Chapter 12: Medical Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

ou are a trainee intern at an antenatal clinic seeing Mia, a 32- year-old G4P2 Pākehā woman who is 30 weeks pregnant. Mia has had an abnormal 2hr glucose tolerance test (GTT); with all of the results being above the normal range.
Which of the following third trimester complications is Mia NOT at an increased risk of developing due to her diabetes in pregnancy?

Hypertension

Proteinuria

Placenta praevia

Candida vaginitis

Urinary tract infection

A

Placenta praevia

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2
Q

Sophia, a 32-year-old G4 P2 Pākehā woman who is 30 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes after an abnormal 2 hour 75g oral glucose tolerance test (GTT).

Which of the following neonatal complications is it MOST important to monitor all babies born after pregnancies with diabetes for postnatally?

Macrosomia

Hypocalcaemia

Hypoglycaemia

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Hyperbilirubinemia

A

Hypoglycaemia

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3
Q

Amandeep, a 28-year-old G4P2 woman originally from Bangladesh is 28 weeks pregnant. Her recent Polycose test was abnormal at 8.2mmol/L (N < 7.8mmol/L). Her HbA1C at booking was 32 (N <40mmol/mol), indicating that she did not have diabetes prior to pregnancy.
Which of the following options is the next step for Amandeep’s care?

Monitor her blood sugars for 2 weeks and review

A repeat Polycose test at 32 weeks and review

A 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test and review

See the diabetes team and start long acting insulin nocte

Start a low carbohydrate diet and metformin

A

A 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test and review

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4
Q

Charlotte, a 36 year old G1P0 Pākehā woman who is 9 weeks pregnant presents to the antenatal clinic. Two years ago Charlotte was diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes that is now well controlled with diet and metformin. Her BMI is 40. Which of the following blood tests does Charlotte NOT require in this pregnancy?

Rubella serology

Blood Group and Antibody screen

Two hour 75gm glucose tolerance test

HbA1C

FBC

A

Two hour 75gm glucose tolerance test

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5
Q

Mei is a 20-year-old woman who moved to New Zealand from China two years ago. She is considering pregnancy, and has never been pregnant before. She has had three major operations as a neonate to correct a congenital heart abnormality. She last saw her cardiologist in China two years ago. You have no notes or records.

You ask her to get her notes from China as you would like a cardiologist to be involved in her preconceptual counselling. Which of the following findings in her history or cardiovascular examination would be of most immediate concern?

Cyanosis and clubbing

A history of surgery occurring when she was a neonate

A jugular venous pressure (JVP) 2cm above the sternal angle

A systolic ejection murmur

A regular pulse rate of 72 bpm

A

Cyanosis and clubbing

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6
Q

Rachana, a 29-year-old G3P2 woman is 28 weeks pregnant. Rachana was born in India and has been in New Zealand for 7 years. Her previous two children aged two and four, weighed 4.2 and 4.6 Kg respectively, and were born via caesarean section. Rachana has a BMI of 32. Her mother developed Type 2 diabetes aged 50.

Which of the factors in her history is the LEAST likely to increase her risk of developing gestational diabetes?

BMI > 25

Asian ethnicity

Previous macrosomic infant

Age <30

Family history of diabetes

A

Age <30

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7
Q

Aria, a 32-year-old G4P2 wahine Māori is 30 weeks pregnant. After an abnormal Polycose test at 28weeks, Aria has an abnormal 2hr oral glucose tolerance test, with a fasting sugar of 5.6 and a 2 hour result of 10.3. She asks whether she is at increased risk of pregnancy complications.

Which of the following pregnancy complications is she NOT at increased risk of, given her glucose tolerance test result?

Shoulder dystocia

Assisted vaginal birth

Caesarean section

Breech presentation

Prolonged labour

A

Breech presentation

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8
Q

Olivia, a 32-year-old G4P2 NZ European woman who is 30 weeks pregnant comes to the antenatal clinic. Olivia has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. The diabetes team have advised her of the need for meticulous management of her blood glucose levels for the remainder of her pregnancy through diet, and probably medication as the pregnancy progresses. Olivia has difficulty managing her sugars in late pregnancy and has an ultrasound showing a macrosomic baby of 4.7kg with polyhydramnios AFI of 32 (N <20). Which intrapartum risk is most elevated for Olivia and her baby?

Retained placenta

Antepartum haemorrhage

Umbilical cord prolapse

Placenta praevia

Chorioamnionitis

A

Umbilical cord prolapse

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9
Q

Janet, a 22-year-old nulliparous Pākehā woman wishes to get pregnant. She has a congenital heart problem that has not required surgery but is being followed annually with a cardiologist. When Olivia saw her cardiologist six months ago she advised the cardiologist that she wasn’t planning on a pregnancy so they haven’t given her any specific advice. Which of the following congenital heart problems would MOST require a cardiology review prior to conception?

Mitral valve prolapse - mild

Atrial Septal Defect

Small, uncomplicated patent ductus arteriosus

Mitral stenosis

Surgically repaired Ventricular Septal Defect

A

Mitral stenosis

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10
Q

Amelia, a 24 year old G1P0 Pākehā woman is 11 weeks pregnant. You take a history in antenatal history and note she has annual reviews with cardiology because of a “heart problem” that was diagnosed in infancy. Amelia is keen to attempt a vaginal delivery. You examine the cardiology notes that were sent with the GP’s booking letter to determine the type and severity of her congenital heart problem.. Amelia remains asymptomatic and well during the pregnancy.

Which of the following congenital heart problems would put Amelia MOST at risk of complications at the time of birth?

Marfan’s syndrome with known moderate dilatation of the aortic root

Small ventricular septal defect

Bicuspid aortic valve with trivial aortic stenosis

Small atrial septal defect

Mitral valve prolapse with mild mitral incompetence

A

Marfan’s syndrome with known moderate dilatation of the aortic root

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11
Q

Liliko, a 24 year old G1P0 Samoan woman who is 24 weeks pregnant presents acutely to the obstetric team with increasing breathlessness and orthopnoea over the last four days. Her symptoms are worse overnight and in the morning. She reports coughing up pink frothy sputum. Liliko has no fevers or chest pain, and no infectious symptoms.

Upon further questioning, you learn that she was diagnosed with rheumatic fever in childhood. On examination her pulse is 110. She is afebrile. Her BP is 120/70. Her SpO2 is 90% on room air. Her JVP is at +4. She has bilateral crepitations up to the midzone. When auscultating her heart you hear a loud S1, an early diastolic opening snap and a low-pitched decrescendo-crescendo rumbling diastolic murmur.

Which of the following options is the MOST likely cause of her symptoms?

Tuberculosis

Pulmonary embolus

Mitral incompetence

Mitral stenosis

Pneumonia

A

Mitral stenosis

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12
Q

Sarah is a 34-year-old Pakeha woman who lives in Dunedin. Sarah is 34 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy, and has a BMI of 48. She presents for routine antenatal clinic, and describes becoming more breathless and tired in the last four weeks. She has noticed a gradual decrease in exercise tolerance and reports sometimes feeling faint on standing. She has not had any infectious symptoms and has no relevant past medical history. On general cardiac examination, you note her BP is 120/70 and pulse rate is 85 bpm and regular. Her oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. On auscultation, there is a soft ejection flow murmur. There is no diastolic murmur. Chest examination shows good air entry, with no crepitations or wheeze. Her ankles show mild oedema. Both of her calves are soft and symmetrical. Abdominal examination is consistent with a 34 week pregnancy, and the fetus is active with a heart rate of 120 bpm.
From the following options, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms and signs?

Pulmonary embolus

Asthma

Mitral stenosis

Pulmonary TB

Normal pregnancy

A

Normal pregnancy

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13
Q

Ruby, a 42-year-old G1P1 Pākehā woman presents for pre-conceptual counselling. Ruby has a BMI of 38. In her first pregnancy last year Ruby developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The DVT occurred after Ruby was hospitalised for severe pre-eclampsia and required a caesarean section at 34 weeks. The DVT was diagnosed when Ruby developed a painful swollen calf seven days postnatally when breast feeding.
Of the following options, which has LEAST likely predisposed to her developing the DVT?

Pre-eclampsia

Recent pregnancy

BMI

Caesarean section

Age >40 years

Breastfeeding

A

Breastfeeding

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14
Q

Nina, a 24-year-old nulliparous Niuean woman presents for preconceptual counselling and wishes to review her anticonvulsant medication. Nina has been taking sodium valproate for the past 2 years for epilepsy. It was commenced after she had 2 generalised tonic-clonic seizures. She has had no subsequent seizures since starting the valproate. She is using condoms for contraception.

Of the following options, which is the most appropriate for Nina?

Stop her antiepileptic medication completely and advise against pregnancy for six months

Refer her to a neurologist for consideration of changing her medication. Provide reliable contraception in the interim.

Continue her valproate and commence high dose folic acid (5mg). When she is in the second trimester she should change to lamotrigine.

Advise her valproate dose will need to be increased during pregnancy because of her increased plasma volume in pregnancy.

Continue her sodium valproate and advise she will need to continue it through pregnancy. Commence high dose folic acid (5mg).

A

Refer her to a neurologist for consideration of changing her medication. Provide reliable contraception in the interim.

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15
Q

Chloe, a 24 year old G1P0 Pākehā woman had her booking visit last week at the antenatal clinic at 9 weeks’ gestation. She was well but a screening MSU has grown E. Coli >250,000 CFU/mL, which is sensitive only to trimethoprim and nitrofurantoin. There are >100 leucocytes/ml.

Which of the following options is the best management?

Repeat the MSU to check for resolution

No treatment required as she is asymptomatic

Arrange IV gentamicin and admit

Prescribe oral nitrofurantoin 50mg QID for 7 days

Prescribe oral trimethoprim 300mg OD for 3 days

A

Prescribe oral nitrofurantoin 50mg QID for 7 days

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16
Q

Ava, a 30 year old primigravid Pākehā woman at 20 weeks’ gestation is referred to antenatal clinic. Her LMC is worried that the pregnancy is not going well. Ava has vomited at least once a day throughout the pregnancy and is nauseated and tired most of the time. She has not gained any weight in the last five months. She notes palpitations, especially at night. She is feeling anxious and restless. Her pulse rate is >120 bpm. She reports diarrhoea, difficulty sleeping, and you note palmar erythema, a fine tremor, warm hands, and spider naevi.

Of the following options, which is the most APPROPRIATE management?

Reassure that her symptoms are normal in pregnancy

Arrange 24 hour heart rate monitoring

Arrange urgent liver function tests

Prescribe a beta blocker to help with the tachycardia

Arrange urgent thyroid function tests

A

Arrange urgent thyroid function tests

17
Q

Imogen, a 30-year-old para 0 Pākehā woman is 12 weeks pregnant. Her only medical problem is asthma which is controlled by daily inhaled corticosteroid (Flixotide). She uses her salbutamol inhaler as a reliever about once a week.
Of the following options, which statement about her asthma management during pregnancy is MOST important?

Optimise the control of symptoms and encourage compliance with therapy throughout pregnancy

Drug therapy alterations should only occur if symptoms become severe

Assessment in pregnancy should include lung function tests each trimester

Asthma medications should be reduced in pregnancy because of their fetal risks

She can use her beta2 agonist in pregnancy; inhaled corticosteroids are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Optimise the control of symptoms and encourage compliance with therapy throughout pregnancy

18
Q

Jasmine, a 29-year-old Pākehā woman who is gravida 3, para 2 at 38 weeks’ gestation is in active labour. Jasmine has had 2 previous vaginal births with no complications. Jasmine has been asthmatic since childhood, and during this pregnancy she has needed to increase her asthma inhaled corticosteroid (preventative therapy), and regularly use her salbutamol inhaler. Currently Jasmine is feeling short of breath with the contractions. She is still able to speak in sentences, but has an audible wheeze. Her SpO2 is 95%. She is contracting every 2 minutes and her cervix is 5 centimetres dilated and 100% effaced. The liquor is clear. The fetal heart rate is normal on intermittent auscultation. Jasmine requests pain relief.

Of the following options, which management should Jasmine receive FIRST?

Intravenous antibiotics to cover respiratory infection

Opiate analgesia e.g. pethidine or morphine

6 x 100mcg salbutamol via MDI and spacer

2 x 200mcg budesonide via MDI and spacer

Epidural analgesia

A

6 x 100mcg salbutamol via MDI and spacer

19
Q

Robyn is a 21 year old G1P0 Australian woman has no medical issues. She conceived within two months of stopping the oral contraceptive pill, it was a planned pregnancy. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant. General and abdominal examination showed no abnormality. You are reviewing her booking bloods and note a change from her 12 week booking Hb which was 125 G/dl to, at 28weeks, 107 G/dL. The PCV has dropped from 35% to 30%. The MCV in both tests was 85 (N=76-96 fl).
Of the following options, what is the MOST LIKELY cause of her drop in haemoglobin and PCV?

Haemodilution of pregnancy

Hereditary spherocytosis

Beta-thalassemia

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Folate deficiency

Iron deficiency anaemia

A

Haemodilution of pregnancy