Chapter 17 - ESS

Question 1

To ensure general audibility, in the United States, NFPA 72 require that public mode fire alarm signaling achieves output levels of ___ over average ambient sound (dBA) levels.

a. 20 dB
b. 15 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 5 db

Answer 1

b. 15 dB

p 17-27

Codes and standards contain extensive rules and guidelines to address these issues. To ensure general audibility in the United States, NFPA 72® requires that public mode signaling achieves output levels of 15 dB over average ambient sound (dBA) levels, or 5 dB over the maximum dBA level having duration of at least 60 seconds in all areas of protected premises.

Question 2

A typical electronic access control (EAC) cable consists of four ___ that are used for the door strike, card reader, door contact, and request for exit.

a. Twisted pairs surrounded by an overall shield
b. Strands of multimode optical fiber
c. Unshielded twisted pairs
d. Individually shielded pairs

Answer 2

d. Individually shielded pairs

p 17-10

EAC systems may be part of a converged network and utilize the structured cabling system for connectivity and power. An analog-type EAC cable consists of four individually shielded pairs.

The four individual wire pairs may be supplied individually or in a group. Colored foil shields or jacket colors may be used to designate the intended purpose of each of the wire pairs within the cables.

Question 3

At a minimum, both transmission channels for a digital alarm communicator transmitter (DACT) must be tested at regular intervals not exceeding one week.

a. True
b. False

Answer 3

b. False

p 17-50

Both transmission channels are tested at regular intervals not exceeding 24 hours. If two telephone lines are used, it is permitted to test each telephone line at alternating 24-hour intervals.

For public cellular telephone service, transmit a test signal at least monthly.

Question 4

In terms of lock types, A grade ___ lock has been tested to be more durable than a grade ___.

a. 1, 2
b, 2, 1

Answer 4

a. 1, 2

p 17-13

The term grade is often used to classify hardware by durability. A grade 1 lock has been tested to be more durable than a grade 2. A grade 2 has been tested to be more durable than a grade 3.

Question 5

Electric strike’s unlock time, ___ to ___ seconds, is normally set by the EAC system headend .

a. 2, 6
b. 4, 10
c. 8, 11
d. 10, 14

Answer 5

c. 8, 11

p 17-14

• Electric strike’s unlock time, 8 to 11 seconds, is normally set by the EAC system headend.
• Electric strikes are matched and shall be compatible to the type of locking hardware employed (see Figure 17.5). This may simply be the function of selecting the appropriate faceplate.

Question 6

Magnetic lock door release devices are required the means of release be mounted within approximately ___ ft of the door at a height between approximately ≈1016 mm (40 in) and ≈1220 mm (48 in) AFF, respectively.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

Answer 6

c. 5

p 17-16

Codes normally require the means of release be mounted within approximately ≈1.5 m (5 ft) of the door at a height between approximately ≈1016 mm (40 in) and ≈1220 mm (48 in) AFF, respectively.

Question 7

Mount interior cameras to clear ___ ft AFF while exterior cameras should maintain a minimum of ___.

a. 8, 14
b. 8, 15
c. 9, 14
d. 9, 15

Answer 7

b. 8, 15

p 17-23

Mount interior cameras to clear ≈2.4 m (8 ft) AFF while exterior cameras should maintain a minimum of ≈4.6 m (15 ft). These heights are recommended to prevent intentional and accidental tampering with the camera

Question 8

Video surveillance matrix switches traditionally are available in multiples of 16 or 32 inputs and outputs.

a. True
b. False

Answer 8

b. False

p 17-24

The traditional product is available in multiples of 8 or 16 inputs and outputs

Question 9

Within a recording server, the frame rate for any given application is custom to each situation, but a general rule is never to accept less than ___ fps.

a. 3.75
b. 5
c. 7.5
d. 10

Answer 9

a. 3.75

p 17-26

The normal frame rates used are 1 fps, 3.75 fps, 7.5 fps, 15 fps, and 30 fps. The frame rate for any given application is custom to each situation, but a general rule is never to accept less than 3.75 fps.

Question 10

The traditional video surveillance camera outputs up to 470 lines of resolution; therefore, the ___ CIF is close to the native camera resolution.

a. 2
b. 4

Answer 10

b. 4

p 17-26

The traditional video surveillance camera outputs up to 470 lines of resolution; therefore, the 4CIF is close to the native camera resolution.

The current standard resolutions for National Television System Committee are:
• Common intermediate format (CIF [320 × 240]).
• 2CIF (320 × 480).
• 4CIF (640 × 480).

Question 11

The number of incoming telephone lines to a digital alarm communicator receiver (DACR) is limited to ___ lines.

a. 20
b. 12
c. 8
d. 5

Answer 11

c. 8

p 17-52

The number of incoming telephone lines to a DACR is limited to eight lines.

Question 12

If any digital alarm communicator transmitter (DACT) signal transmission is unsuccessful, the information is transmitted by used of the digital alarm radio transmitter (DART). The DART must be capable of demonstrating a minimum _____ percent probability of successfully completing each transmission sequence.

a. 90
b. 85
c. 95
d. 99

Answer 12

a. 90

p 17-51

The DART is capable of demonstrating a minimum 90-percent probability of successfully completing each transmission sequence. Transmission sequences are repeated a minimum of five times.

Question 13

___ detectors sense visible or invisible particles of combustion generated by burning, smoldering, or the incipient stage of combustion. These devices fall into two categories—photoelectric and ionization.

a. Smoke
b. Flame
c. Heat

Answer 13

a. Smoke

p 17-33

Question 14

___ detectors sense the radiation produced by fire (e.g., visible light or invisible radiation, IR, ultraviolet radiation).

a. Smoke
b. Flame
c. Heat

Answer 14

b. Flame

p 17-33

Question 15

AHJs typically will require pull stations that are located within ___ ft of each door that is a point of egress.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Answer 15

d. 5

p 17-34

AHJs typically will require pull stations that are located within ≈1.5 m (5 ft) of each door that is a point of egress and are strategically placed so that the linear travel distance between pull stations does not exceed ≈61 m (200 ft).

Question 16

Pull stations typical mounting heights of pull stations should be ___ in to ___ in above the floor.

a. 36, 42
b. 40, 50
c. 42, 52
d. 48, 54

Answer 16

d. 48, 54

p 17-34

Question 17

Notification appliances used for FA signaling are almost exclusively designed to operate on ___ V dc power.

a. 12
b. 24
c. 48

Answer 17

b. 24

p 17-36

Notification appliances used for FA signaling are almost exclusively designed to operate on 24 V dc power so that they will continue to function normally on battery backup power in the event of a loss of primary power from the FA system.

Question 18

To ensure general audibility, in the United States, NFPA 72 require that public mode fire alarm signaling achieves levels 5 dB over the maximum dBA level having a duration of at least ___ seconds in all areas of protected premises.

a. 15
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90

Answer 18

c. 60

p 17-37

ensure general audibility in the United States, NFPA 72® requires that public mode signaling achieves output levels of 15 dB over average ambient sound (dBA) levels, or 5 dB over the maximum dBA level having duration of at least 60 seconds in all areas of protected premises.

Question 19

According to the FA intelligibility standard, effective systems should exceed the equivalent of a CIS score of ___.

a. 0.50
b. 0.60
c. 0.70
d. 0.80
e. 0.90

Answer 19

c. 0.70

p 17-38

According to the standard, effective systems should exceed the equivalent of a CIS score of 0.70. As the popularity of voice evacuation systems increases, the standard for intelligibility will become more widely understood and tested.

Question 20

Depending on the required functions and considerations, the control units are usually ___-based and require software to process data and make decisions.

a. Field level
b. System level
c. Headend
d. Microprocessor

Answer 20

d. Microprocessor

p 17-39

Depending on the required functions and considerations, the control units are usually microprocessor-based and require software to process data and make decisions.

Control units are capable of two-way communications. The units receive, process, and make detection decisions based on processed data to transmit commands to alarm and control devices.

Question 21

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ circuits have fail-safe operation, where no fault is annunciated, but the intended operation is performed in the event of a circuit failure.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 21

d. D

p 17-41

These circuits typically include the wiring that provides power to magnetic door holders (e.g., interruption of the power results in the door closing).

Question 22

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ does not include a redundant signal pathway and operational capability stops at a single open in the circuit.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 22

b. B

p 17-41

Conditions that affect the intended operation shall result in an annunciation of a trouble signal. A single ground fault does not affect operational capability but shall also be annunciated as a trouble signal.

Question 23

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ pathway designation is used for Ethernet and other network protocols. The other class designations as originally defined are intended for a two-wire circuit.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 23

g. N

p 17-41

Question 24

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ includes one or more circuits and operational capability is verified via end-to-end communication (e.g., polling or continuous communication), but the integrity of individual circuits is not monitored.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 24

c. C

p 17-41

loss of end-to-end communication shall be annunciated as a trouble signal. These pathways are typically used with addressable devices and appliances.

Question 25

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ pathways are not monitored for integrity. These pathways are normally used for supplemental equipment only.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 25

e. E

p 17-41

Question 26

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ includes a redundant signal pathway and operational capability shall continue past a single open in the circuit.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 26

a. A

p 17-41

A single open fault and any other conditions that affect the intended circuit operation shall result in annunciation of a trouble signal. A single ground fault does not affect operational capability but shall also be annunciated as a trouble signal.

Question 27

For circuit and pathway designations, Class ___ pathways include a redundant pathway and operational capability continues past a single open, a single short circuit, a ground fault, and a combination open fault and ground fault

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. X
g. N

Answer 27

f. X

p 17-41

All these faults result in the annunciation of a trouble signal. Any other condition that affects the intended operation of the path are also annunciated as a trouble signal. These pathways are typically used for signaling line circuits.

Question 28

Based on NFPA 72 requirements, a redundant cable to a single endpoint device is required to be supervised for Class N pathways.

a. True
b. False

Answer 28

b. False

p 17-43

A redundant cable to a single endpoint device is not required and does not require separate supervision for Class N pathways.

Redundant pathways are required between Switch 1 and Switch 2 and no redundant pathways are required between the switch and the endpoint devices.

Question 29

Class N supervision of control equipment should be within ___ ft from inside a protected enclosure or raceway.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30

Answer 29

c. 20

p 17-43

In Figure 17.12, there is a note which references an allowance in the code for the ≈6.1 m (20 ft) maximum inside a protected enclosure or raceway.

Note, Figure 17.12 illustrates that if the control unit is in the same room or enclosure as the network switch, it does NOT require a redundant network pathway.

Question 30

Network infrastructure equipment used in a Class N are considered ___ equipment and do not require the specific supervision required for Class N devices.

a. Transport
b. Field
c. Unsupervised
d. System

Answer 30

a. Transport

p 17-43

They are considered transport equipment (e.g., switches, routers, hubs) and do not require the specific supervision required for Class N devices.

General supervision is required as they are part of the supervised pathways that service the Class N devices themselves. Power backup requirements for Class N applies to all network transport equipment used for life safety and Class N devices.

Question 31

Level ___ is where life safety data is segregated from all non-life safety data.

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

Answer 31

c. 2

p 17-45

Life safety data can be segregated on a VLAN or other means to meet Level 2 shared pathway.

Question 32

Level ___ is where shared pathways do not segregate or prioritize life safety data from non-life safety data.

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

Answer 32

a. 0

p 17-45

An example of a Level 0 shared pathway is an unmanaged network.

Using QoS or other means, life safety data can be prioritized to meet Level 1 shared pathway.

Life safety data can be segregated on a VLAN or other means to meet Level 2 shared pathway.

By using dedicated equipment for the life safety system, Level 3 shared pathway is achieved.

Question 33

When remote control panels are used solely as power supplies for alarm-indicating devices, they are referred to as ___ panels.

a. Remote annunciators
b. Slave
c. NAC
d. Dedicated

Answer 33

c. NAC (notification appliance circuit)

p 17-48

When used solely as power supplies for alarm-indicating devices, remote panels are referred to as NAC panels.

Note, remote panels containing alarm, supervisory, and trouble indications at locations within the facility to alert personnel responsible for the system operation are often referred to as remote annunciators

Question 34

The verification time between the DART and DACR required to obtain a dial tone may not exceed ___ seconds per attempt.

a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

Answer 34

c. 90

p 17-49

A DACT has the ability to obtain a phone line dial tone, dial a preassigned number for the DACR, receive confirmation from the DACR that it can receive a signal, and transmit the signal to the DACR.

The DACT also receives verification once the DACR has accepted the signal.

Question 35

A DACT has the ability to reset and retry if the first attempt to complete a call to the DACR is unsuccessful.
A minimum of ___ and a maximum of ___ additional attempts shall be made until the connection is made and the signal has been transmitted.

a. 3, 5
b. 2, 8
c. 4, 12
d. 5, 10

Answer 35

d. 5, 10

p 17-49

A minimum of five and a maximum of 10 additional attempts shall be made until the connection is made and the signal has been transmitted. If the maximum number
of attempts to complete the transmission is reached, then a failure notification is made at the FACP.

Question 36

One spare DACR is permitted to serve as a backup for up to ___ DACRs in use.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Answer 36

d. 5

p 17-52

Question 37

Area of refuge should be designed with a NFPA 72 pathway survivability level ___ or level ___.

a. 0, 1
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3

Answer 37

c. 2, 3

p 17-58

Question 38

Which one of the code and guideline organizations are not involved with area of refuge and rescue two-way communication systems:

a. ASTM
b. IBC
c. NFPA
d. ADA

Answer 38

a. ASTM

p 17-58

In the United States, three code and guideline organizations are involved with area of refuge and rescue two-way communication systems:
• International Building Code (IBC), the principal code for determining the requirement for communication in an area of refuge and rescue
• NFPA
• ADA Accessibility Guidelines

Question 39

The MNEC message receipt are to are to achieve a ___ or greater rating on the Speech Transmission Index scale.

a. 0.50
b. 0.60
c. 0.70
d. 0.80
e. 0.90

Answer 39

a. 0.50

p 17-60

This rating indicates that the signal received is clearly understandable, which allows the receiver to follow instructions.

Question 40

In an exclusive communication environment, the EAC data is kept on its own physical network that traditionally uses proprietary communication protocol. This method of communication often relies on a ___ topology.

a. Loop or star
b. bus or ring
c. Hierarchical star or dual ring

Answer 40

a. Loop or star

p 17-11

Question 41

Intrusion alarms are used to initiate countermeasures.

a. True
b. False

Answer 41

b. False

p 17-29

Intrusion alarms do not initiate countermeasures. They simply provide visual, audible, or electronic notification of the problem.

Question 42

In ESS design, the _____ model, previously known as direct attach, represents a set of scenarios when the cabling link attaches directly to ESS field devices.

a. MUTOA
b. EAC
c. MPTL

Answer 42

c. MPTL

p 17-11

Question 43

Areas of refuge and rescue may be required to have a hands-free two-way communications call station for building occupants to notify emergency responders of their presence and need for assistance. The base station can receive calls from multiple call stations. Which station can terminate the call?

a. The call station
b. The base station
c. Either the base station or the call station

Answer 43

b. The base station

p 17-57

The base station can terminate the call, but the call station cannot.

Question 44

An analog-type electronic access control (EAC) cable consists of _____ individually shielded pairs.

a. Eight
b. Six
c. Four
d. Two

Answer 44

c. Four

p 17-10

EAC systems may be part of a converged network and utilize the structured cabling system for connectivity and power. An analog-type EAC cable consists of four individually shielded pairs

Question 45

In ESS design, it is commonly accepted that the potential causes for damage or loss can be organized into ___ categories.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 7

Answer 45

e. 7

p 17-4

• Temperature.
• Gases.
• Liquids.
• Organisms.
• Projectiles.
• Movement.
• Energy anomalies.

Question 46

To ensure general audibility, in the United States, NFPA 72 require that public mode fire alarm signaling achieves output levels of ___ over maximum ambient sound (dBA) levels.

a. 20 dB
b. 15 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 5 db

Answer 46

d. 5 db

p 17-27

Codes and standards contain extensive rules and guidelines to address these issues. To ensure general audibility in the United States, NFPA 72® requires that public mode signaling achieves output levels of 15 dB over average ambient sound (dBA) levels, or 5 dB over the maximum dBA level having duration of at least 60 seconds in all areas of protected premises.

Question 47

_____ recording is the non-linear writing of video image date to a media for the purpose of storage.

a. Digital
b. Analog

Answer 47

a. Digital

p 17-26

Digital recording is the nonlinear writing of video image data to a media for the purpose of storage.

Question 48

The traditional system for the control and display of analog video surveillance is the:

a. Multi-view processor
b. Cross-point matrix

Answer 48

b. Cross-point matrix

p 17-24

Video processing switches the acquired video from the input to the selected output devices. The traditional system for the control and display of analog video surveillance is the cross-point matrix.

Question 49

Fire alarm control panel (FACP) circuit and pathway designations are classified based on their performance. Class N pathways are generally required to be shared pathway:

a. Level 3
b. Level 2
c. Level 1
d. Level 0

Answer 49

a. Level 3

p 17-45

By using dedicated equipment for the life safety system, Level 3 shared pathway is achieved.

Question 50

There are three common components in an alarm system. Which one of the following is not one of those components?

a. Receiving circuit
b. Annunciator
c. Sending circuit
d. Sensor

Answer 50

a. Receiving circuit

p 17-29

There are three common components in any alarm system:
• Sensor
• Sending circuit
• Annunciator

Question 51

In ESS design, the principle of event-based monitoring is based primarily on the fact that electronic systems can efficiently and effectively drive operational response.

a. True
b. False

Answer 51

a. True

p 17-3

This principle is based primarily on the fact that electronic systems can efficiently and effectively drive operational response. The inverse of this is the monitoring of systems for trouble conditions by operational personnel.

Question 52

What is the MOST important aspect of fire alarm signaling?

a. Audibility
b. Clarity
c. Reliability
d. Intelligibility

Answer 52

a. Audibility

p 17-26

The following design goals are necessary considerations when designing effective notification:
• Signal audibility
• Intelligibility
• Visibility

Question 53

You are designing an audible alarm notification system for an office environment with an ambient noise level of 55 dBA. What dBA level should the horn be set at?

a. 40 dBA
b. 50 dBA
c. 55 dBA
d. 70 dBA

Answer 53

d. 70 dBA

p 17-27

NFPA 72® requires that public mode signaling achieves output levels of 15 dB over average ambient sound (dBA) levels or 55 + 15 = 70 dBA

Question 54

Which of the following is NOT a type of intrusion detection system sensor?

a. Time-auxiliary
b. Capacitance
c. Vibration
d. Electromechanical

Answer 54

a. Time-auxiliary

p 17-29 &30

Question 55

The three electronic security system (ESS) concepts the consultant needs to understand when creating an ESS system are threats, countermeasures, and:

a. Risks
b Mitigation techniques
c. Asset control
d. Integration

Answer 55

a. Risks

Question 56

Maximum Weigand cable distance for 22 AWG is ft and 24 AWG is ft?
a. 300, 500
b 400, 200
c. 500, 200
d. 500, 300

Answer 56

d. 500, 300

Communication Lines
Wiegand = 500 ft - 22 AWG (152 m)
300 ft - 24 AWG 91 m)

https://www.hidglobal.com/sites/default/files/documentlibrary/plt-01579-a.4_iclass_se_multiclass_se_installaton_guide.pdf

Question 57

Maximum RS-485 bus distance for 24 AWG is ft and max length between nodes is ft?
a. 2,000, 6,040
b 6000, 2,040
c. 4,000, 1,640
d. 2,640, 1,640

Answer 57

c. 4000, 1,640

RS-485 = Max bus length
4000 ft - 24 AWG (1,219 m)
Max length between nodes:
1640 ft - 24 AWG (500m)

https://www.hidglobal.com/sites/default/files/documentlibrary/plt-01579-a.4_iclass_se_multiclass_se_installaton_guide.pdf