrasound

D. Serum progesterone

E. Insulin

F. Testosterone

G. Prolactin

A

C. A transvaginal pelvic ultrasound

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14
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Lucy, a 28 year old G0P0 NZ European woman who presents with her husband as they haven’t yet conceived 12 months after she stopped the oral contraceptive pill. She started on the pill for irregular periods at age 16. She did not have acne. Since stopping the pill she has had two periods; the last was two months ago. A home pregnancy test was negative. Apart from her weight (BMI 29 kg/m2), there are no abnormalities on examination, and particularly no hirsutism or acne. You arrange an ultrasound scan and are reviewing the result with her. A representative picture of each ovary is shown.
ovaries

[2 ULTRASOUND SCANS OF OVARIES WITH]

From the following options, which is her MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

A. PCO (Polycystic Ovaries)

B. Bilateral ovarian serous cystadenomas

C. PCOS (Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome)

D. Normal ovaries

E. Functional ovarian cysts

F. Bilateral complex ovarian cysts

A

C. PCOS (Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome)

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15
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice seeing Holly, a 37 year old nulliparous Pākehā woman who hasn’t conceived since she stopped the pill one year ago. Holly has a BMI of 24. She has regular periods, 5/28, with slight spotting for 2-3 days before the heavier loss. She also has significantly increasing pain before her periods over the past year, and sometimes pelvic pain on her right side at midcycle. Holly has no dyspareunia, or pain with bowel motions. She has never had an STI and all smear tests are normal. Her partner aged 38, has good health, and has two children from a previous relationship. The youngest is aged 5 years. Based on this history, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of her infertility?

A. (PCOS) Polycystic ovary syndrome

B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

C. Endometriosis

D. Endometrial hyperplasia

E. Male factor

A

C. Endometriosis

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16
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice. You are seeing Heidi, a 28 year old G0P0 Pākehā woman and her husband fertility delay. Heidi stopped the oral contraceptive pill 12 months earlier. When aged 16, she was started on the pill for irregular periods. (She did not then have acne.) Since stopping the pill she has had two periods, the last two months ago. A home pregnancy test was negative. Her weight is 60 kg (BMI 23 kg/m2), and there are no abnormalities on examination, and particularly no hirsutism or acne. Bloods show a testosterone of 1.9 nmol/L; (N< 2.3) prolactin 540 IU/L (N < 650). An ultrasound shows that both ovaries were polycystic with more than 20 antral follicles (2-8mm) in at least one of her ovaries. An AMH measure is high at 72 (N 14-30). From the following options, which is the MOST APPROPRIATE initial fertility treatment?

A.Weight loss

B. Letrozole or Clomiphene

C. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling

D. Recombinant FSH injections

E. IVF

F. A dopamine agonist (e.g. cabergoline)

G. Metformin

A

B. Letrozole or Clomiphene

17
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice reviewing Emma, a 37 year old G0P0 NZ European woman (BMI 24) who had a laparoscopic right ovarian cystectomy for a 4 cm endometrioma six months ago. Initially Emma experienced relief of her original presenting symptoms of dysmenorrhoea, cyclical mid cycle pain and premenstrual spotting. However, she has noticed in the last two months that her symptoms have recurred. They are not severe. Her major concern is that she has been trying to get pregnant for 18 months. Her periods are regular every four weeks. Examination is normal, apart from slight pelvic tenderness. A recent pelvic ultrasound was normal. From the following options, what is the BEST management?

A. Refer for a saline infusion ultrasound

B. Refer for assisted reproductive technology treatment (IVF)

C. Refer for laparoscopic tubal patency testing

D. Refer for a hysterosalpingogram

E. Refer for specialist pain management

A

B. Refer for assisted reproductive technology treatment (IVF)

18
Q

You are a trainee intern in a gynaecology clinic reviewing Eleanor, a 27 year old nulliparous Samoan woman (BMI 24). She has not conceived since she stopped the pill one year ago. Eleanor has regular periods every 28 days, and her periods are 5 days in length. She has increasing pain before her periods, and sometimes pelvic pain on her right side at midcycle. She suffers new deep dyspareunia and pain with bowel motions. Her partner, aged 38, has had a normal semen analysis. The pelvic ultrasound done on day 13 of her cycle showed a normal uterine size and shape. The endometrial thickness was 8mm. The left ovary had a 20mm hypoechoic cyst consistent with either an endometrioma or haemorrhagic ovarian cyst. From the following options, what should the BEST NEXT management step be?

A. Arrange a hysterosalpingogram

B. Arrange for a laparoscopy, ovarian cystectomy and tubal patency testing

C. Repeat the semen analysis

D. Arrange a hysteroscopy

E. Refer for assisted reproductive technology treatment

A

B. Arrange for a laparoscopy, ovarian cystectomy and tubal patency testing

19
Q

You are a trainee intern in a gynaecology day-stay unit. You are discharging Rewa, a 31 year-old G0P0 Māori wahine who has just had a laparoscopy to investigate 12 months of infertility. Rewa’s menstrual cycle is regular between 28 and 31 days and she has moderate dysmenorrhoea. A progesterone measurement seven days before a period confirmed ovulation. Semen analysis showed a sperm density of 44 million per ml with other parameters being normal. The laparoscopy showed normal and patent fallopian tubes and there was stage 1 endometriosis in the Pouch of Douglas that was resected. Rewa asks what is the next step in her management. From the following options, which is the BEST response?

A. Ovulation induction with FSH injections (recombinant gonadotrophins)

B. In-vitro-fertilisation (IVF) with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

C. Education, reassurance and support, review in 6 months if hasn’t conceived

D. Ovulation induction with letrozole or clomiphene citrate

E. In vitro fertilisation (IVF) without intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

F. Ovulation induction with bromocriptine

A

C. Education, reassurance and support, review in 6 months if hasn’t conceived

20
Q

You are a trainee intern in general practice with Maria, a 35-year-old G2P2 Pākehā woman and her 34-year-old husband. They are concerned as they have not conceived after six months. Their 2 other children (now aged 6 and 4) were both conceived within three months of trying. Maria’s menstrual cycle is between 28 and 31 days. A progesterone measurement 7 days before a period confirmed ovulation. A semen analysis revealed a sperm density of 11 million per ml (N > 15) and sperm motility of 25% (N > 40%). From the following options, what is the BEST NEXT management plan?

A. Intrauterine insemination (IUI)

B. Ovulation induction with letrozole or clomiphene citrate

C. In vitro fertilisation (IVF)

D. Education, reassurance and support, and review in 3 months with another semen analysis

E. Ovulation induction with bromocriptine

F. IVF with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

G. Ovarian stimulation with FSH injections

A

D. Education, reassurance and support, and review in 3 months with another semen analysis

21
Q

You are a trainee intern in a fertility clinic and are talking with Joon, a 32 year old G0P0 woman of Korean ethnicity, who is about to start a cycle of IVF. She wants to know why there are so many drugs and what they are for.
Which of the following options is INCORRECT?

A. The GnRH antagonist injections are to stop you ovulating prematurely before we are ready to perform the egg retrieval

B. The oral contraceptive pill is used before you start the injections to make sure you have a good lining to your uterus for implantation of the embryo after transfer

C. The progesterone pessaries are to provide luteal support after the egg pickup

D. The FSH injections are to stimulate your ovaries to produce and grow multiple follicles rather than just the one normally produced each month

E. The single injection of hCG 36 hours before the egg pick up is like the ovulation hormone LH and triggers the final stage of egg maturation

A

B. The oral contraceptive pill is used before you start the injections to make sure you have a good lining to your uterus for implantation of the embryo after transfer

22
Q

You are a trainee intern in a gynaecology acute assessment unit. Talia, a 34 year old G0P0 Samoan woman, has been referred because of increasing pain and abdominal swelling four days following an oocyte retrieval during her IVF cycle. Twenty six eggs were retrieved. The indication for her needing IVF was that her husband had severe oligospermia (ICSI was also needed). Talia had an antagonist treatment protocol, utilising recombinant hCG (ovidrel) for the trigger of final oocyte maturation. On examination Talia’s temperature is 37.1OC, and pulse rate 76 bpm. There is abdominal distension and urine output is minimal. Ultrasound scan shows bilateral enlarged ovaries measuring 15cm diameter. From the following options, what is the most likely CAUSE for this hospital presentation?

A. Haemorrhagic ovarian cyst

B. Peritoneal sepsis

C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

D. Intraperitoneal haemorrhage

E. Ovarian infection

F. Intraovarian bleeding

A

C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome