Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A&P2 - Exam 1 > Chapter 17 > Flashcards

Chapter 17 Flashcards

1
Q

Monocyte.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lymphocyte.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Eosinophil

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neutrophil

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
A granulocyte, phagocyte and the most common white blood cell found in whole blood.
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Lymphocyte
A

A) Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Mounts a humoral immune response by producing antibodies
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Lymphocyte
A

D) Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Releases granules that kill parasitic worms.
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Lymphocyte
A

C) Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
When activated becomes a macrophage that fights infection.
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Lymphocyte
A

B) Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Main bacteria killer during acute infections.
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Lymphocyte
A

A) Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nucleus has two lobes; contains granules of lysosomal enzymes; functions in attacking parasitic worms and plays complex roles in inflammatory diseases like allergies and asthma.

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules.

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Transports CO2 and oxygen.

A

Erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin.

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Largest of the WBCs; crucial in defense against viruses; associated with chronic infections.

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure.

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma.

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Forms the structural framework of a blood clot.

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Makes up most of plasma protein.

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Material absorbed from the digestive tract. Including simple sugars, amino acids and fatty acids.

A

Organic nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ions in the plasma like sodium, potassium and chloride ions.

A

Electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Main contributor to osmotic pressure.

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antibodies released by plasma cells during immune response.

A

Gamma globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Necessary for coagulation.

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Transport proteins like transferrin (that carries iron ions) or others that bind to lipids or fat-soluble vitamins.

A

Alpha and beta globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Polymorphonuclear leukocyte.

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

White blood cell without cytoplasmic granules.

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Protein capable of changing shape and color in the presence of O2.

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adverse reaction of donor blood cells with recipient plasma.

A

Agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lacking in hemophilia type A

A

Factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Produced by platelets.

A

Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane.

A

Spectrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hormone that stimulates production of RBCs.

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Stimulates WBC production.

A

Interleukins and CSFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Natural anticoagulant found in basophils.

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Type O.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Type A.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Type AB.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Type B.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Universal donor.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Universal recipient.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cancerous condition involving white blood cells.

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Condition in which blood has abnormally low oxygen-carrying capacity.

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity.

A

Polycythemia

44
Q

Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream.

A

Embolism

45
Q

Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels.

A

Thrombocytopenia

46
Q 
A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) a bacterial infection
B) polycythemia
C) anemia
D) a viral infection
A

A) a bacterial infection

47
Q 
A person exhibiting suppression of immunity, clotting disorder as well as low oxygen carrying capacity is likely suffering which of the following?
A) iron deficiency anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) hemorrhagic anemia
A

B) aplastic anemia

48
Q

Which of the following would provide no benefit to a person suffering any one of the various types of anemia?
A) supplemental oxygen delivered by mask
B) blood transfusion
C) supplemental bilirubin injection
D) treatment with synthetic erythropoietin

A

C) supplemental bilirubin injection

49
Q 
Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?
A) fever with pain 
B) pallor (pale skin)
C) edema (swelling)
D) loss of blood clotting
A

D) loss of blood clotting

50
Q 
Which of the following plasma components is most likely to rise in concentration during an acute infection?
A) albumin
B) fibrinogen
C) gamma globulins           
D) platelets
A

C) gamma globulins

51
Q 
With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) decreased white blood cell count 
B) increased white blood cell count
C) decreased hematocrit
D) increased hematocrit
A

D) increased hematocrit

52
Q 
Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) hemoglobin levels are lowest
B) hematocrit is highest
C) HbA1C levels are lowest
D) plasma levels are highest
A

B) hematocrit is highest

53
Q 
Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage?
A) living at higher altitude
B) injection with erythropoietin (EPO)
C) prolonged or excessive fever
D) dehydration
A

C) prolonged or excessive fever

54
Q

People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________.
A) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait
B) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait
C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
D) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria

A

C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria

55
Q

Lipids (either nutrients or hormones) are insoluble in water but are found traveling in the plasma of the blood. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this?
A) Enzymes in the plasma convert lipids to soluble forms.
B) Lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins
C) Lipids are carried only in the lymph which is primarily composed of unsaturated fats
D) Lipids are carried inside blood cells

A

B) Lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins

56
Q

A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.
A) antibodies in the donor’s plasma will attack and kill the recipient’s healthy blood cells
B) clotting factors in the donor’s blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus
C) preformed antibodies in the recipient’s blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
D) white blood cells from the donor’s blood cause inflammation

A

C) preformed antibodies in the recipient’s blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells

57
Q

57) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________.
A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells
B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
C) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells
D) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

A

C) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

58
Q

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________.
A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
C) platelets are larger than white blood cells
D) platelets are larger than red blood cells

A

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

59
Q 
If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) lower plasma levels
B) higher hematocrit
C) higher blood viscosity
D) lower immunity
A

D) lower immunity

60
Q 
Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?
A) granulosis
B) diapedesis
C) ameboid motion
D) positive chemotaxis
A

A) granulosis

61
Q 
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
A) 8.35-8.45
B) 7.75-7.85
C) 7.35-7.45
D) 4.65-4.75
A

C) 7.35-7.45

62
Q 
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) hemoglobin A
B) hemoglobin B
C) hemoglobin F
D) hemoglobin S
A

C) hemoglobin F

63
Q 
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?
A) megakaryocyte
B) normoblast
C) hemocytoblast
D) polymorphonuclear cell
A

C) hemocytoblast

64
Q 
Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
A

D) O

65
Q 
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen
C) an increased number of RBCs
D) moving to a lower altitude
A

A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

66
Q

Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.
A) rate of erythrocyte formation
B) rate of platelet formation
C) clotting ability of the blood
D) WBC ability to defend the body against disease

A

A) rate of erythrocyte formation

67
Q

An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.
A) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
B) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
C) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O
D) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O

A

A) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

68
Q 
When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
A

D) O

69
Q 
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) high hematocrit
B) low blood viscosity
C) increased blood volume
D) high blood pressure
A

B) low blood viscosity

70
Q 
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) monocytes
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) neutrophils
A

C) eosinophils

71
Q

Which of the following is not a structural characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions?
A) biconcave shape
B) few organelles provide room for more hemoglobin
C) produces energy anaerobically
D) mitotically active

A

D) mitotically active

72
Q 
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) aplastic anemia
B) polycythemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) sickle-cell anemia
A

C) pernicious anemia

73
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A) They are nucleated.
B) They have cytoplasmic granules.
C) They are phagocytic.
D) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.

A

A) They are nucleated.

74
Q

Fred’s blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
B) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.
C) His blood lacks Rh factor.
D) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.

A

A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

75
Q 
Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?
A) travel at high altitude
B) vigorous exercise
C) malaria 
D) prolonged exposure to cold
A

D) prolonged exposure to cold

76
Q 
Hemolytic disease of the newborn will not be possible in which of the following situations listed below?
A) if the child is type O positive
B) if the child is Rh+
C) if the father is Rh+
D) if the father is Rh-
A

D) if the father is Rh-

77
Q 
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
A) kidney
B) brain
C) liver
D) pancreas
A

A) kidney

78
Q

If a person has AB type blood which of the ABO blood types can they receive as a transfusion?

A

A,B,AB,O

79
Q

When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces to fight infection, they change to a different type of cell called ________.

A

diapedesis

80
Q

The group of blood disorders in which blood oxygen levels are inadequate to support normal metabolism is called ________.

A

anemia

81
Q

How many polypeptide chains make up hemoglobin?

A

4

82
Q

List the two general factors that limit normal clot growth to the sight of injury.

A

Rapid movement of coagulation factors and inhibation of activated clotting factors

83
Q

List the granulocytes and describe the appearance of their granules in a typical blood smear.

A

neutrophils - pale
eosinophils - red
basophils - dark purple

84
Q

Why is iron not stored or transported in its free form? In what form(s) is it stored or transported in blood?

A

toxic, must be bound in ferritin or hemosiderin

85
Q

Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue.

A

all derived from mesenchyme tissue

86
Q

What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red?

A

RBC carry O2 are bright red - oxyhemoglobin,

RBC without O2 are dark red - deoxyhemoglobin

87
Q

Why is hemoglobin enclosed in erythrocytes rather than existing free in plasma?

A

protected 7 doesn’t add to blood viscosity

88
Q

What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood?

A

WBCs and platelets

89
Q

Which of the following compress a logical sequence of vessels as blood exits the heart?

a. capillaries, arteries, veins,
b. veins, capillaries, arteries
c. arteries, capillaries, veins
d. arteries, veins, capillaries

A

c. arteries, capillaries, veins

90
Q

After centrifuging, of the listed blood components, which contain the components of immune function?

A

buffy coat

91
Q

The major function of the most common plasma protien, albumin, is ______.

A

fighting foreign invators

92
Q

RBC are efficient O2 transport cells. Of the following characteristics, which is the major contributor to the significant O2 carrying capacity of a RBC?

A

RBC lack mitochondria

93
Q

Each hemoglobin can transport ______ O2 atoms?

A

400

94
Q

O2 binds to the _____ pr=portion of hemoglobin.

A

iron atom

95
Q

A patient with low iron levels would experience which of the following symptoms?

A

A decrease WBC count

96
Q

A hematopoirtic stem cell will give rise to _____.

a. erythrocytes
b. leukocytes
c. platelets
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

97
Q

Predict the outcome of an overdose of the hormone erthropoietin.

A

RBC counts remain unchanged, but the number of reticulocytes increase

98
Q

What response would you expect after traveling to a high altitude for 2 weeks?

A

Blood levels of oxygen would remain depressed for the duration.

99
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the mechanism controlling movement of WBC into dmaged areas

A

The damage tissue synthesize their own WBC.

100
Q

An elevation of neutrophil count would be indicative of _____.

A

An acute bacterial infection

101
Q

Antihistamines counter the actions of which WBC?

A

Lymphocytes

102
Q

Leukemia is a geberal descriptor foe which of the following disorders?

A

Elevated counts of normal neutrophils

103
Q

A ______ is the progenitor of platelets.

A

Thrombocyte

104
Q

Why dont platelets form plugs in undamaged vessels?

A

Platelets arent formed until vessel damage occurs.

105
Q

An oral heparin medication might be prescribed for a patient who:

A

Has thrombocytopenia

A&P2 - Exam 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions