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chapter 12 > Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders > Flashcards

Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax?
    a. Air is forced out of the lungs.
    b. Lung volume increases.
    c. Intrapulmonic pressure decreases.
    d. Intrapleural pressure decreases.
A

a. Air is forced out of the lungs.

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2
Q
  1. The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the:
  2. upper and lower respiratory tracts.
  3. nasal cavities and the sinuses.
  4. nasopharynx and oropharynx.
  5. middle ear cavity and auditory tube.
    a. 1 only
    b. 1, 2
    c. 2, 3
    d. 1, 3, 4
    e. 1, 2, 3, 4
A

e. 1, 2, 3, 4

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?
    a. Quiet inspiration
    b. Forced
    inspiration
    c. Quiet expiration
    d. Forced expiration
A

c. Quiet expiration

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4
Q
  1. The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:
    a. expiratory reserve volume.
    b. inspiratory reserve volume.
    c. total lung capacity.
    d. vital capacity.
A

d. vital capacity.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?
    a. PCO2 is low.
    b. PO2 is low.
    c. Hydrostatic pressure is very
    high.
    d. It is flowing into the left atrium.
A

b. PO2 is low.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following causes bronchodilation?
    a. Epinephrine
    b. Histamine
    c. Parasympathetic nervous system
    d. Drugs that block
A

a. Epinephrine

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7
Q
  1. The central chemoreceptors in the medulla are normally most sensitive to:
    a. low oxygen level.
    b. low concentration of hydrogen
    ions.
    c. elevated oxygen level.
    d. elevated carbon dioxide level.
A

d. elevated carbon dioxide level.

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8
Q
  1. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because:
    a. PO2 is higher in the blood.
    b. PO2 is lower in the blood.
    c. CO2 is diffusing out of the blood.
    d. more CO2 is diffusing out of cells into the
    blood.
A

b. PO2 is lower in the blood.

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9
Q
  1. Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood:
    a. as dissolved gas.
    b. attached to the iron molecule in
    hemoglobin.
    c. as bicarbonate ion.
    d. as carbonic acid.
A

c. as bicarbonate ion.

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10
Q
  1. What would hypercapnia cause?
    a. Increased serum pH
    b. Decreased respirations
    c. Respiratory acidosis
    d. Decreased carbonic acid in the blood
A

c. Respiratory acidosis

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following would result from hyperventilation?
    a. Respiratory acidosis
    b. Respiratory
    alkalosis
    c. Metabolic alkalosis
A

b. Respiratory

alkalosis

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following values is always decreased with respiratory alkalosis (compensated or
    decompensated) ?
    a. Serum bicarbonate
    b. PaCO2
    c. Serum pH
    d. Urine pH
A

b. PaCO2

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13
Q
  1. What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?
    a. The kidneys eliminating more bicarbonate
    ions
    b. The kidneys producing more bicarbonate ions
    c. The kidneys reabsorbing more hydrogen ions
    d. An increase in respiratory rate
A

b. The kidneys producing more bicarbonate ions

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14
Q 
14. What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases?
serum bicarbonate 36.5 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28)
PCO2 75 mm Hg (normal range: 35-45)
serum pH 7.0
a. Compensated metabolic acidosis
b. Decompensated metabolic acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Decompensated respiratory acidosis
A

d. Decompensated respiratory acidosis

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15
Q
  1. What does carbaminohemoglobin refer to?
    a. Replacement of oxygen by carbon monoxide on hemoglobin molecules
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 144
    b. Full saturation of all heme molecules by oxygen
    c. Carbon dioxide attached to an amino group on the hemoglobin
    molecule
    d. Oxygen combined with iron in the hemoglobin molecule
A

c. Carbon dioxide attached to an amino group on the hemoglobin
molecule

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16
Q
  1. Approximately what percentage of bound oxygen is released to the cells for metabolism during an
    erythrocyte’s journey through the circulatory system?
    a. 80%
    b. 25%
    c. 10%
    d. 50%
A

b. 25%

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17
Q
  1. The production of yellowish-green, cloudy, thick sputum is often an indication of:
    a. bacterial infection.
    b. cancer tumor.
    c. damage of lung tissue due to
    smoking.
    d. emphysema.
A

a. bacterial infection.

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18
Q
  1. What does the term hemoptysis refer to?
    a. Thick, dark red sputum associated with pneumococcal
    infection
    b. Reddish-brown granular blood found in vomitus
    c. Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
    d. Bloody exudate in the pleural cavity
A

c. Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum

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19
Q
  1. Orthopnea is:
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 145
    a. very deep, rapid respirations.
    b. difficulty breathing when lying down.
    c. waking up suddenly, coughing, and struggling for
    breath.
    d. noisy breathing with stridor or rhonchi.
A

b. difficulty breathing when lying down.

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20
Q
  1. Light bubbly or crackling breathing sounds associated with serous secretions are called:
    a. rhonchi.
    b. stridor.
    c. rales.
    d. wheezing.
A

c. rales.

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21
Q
  1. Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:
    a. Viral infection in infant under 12 months
    b. Viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years
    c. Bacterial infection in infant under 6
    months
    d. Bacterial infection in child, 3 to 7 years
A

b. Viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years

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22
Q
  1. Signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis usually include:
    a. serous nasal discharge and chronic cough.
    b. copious frothy sputum and dyspnea.
    c. severe localized pain in the facial bone and tenderness in the
    face.
    d. fetid breath and sore throat.
A

c. severe localized pain in the facial bone and tenderness in the
face

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23
Q
  1. What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 146
    a. Purulent nasal discharge and periorbital pain
    b. Serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
    c. Copious purulent sputum, particularly in the
    morning
    d. Harsh barking cough and wheezing
A

b. Serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing

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24
Q
  1. Why does the influenza virus cause recurrent infection in individuals?
    a. Elderly patients are predisposed to secondary
    infections.
    b. The virus is transmitted by numerous routes.
    c. The virus is very difficult to destroy.
    d. Viral mutation reduces immunity from prior infections.
A

d. Viral mutation reduces immunity from prior infections

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25
Q
  1. What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?
    a. Hyperinflation of the chest and stridor
    b. Hoarse voice and barking cough
    c. Sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling
    saliva
    d. Sneezing, mild cough, and fever
A

c. Sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling

saliva

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26
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
    a. Rhinovirus
    b. Influenza virus
    c. Haemophilus influenzae
    d. Pneumococcus
A

b. Influenza virus

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following describes lobar pneumonia?
    a. Sudden onset of fever and chills, with rales and rusty sputum
    b. Insidious onset, diffuse interstitial infection
    c. Viral infection causing nonproductive cough and pleuritic pain
    d. Opportunistic
A

a. Sudden onset of fever and chills, with rales and rusty sputum

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28
Q
  1. How does severe hypoxia develop with pneumonia?
    a. Acidosis depresses respirations.
    b. Oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion.
    c. Inflammatory exudate absorbs oxygen from the alveolar
    air.
    d. Infection reduces effective compensation by the heart.
A

b. Oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion.

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29
Q
  1. Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
    a. secondary hemorrhage in the lungs.
    b. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the infecting agent.
    c. prolonged stasis of mucous secretions in the airways.
    d. persistent coughing has damaged the mucosa in the
    bronchi.
A

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the infecting agent

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30
Q
  1. What is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease?
    a. Mycoplasma
    b. A fungus
    c. A gram-negative
    bacterium
    d. Pneumococcus
A

c. A gram-negative

bacterium

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31
Q
  1. Select the statement related to tuberculosis:
    a. The microbe is present in the sputum of all patients with a positive TB skin
    test.
    b. The infection is transmitted primarily by blood from an infected person.
    c. TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many disinfectants.
    d. The microbe is quickly destroyed by the immune response.
A

c. TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many disinfectants.

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32
Q
  1. How is primary tuberculosis identified?
    a. Cavitation in the lungs and spread of the microbe to other organs
    b. Persistent productive cough, low-grade fever, and fatigue
    c. Caseation necrosis and formation of a tubercle in the lungs
    d. Multiple granulomas in the lungs and rapid spread of the
    microbe
A

c. Caseation necrosis and formation of a tubercle in the lungs

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33
Q
  1. When does active (secondary) infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis with tissue destruction occur?
    a. When host resistance is decreased
    b. When a hypersensitivity reaction is initiated
    c. When the BCG vaccine is not administered immediately following exposure to the
    microbe
    d. When Ghon complexes form in the lungs
A

a. When host resistance is decreased

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to M. tuberculosis?
    a. Microbes can survive for a long time inside tubercles.
    b. The bacilli can survive some adverse conditions such as drying and
    heat.
    c. Infection is limited to the lungs.
    d. The bacilli can be destroyed by antibacterial drugs.
A

c. Infection is limited to the lungs.

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following confirms the presence of active (reinfection) tuberculosis?
    a. A positive skin test for TB
    b. A calcified tubercle shown on a chest X-ray
    c. Identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample
    d. A history of exposure to individuals being treated for
    TB
A

c. Identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample

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36
Q 
incidence of:
a. HIV and homelessness.
b. obesity and tobacco use.
c. elderly persons and radon.
d. steroid use and alcoholism.
ANS: A REF: 293
A

a. HIV and homelessness.

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37
Q
  1. Histoplasmosis is caused by a:
    a. fungus.
    b. virus.
    c. bacillus.
    d. protozoa.
A

a. fungus.

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38
Q
  1. Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a/an:
    a. X-linked recessive gene.
    b. autosomal recessive gene.
    c. autosomal dominant gene.
    d. chromosomal defect.
A

b. autosomal recessive gene.

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39
Q
  1. The basic pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is centered on a/an:
    a. defect of the exocrine glands.
    b. impaired function of the endocrine glands.
    c. chronic inflammatory condition of the lungs.
    d. abnormal immune response in the lungs and other
    organs.
A

a. defect of the exocrine glands.

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40
Q
  1. Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of:
    a. deficit of gastric enzymes for protein digestion.
    b. mucus plugs obstructing the flow of pancreatic
    enzymes.
    c. lack of available treatment for steatorrhea.
    d. abnormal salivary secretions.
A

b. mucus plugs obstructing the flow of pancreatic enzymes

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41
Q
  1. Persistent thick mucus in the bronchioles of a child with cystic fibrosis may cause:
  2. air trapping.
  3. atelectasis.
  4. repeated infections.
  5. irreversible damage to lung tissue.
    a. 1, 2
    b. 2, 4
    c. 1, 3, 4
    d. 1, 2, 3, 4
A

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

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42
Q
  1. What is a common indicator of cystic fibrosis in the newborn?
    a. Infant respiratory distress
    syndrome
    b. Failure to excrete meconium
    c. Taste of ammonia on the skin
    d. Lack of bile secretions
A

b. Failure to excrete meconium

43
Q
  1. What is an early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma?
    a. Air trapping and overinflation of the
    lung
    b. Weight loss
    c. Bone pain
    d. Chronic cough
A

d. Chronic cough

44
Q
  1. Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
    a. can cause metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium.
    b. promotes malignant changes in all types of benign tumors in the
    lungs.
    c. causes paraneoplastic syndrome.
    d. increases exposure to carbon monoxide in the lungs.
A

a. can cause metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium.

45
Q
  1. Why does hypercalcemia occur with bronchogenic carcinoma?
    a. Invasion of the parathyroid gland by the tumor
    b. Secretion of parathyroid or parathyroid like hormones by the
    tumor
    c. Destruction of the ribs
    d. Failure of the kidney to excrete calcium ions
A

b. Secretion of parathyroid or parathyroid like hormones by the
tumor

46
Q
  1. What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material?
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 152
    a. Hoarse cough
    b. Rapid loss of consciousness
    c. Dyspnea
    d. Inflammation
A

b. Rapid loss of consciousness

47
Q
  1. Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?
    a. Reduced pressure of the abdominal organs on the diaphragm
    b. Depression of the vomiting center by anesthetics and
    analgesics
    c. Vomiting caused by drugs or anesthesia
    d. Lack of food intake for the previous 24 hours
A

c. Vomiting caused by drugs or anesthesia

48
Q
  1. What is the pathophysiology of an acute attack of extrinsic asthma?
    a. Gradual degeneration and fibrosis
    b. Continuous severe attacks unresponsive to medication
    c. A hypersensitivity reaction involving release of chemical
    mediators
    d. Hyperresponsive mucosa
A

c. A hypersensitivity reaction involving release of chemical

mediators

49
Q
  1. During an acute asthma attack, how does respiratory obstruction occur?
  2. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
  3. Edema of the mucosa
  4. Increased secretion of thick, tenacious mucus
  5. Contraction of elastic fibers
    a. 1, 2
    b. 1, 3
    c. 2, 3
    d. 2, 4
A

c. 2, 3

50
Q 
50. What cause the expanded anteroposterior (A-P) thoracic diameter (barrel chest) in patients with
emphysema?
a. Air trapping and hyperinflation
b. Persistent coughing to remove mucus
c. Recurrent damage to lung tissues
d. Dilated bronchi and increased mucous
secretions
A

a. Air trapping and hyperinflation

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is typical of progressive emphysema?
    a. Vital capacity increases.
    b. Residual lung volume increases.
    c. Forced expiratory volume increases.
    d. Tidal volume increases.
A

b. Residual lung volume increases.

52
Q
  1. Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is a typical change in:
    a. chronic bronchitis.
    b. acute asthma.
    c. emphysema.
    d. asbestosis.
A

c. emphysema.

53
Q
  1. A group of common chronic respiratory disorders characterized by tissue degeneration and respiratory
    obstruction is called:
    a. mesothelioma.
    b. COPD.
A

b. COPD.

54
Q
  1. Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?
    a. The surface area available for gas exchange is greatly
    reduced.
    b. A genetic defect may lead to breakdown of elastic fibers.
    c. The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.
    d. Expiration is impaired.
A

c. The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.

55
Q
  1. What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
    a. Chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the larger
    airways
    b. A genetic defect causing excessive production of mucus
    c. Hypersensitivity to parasympathetic stimulation in the bronchi
    d. Deficit of enzymes, preventing tissue degeneration
A

a. Chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the larger
airways

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is typical of chronic bronchitis?
    a. Decreased activity of the mucous glands
    b. Fibrosis of the bronchial wall
    c. Overinflation of bronchioles and alveoli
    d. Formation of blebs or bullae on the lung
    surface
A

b. Fibrosis of the bronchial wall

57
Q
  1. What are typical pathological changes with bronchiectasis?
    a. Bronchospasm and increased mucous secretion
    b. Adhesions and fibrosis in the pleural membranes
    c. Airway obstructions and weak, dilated bronchial
    walls
    d. Fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position
A

c. Airway obstructions and weak, dilated bronchial

58
Q
  1. Which of the following are significant signs of bronchiectasis?
    a. Persistent nonproductive cough, dyspnea, and fatigue
    b. Persistent purulent nasal discharge, fever, and cough
    c. Chronic cough, producing large quantities of purulent
    sputum
    d. Wheezing and stridor
A

c. Chronic cough, producing large quantities of purulent

59
Q
  1. Why does cor pulmonale develop with chronic pulmonary disease?
    a. The right ventricle pumps more blood than the left ventricle.
    b. Pulmonary fibrosis and vasoconstriction increase vascular
    resistance.
    c. Demands on the left ventricle are excessive.
    d. Blood viscosity is increased, adding to cardiac workload.
A

b. Pulmonary fibrosis and vasoconstriction increase vascular

resistance.

60
Q
  1. Restrictive lung disorders may be divided into two groups based on:
    a. patient history of obesity and exposure to other COPD.
    b. smoking history and congenital defects.
    c. previous lung disease and cardiovascular disorders.
    d. anatomical abnormality and lung disease damage, impairing
    expansion.
A

d. anatomical abnormality and lung disease damage, impairing

expansion.

61
Q
  1. What is caused by frequent inhalation of irritating particles such as silica?
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 156
    a. Fibrosis and loss of compliance
    b. Frequent bronchospasm
    c. Increased number of mucus-producing
    glands
    d. Distorted shape of the thorax
A

a. Fibrosis and loss of compliance

62
Q
  1. Pulmonary edema causes severe hypoxia because of:
    a. decreased diffusion of carbon dioxide from the
    alveoli.
    b. interference with expansion of the lungs.
    c. constant cough and hemoptysis.
    d. decreased recoil of lungs and ineffective expiration.
A

b. interference with expansion of the lungs.

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a cause of pulmonary edema?
    a. Left-sided congestive heart failure
    b. Excessive blood volume (overload)
    c. Inhalation of toxic gases
    d. Hyperproteinemia and increasing osmotic pressure of the
    blood
A

d. Hyperproteinemia and increasing osmotic pressure of the

blood

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common source of a pulmonary embolus?
    a. Mural thrombus from the left ventricle
    b. Thrombus attached to atheromas in the aorta or iliac
    arteries
    c. Thrombus forming in the femoral veins
    d. A blood clot in the pulmonary vein
A

c. Thrombus forming in the femoral veins

65
Q
  1. What is a large-sized pulmonary embolus likely to cause?
    a. Hypertension and left-sided heart failure
    b. Atelectasis and respiratory failure
    c. Hypotension and right-sided heart
    failure
    d. Pleural effusion and atelectasis
A

c. Hypotension and right-sided heart

failure

66
Q
  1. Which manifestation(s) of atelectasis is/are associated with airway obstruction?
    a. Bradycardia and dyspnea
    b. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected
    side
    c. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
    d. Rales and rhonchi
A

c. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side

67
Q
  1. How does total obstruction of the airway lead to atelectasis?
    a. Decreased surfactant production impairs lung expansion.
    b. The involved lung is compressed.
    c. Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.
    d. Air continues to be inspired but is trapped distal to the
    obstruction.
A

c. Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.

68
Q
  1. How does a large pleural effusion lead to atelectasis?
    a. The cohesion between the pleural membranes is
    disrupted.
    b. There is decreased intrapleural pressure.
    c. The mediastinal contents compress the affected side.
    d. Pleuritic pain causes very shallow breathing.
A

d. Pleuritic pain causes very shallow breathing.

69
Q
  1. When does flail chest usually occur?
    a. An open puncture wound involves the pleural
    membranes.
    b. The visceral pleura is torn by a fractured rib.
    c. Several ribs are fractured at two sites.
    d. Increasing fluid in the pleural cavity causes atelectasis.
A

c. Several ribs are fractured at two sites.

70
Q
  1. With a flail chest injury, events during inspiration include which of the following?
    a. Air is sucked into the lung through the chest wall.
    b. The mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected
    side.
    c. The floating segment is pushed outward.
    d. The trachea deviates toward the affected side.
A

b. The mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected

side.

71
Q
  1. How is cardiac output reduced with a flail chest injury?
    a. Atelectasis compresses the heart.
    b. Venous return is impaired.
    c. Intrapleural pressure is decreased.
    d. Air pressure continues to increase in the pleural
    space.
A

b. Venous return is impaired.

72
Q
  1. Which of the following is a manifestation of a simple closed pneumothorax?
    a. Decreased respiratory rate
    b. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected
    lung
    c. Asymmetrical chest movements
A

c. Asymmetrical chest movements

73
Q
  1. Which of the following is an effect of a large open pneumothorax (sucking wound)?
    a. Mediastinal flutter, impairing venous
    return
    b. Increased venous return
    c. Progressive atelectasis of both lungs
    d. Overexpansion of the unaffected lung
A

a. Mediastinal flutter, impairing venous

return

74
Q
  1. With a tension pneumothorax, which factors contribute to severe hypoxia?
    a. Decreasing compression of the inferior vena cava
    b. More air leaving the pleural cavity on expiration than entering with
    inspiration
    c. Shift of the mediastinal contents toward the affected lung
    d. Continually increasing pressure on the unaffected lung
A

. Continually increasing pressure on the unaffected lung

75
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of adult respiratory distress syndrome?
  2. Damage leading to increased permeability of the alveolar capillary membranes
  3. Decreased surface tension in the alveoli
  4. Excessive fluid and protein interstitially and in the alveoli
  5. Multiple diffuse hemorrhages in the lungs
    a. 1, 2
    b. 1, 3
    c. 2, 3
    d. 3, 4
A

b. 1, 3

76
Q
  1. Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 160
    a. insufficient surfactant production.
    b. incomplete expiration shortly after
    birth.
    c. retention of fluid in the lungs after birth.
    d. immature neural control of respirations.
    ANS:
A

a. insufficient surfactant production.

77
Q
  1. Obstruction in the upper airway is usually indicated by:
    a. stridor.
    b. rales.
    c. wheezing.
    d. orthopnea.
A

a. stridor.

78
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT apply to carbon dioxide?
    a. It diffuses across membranes much more easily than does
    oxygen.
    b. It is carried in blood as carbaminohemoglobin.
    c. It can be converted into bicarbonate ion.
    d. It is replaced on hemoglobin by oxygen in the lungs.
A

d. It is replaced on hemoglobin by oxygen in the lungs.

79
Q
  1. Whenever PO2 levels decrease below normal, PCO2 levels:
    a. increase.
    b. decrease also.
    c. may or may not
    change.
    d. increase slightly.
A

c. may or may not

change.

80
Q
  1. Laryngotracheobronchitis is typically manifested by:
    a. drooling and difficulty
    swallowing.
    b. hoarse voice and barking cough.
    c. sore and scratchy throat with fever.
    d. wheezing and dyspnea.
A

b. hoarse voice and barking cough.

81
Q
  1. Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:
    a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
    b. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
    c. Legionella pneumophila.
    d. Pneumocystis carinii.
A

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

82
Q
  1. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:
    a. rhinovirus.
    b. mycoplasma.
    c. influenza virus.
    d. coronavirus.
A

d. coronavirus.

83
Q
  1. SARS typically begins as a flulike syndrome followed, after a few days, by:
    a. increased exudates in the bronchial tree and pleural
    cavity.
    b. productive cough and lobar consolidation.
    c. interstitial lung congestion, dyspnea, and dry cough.
    d. hemoptysis and necrosis of mucous membrane.
A

c. interstitial lung congestion, dyspnea, and dry cough.

84
Q
  1. In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:
    a. excess bile production.
    b. high sodium chloride content in saliva and
    sweat.
    c. gastric ulcers.
    d. frequent ear and sinus infections.
A

b. high sodium chloride content in saliva and

sweat.

85
Q
  1. Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?
    a. Frequent nonproductive cough
    b. Fever, dyspnea, generalized aching
    c. Production of large volumes of purulent
    sputum
    d. Hemoptysis and weight loss
A

d. Hemoptysis and weight loss

86
Q
  1. Which of the following is likely to cause pneumothorax or hemothorax in a patient with bronchogenic
    carcinoma?
    a. The tumor obstructs a major bronchus.
    b. Compression of lung tissue by the tumor causes atelectasis.
    c. The tumor causes inflammation and erosion of the pleural
    membranes.
    d. Inflammation around the tumor causes exudate in the small bronchi.
A

c. The tumor causes inflammation and erosion of the pleural

membranes.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?
    a. A positive tuberculin skin test
    b. Occurrence of hemoptysis
    c. Unproductive cough with absence of
    sputum
    d. Small areas of calcification on a chest X-ray
A

d. Small areas of calcification on a chest X-ray

88
Q 
88. Which of the following drugs is usually prescribed for prophylaxis in persons in close contact with a
patient with active tuberculosis?
a. Streptomycin
b. Isoniazid
c. Rifampin
d. Streptomycin
A

b. Isoniazid

89
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
    a. TB bacilli are spread by oral droplet.
    b. TB bacilli are slow-growing bacteria.
    c. Active TB must be treated in hospital for many
    months.
    d. Active TB can be prevented by good host resistance.
A

c. Active TB must be treated in hospital for many

months.

90
Q
  1. Choose the correct reason for severe hypoxia occurring with pulmonary edema:
    a. Diffusion of oxygen into the alveoli is impaired.
    b. Fluid in the pleural cavity prevents normal lung expansion.
    c. Increased concentration of CO2 impairs diffusion of oxygen.
    d. Increased blood flow through the lungs prevents diffusion of
    gases.
A

a. Diffusion of oxygen into the alveoli is impaired.

91
Q 
91. Which of the following drugs in an inhaler would likely be carried by individuals to provide immediate
control of acute asthma attacks?
a. A glucocorticoid
b. Epinephrine
c. Cromolyn
d. A β2-adrenergic
agent
A

d. A β2-adrenergic

agent

92
Q
  1. Development of emphysema in a nonsmoker may be the result of:
    a. a genetic factor.
    b. obesity.
    c. vitamin deficiencies.
    d. a developmental defect.
A

a. a genetic factor.

93
Q
  1. Which factors contribute to postoperative atelectasis?
  2. Decreased secretions in the airways
  3. Drug-related respiratory depression
  4. Abdominal distention and pain
  5. Excessive deep-breathing and coughing
    a. 1, 2
    b. 2, 3
    c. 3, 4
    d. 1, 4
A

b. 2, 3

94
Q
  1. Primary atypical pneumonia (PAP) is caused by:
    a. Klebsiella oxytoca.
    b. Candida albicans.
    c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
    d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

95
Q
  1. All of the following are expected with infant respiratory distress syndrome EXCEPT:
    a. severe hypoxia
    b. respiratory alkalosis.
    c. pulmonary vasoconstriction.
    d. fluid and protein in the
    alveoli.
A

b. respiratory alkalosis.

96
Q
  1. Which factor usually causes metabolic acidosis to develop in association with hypoxia?
    a. Anaerobic metabolism
    b. Failure to excrete CO2
    c. Liver dysfunction
    d. Increased blood volume
A

a. Anaerobic metabolism

97
Q
  1. Mediastinal flutter associated with chest injury is likely to:
    a. cause pulmonary edema.
    b. cause hypocapnia.
    c. increase lung expansion.
    d. decrease venous return to the
    heart.
A

d. decrease venous return to the

heart.

98
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals is NOT considered to be at high risk for developing active tuberculosis?
    a. Homeless individuals
    b. Individuals with AIDS
    c. Persons who experience acute asthma
    attacks
    d. Those living in institutions
A

c. Persons who experience acute asthma

attacks

99
Q
  1. Which of the following distinguishes influenza from infectious rhinitis?
    a. Influenza is a viral infection.
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 166
    b. Treatment is symptomatic
    c. Influenza has a sudden onset with fever, marked muscle aching, and severe
    malaise.
    d. Complications can occur with influenza.
A

c. Influenza has a sudden onset with fever, marked muscle aching, and severe
malaise.

100
Q
  1. The use of a continuous positive airway pump in the treatment of sleep apnea will:
    a. reduce bronchospasm.
    b. force expansion of pleural membranes.
    c. maintain an open airway.
    d. awaken the person and increase
    respirations.
A

c. maintain an open airway.

101
Q

a. pleural effusion.
b. pulmonary embolus.
c. pulmonary edema.
d. atelectasis.

A

c. pulmonary edema.

102
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to anthrax infection?
    a. It is caused by a virus that mutates frequently.
    b. When inhaled, it causes flulike symptoms followed by acute respiratory
    distress.
    c. There is a long incubation period, often months, following exposure.
    d. It is a common infection in North America.
A

b. When inhaled, it causes flulike symptoms followed by acute respiratory
distress

103
Q
  1. The mutated gene for cystic fibrosis is located on the:
    Test Bank - Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions (6th Edition by Hubert) 167
    a. seventh chromosome.
    b. tenth chromosome.
    c. fifteenth chromosome.
    d. X chromosome.
A

a. seventh chromosome.

chapter 12 (4 decks)

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