Chapter 12: Synthesis and Processing of Bacterial RNAs Flashcards

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1
Q

Module 10

Bacterial mRNA can immediately be translated, however ______ and _____, on the other hand, are first transcribed as pre-RNAs which become functional only after a series of cutting events and chemical modifications

A
  • tRNAs
  • rRNAs
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2
Q

Module 10

rRNA processing

  • Bacteria synthesize three different rRNAs, called
  • the names indicating the sizes of the molecules as measured by _____ _____
  • three genes for these rRNAs are linked into a single ______ ______, usually present in multiple copies
  • pre-rRNA contains copies of all three rRNAs
  • Cutting is needed to release the mature rRNAs. These cuts are made by
A
  • 5S rRNA, 16S rRNA, and 23S rRNA
  • sedimentation analysis
  • transcription unit
  • ribonucleases III, P, and F
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3
Q

Module 10

rRNA processing

steps

A
  • cuts are made by
    • ribonucleases III (endonucleases)
    • P (ribozyme) and F
      • found in all organisms
  • cut ends are then trimmed by the exonuclease activities of ribonucleases M16, M23, and M5 (exonucleases) to produce mature rRNAs
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4
Q

tRNA Processing

Genes for tRNAs are distributed around bacterial genomes, some on their own and some as _____ _____ in multi-tRNA transcription units. In some bacteria, they occur as ______ in the rRNA transcription units, as is the case with E. coli, which has either one or two tRNA genes between _____ _____. All pre-tRNAs are processed in similar though not identical ways

A
  • tandem arrays
  • infiltrators
  • mRNA genes
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5
Q

Module 10

tRNA Processing

steps

A
  • tRNA sequence within pre-tRNA adopts its cloverleaf structure
  • two additional hairpin structures form, one on either side of the tRNA
  • ribonuclease E or F cuts just upstream of one of the hairpins, forming a new 3’ end
  • Ribonuclease D (exonuclease) trims seven nucleotides from this new 3’ end and pauses, waiting for ribonuclease P
  • ribonuclease P makes a cut at the start of the cloverleaf, forming the 5’ end of the mature tRNA
  • Ribonuclease D then removes two more nucleotides, creating the 3’ end of the mature molecule
  • mature tRNAs must end with the trinucleotide 5¢–CCA–3¢.
    • in some pre-tRNAs this sequence is absent, or is removed by the processing ribonucleases
    • removal occurs when 3’ ends are created by an endonuclease called ribonuclease Z
      • makes a cut adjacent to the first base pair in the tRNA cloverleaf removing the region containing terminal CCA
    • When CCA is absent, it’s added by one or more template-independent RNA polymerases such as tRNA nucleotidyltransferase
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6
Q

one of ribonuclease P’s subunits is made of ____ rather than protein. these _____ subunits are present in several enzymes involved in RNA processing, including ribonuclease _____, which works with ribonuclease P in processing of eukaryotic pre-rRNAs. These hybrid _____-_____ enzymes may be relics of the _____ world

A
  • RNA
  • RNA
  • MRP
  • protein–RNA
  • RNA
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7
Q

Module 10

The final type of processing that occurs with pre-RNAs is the chemical modification of ______ within the transcript. This occurs with _____ and ______. A broad spectrum of chemical changes has been identified with different pre-RNAs: over 50 different modifications are known in total. Most of these are carried out directly on an existing nucleotide within the transcript but two modified nucleotides, ______ and ______, are put in place by cutting out an entire nucleotide and replacing it with the modified version

A
  • nucleotides
  • prerRNAs
  • pre-tRNAs
  • queosine
  • wyosine
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8
Q

Module 10

Many of these unusual nucleotides were first identified in tRNAs, where one in ten nucleotides becomes altered. Reasons why these modifications may occur are

A
  • may mediate the recognition of individual tRNAs by the enzymes that attach amino acids to these molecules
  • increases the range of the interactions that can occur between tRNAs and codons during translation
  • enabling a single tRNA to recognize more than one codon
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9
Q

Ribosomal RNAs are modified in two ways:

A
  • addition of methyl groups to, mainly, the 2’–OH group on nucleotide sugars, and by conversion of uridine to pseudouridine
  • occurs at the same position on all copies of an rRNA
  • same in different species
  • bacterial rRNAs are less heavily modified than eukaryotic ones
  • function behind modifications have not been identified
  • most occur within those parts of rRNAs thought to be most critical to the activity of these molecules
  • Often two or more nucleotides in the same region are modified at once
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10
Q

Module 10

RNA degradation is equally important, especially with regard to ______ whose presence or absence in the cell determines which proteins will be ______. Degradation of specific mRNAs could be a powerful way of ______ genome expression. rate of degradation of an mRNA can be estimated by determining its ______ in the cell. There are considerable variations between/within organisms. Bacterial mRNAs are generally turned over very rapidly, their half-lives rarely being longer than a ______ minutes while Eukaryotic mRNAs are longer lived, with half-lives of, on average, _______ minutes for yeast and several ______ for mammals

A
  • mRNAs
  • synthesized
  • regulating
  • halflife
  • few
  • 10–20
  • hours
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11
Q

Module 10

Bacterial mRNAs are degraded in the ______ direction

A

3’→5’

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12
Q

Module 10

RNA-degrading enzymes that are thought to be involved in mRNA degradation

A
  • RNase E and RNase III
    • endonucleases that make internal cuts in RNA molecules.
  • RNase II
    • exonuclease that removes nucleotides in the 3’→5’ direction
  • Polynucleotide phosphorylase (PNPase)
    • exonuclease that removes nucleotides in the 3’→5’ direction
    • requires inorganic phosphate as a cosubstrate
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13
Q

Module 10

RNA-degrading process

A
  • most mRNAs have a hairpin structure near the 3’ end
    • hairpin that induced termination of transcription
  • The termination hairpin blocks the exonuclease activities of RNase II and PNPase
  • termination hairpin is removed by endonuclease action of RNase E and/or RNase III
  • removal exposes a new end for RNase II and PNPase to attach and destroy the functional activity of the mRNA
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14
Q

degradosome

A
  • contains RNase E and PNPase
  • include an RNA helicase
  • might be involved in both rRNA and mRNA degradation.
  • not clear and a few researchers are sceptical about its actual existence,
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15
Q

Module 10

Synthesis and Processing of Eukaryotic RNA

promoter clearance

A

transition from the preinitiation complex to a complex that has begun to synthesize RNA

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16
Q

Module 10

Synthesis and Processing of Eukaryotic RNA

promoter escape

A

when polymerase moves away from the promoter region and becomes committed to making a transcript

17
Q

Synthesis and Processing of Eukaryotic RNA

The opposing effects of negative and positive _____ ______ influence the ability of the polymerase to begin productive RNA synthesis, and if the ______ factors predominate then transcription halts before the polymerase has moved more than ______ nucleotides from the initiation point. Promoter escape could therefore be an important _____ _____

A
  • elongation factors
  • negative
  • 30
  • control point
18
Q

Module 10

Synthesis and Processing of Eukaryotic RNA

Capping of RNA polymerase II transcripts

A
  • occurs immediately after initiation
  • Successful promoter escape could be linked with capping
    • completed before the transcript reaches 30 nucleotides
  • an extra guanosine is added to the extreme 5’ end of the RNA
    • involves a reaction between the 5’ triphosphate of the terminal nucleotide and the triphosphate of a GTP nucleotide
    • the outermost phosphate is removed, as are the β and γ phosphates of the GTP, resulting in a 5’–5’ bond
    • carried out by the enzyme guanylyl transferase
  • conversion of new terminal guanosine into 7-methylguanosine by attachment of a methyl group to nitrogen number 7 of the purine ring
    • catalyzed by guanine methyltransferase
    • called a type 0 cap
    • commonest form in yeast
    • In higher eukaryotes, additional modifications occur
      • A second methylation replaces the hydrogen of the 2’–OH group of what is now the second nucleotide in the transcript. This results in a type 1 cap.
      • If this second nucleotide is an adenosine, then the amino group attached to carbon number 6 of the purine ring might also be methylated.
      • Another 2’–OH methylation might occur at the third nucleotide position, resulting in a type 2 cap.
  • two capping enzymes make attachments with the CTD
  • possible that they are intrinsic components of the RNA polymerase II complex during promoter clearance
19
Q

Module 10

Synthesis and Processing of Eukaryotic RNA

All RNAs synthesized by RNA polymerase II are capped in one way or another. This means that as well as mRNAs, the ______ that are transcribed by this enzyme are also capped. The cap may be important for

A
  • snRNAs
  • Promoter escape by RNAP II
  • Transport to cytoplasm
  • Initiation of translation
  • Stability of mRNA
20
Q

Elongation of eukaryotic mRNAs

bacterial genes can be transcribed in a matter of minutes In contrast, RNA polymerase II can take hours to transcribe a single gene because the presence of multiple ______ in many eukaryotic genes means that considerable lengths of DNA must be copied. the extreme length places demands on the stability of the _____ ______.

A
  • introns
  • transcription complex
21
Q

Elongation of eukaryotic mRNAs

In the nucleus, pausing and stopping pausing of RNA polymerase II can occur when the enzyme transcribes through a region where intrastrand base pairs (e.g., a hairpin loop) can form. This pausing/stopping is reduced by ______ ______ which are …. ______ are currently known

A
  • elongation factors
  • proteins that associate with the polymerase after it has cleared the promoter and left behind the transcription factors involved in initiation. Thirteen elongation factors
  • 13
22
Q

Elongation of eukaryotic mRNAs

eukaryotic nuclear polymerases, has to negotiate the ______ that are attached to the template DNA that is being transcribed. The solution to this problem is probably provided by _____ ______ that are able to modify the_____ _____ in some way.

A
  • nucleosomes
  • elongation factors
  • chromatin structure
23
Q

Module 10

Termination mRNAs - polyadenylation

Most eukaryotic mRNAs have a series of up to ____ adenosines at their_____ ends. These As are not specified by the _____ and are added to the transcript by a template-independent RNA polymerase called _____ _____. This polymerase does not act at the extreme 3’ end of the transcript, but at an _____ _____ which is cleaved to create a new 3’ end to which the poly(A) tail is added. an inherent part of the mechanism for termination of transcription by RNA polymerase II.

A
  • 250
  • 3’
  • DNA
  • poly(A) polymerase
  • internal site
24
Q

Module 10

Termination mRNAs - polyadenylation

the process

A
  • directed by a signal sequence in the mRNA 5’–AAUAAA–3’
    • located between 10 and 30 nucleotides upstream of the polyadenylation site
    • often immediately after the dinucleotide 5’–CA–3’
    • followed 10–20 nucleotides later by a GU-rich region
  • Both poly(A) signal sequence and the GU-rich region are binding sites for multisubunit protein complexes
    • cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF)
    • cleavage stimulation factor (CstF)
  • Poly(A) polymerase, PADP, and at least two other protein factors associate with bound CPSF and CstF
    • one of them is polyadenylatebinding protein (PADP)
      • helps polymerase to add the adenosines
      • possibly influences the length of the poly(A) tail
      • may play a role in maintenance of the tail after synthesis

Steps

  • CPSF interacts with TFIID and is recruited into the polymerase complex during the transcription initiation stage
  • Rides along twith RNA polymerase II, and binds to the poly(A) signal sequence as soon as it is transcribed, initiating the polyadenylation reaction
  • Both CPSF and CstF form contacts with the CTD of the polymerase
  • these contacts may change when the poly(A) signal sequence is located
    • this change alters the properties of the elongation complex so that termination becomes favored over continued RNA synthesis
  • transcription stops soon after the poly(A) signal sequence has been transcribed
25
Q

Termination mRNAs - polyadenylation

role of poly(A) tail

A
  • A role for the poly(A) tail has been sought for several years
  • suggestions include an influence on mRNA stability, which seems unlikely as some stable transcripts have very short poly(A) tails
  • role in initiation of translation supported by research showing that poly(A) polymerase activity is repressed during those periods of the cell cycle when relatively little protein synthesis occurs
  • not all eukaryotic mRNAs have a poly(A) tail, most notably the mRNAs that specify the histone proteins
26
Q

introns

A
  • intervening sequences
  • separate different segments of the coding DNA from one another
  • eukaryotic pre-mRNA may contain many introns, perhaps over 100, taking up a considerable length of the transcript
  • less common in lower eukaryotes
  • seven distinct types of intron in eukaryotes
  • When the same gene is compared in related species, some of the introns are in identical positions but each species has one or more unique introns
27
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

A
  • first two nucleotides of the intron sequence are 5’–GU–3’ and the last two are 5’–AG–3’
  • all members of this class are spliced in the same way
  • conserved motifs
    • recognition sequences for RNA-binding proteins involved in splicing or playing some other central role in the process
  • parts of longer consensus sequences that span the 5¢ and 3¢ splice sites
  • vary in different types of eukaryote
  • can be described as
    • 5’ splice site/donor site:
      • 5’–AG↓GUAAGU–3’
    • 3’ splice site/acceptor site:
      • 5’–PyPyPyPyPyPyNCAG↓–3’
    • Py = two pyrimidine nucleotides (U or C)
    • N = any nucleotide
28
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

polypyrimidine tract

A
  • in higher eukaryotes
  • a pyrimidine-rich region located just upstream of the 3’ end of the intron sequence
  • In yeast:
    • less frequently seen
    • an invariant 5’–UACUAAC–3’ sequence
    • between 18 and 140 nucleotides upstream of the 3’ splice site
    • not present in higher eukaryotes
  • The polypyrimidine tract and the 5’–UACUAAC–3’ sequence are not functionally equivalent
29
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

splicing pathway for GU–AG introns

A
  • Cleavage of the 5’ splice site
    • hydroxyl attack (transesterification reaction) between the OH attached to the 2’ carbon of an adenosine nucleotide located within the intron sequence
      • In yeast, this adenosine is the last one in the conserved 5’–UACUAAC–3’ sequence
    • results in cleavage of the phosphodiester bond at the 5’ splice site. this exon is now free.
    • the newly half-released intron creates a new 5’–2’ phosphodiester bond by linking the first nucleotide (the G of the 5’–GU–3’ motif) with the internal adenosine (the one that attcked) causing it to loop back on itself to create a lariat structure.
  • Cleavage of the 3’ splice site
    • second transesterification reaction happens, by the 3’–OH group at the end of the upstream exon (the one released)
    • It attacks the phosphodiester bond at the 3’ splice site, cleaving and releasing the intron/lariat structure
    • introng/lariat is converted back to a linear RNA and degraded
  • 3’ end of the upstream exon joins to the newly formed 5’ end of the downstream exon, completing the splicing process
30
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

splicing pathway difficulties lies with topological problems. explain

A
  1. substantial distance that might lie between splice sites, possibly a few tens of kilobases
    • means needed of bringing the splice sites into proximity
  2. selection of the correct splice site
    • All splice sites are similar
    • wrong splice sites could be joined, resulting in exon skipping— the loss of an exon from the mature mRNA
    • site within an intron or exon that has sequence similarity with the consensus motifs of real splice sites can result in cryptic splice site
      • these sites are present in most pre-mRNAs and must be ignored by the splicing apparatus
31
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

central components of the splicing apparatus

A
  • snRNAs
    • U1, U2, U4, U5, and U6
    • short molecules (between 106 nucleotides [U6] and 185 nucleotides [U2] in vertebrates)
    • associate with proteins to form small nuclear ribonucleoproteins, snRNPs
  • snRNPs
    • together with other accessory proteins, attach to the transcript and form a spliceosome
  • spliceosome
    • structure where splicing reactions occur
32
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

roles of snRNPs and associated proteins during splicing

A
  • commitment complex
    • initiates a splicing activity
    • critical stage of the splicing process because it identifies which sites will be linked
    • U1–snRNP binds to the 5’ splice site
      • by RNA–RNA base pairing
    • protein factors make protein–RNA contacts
      • SF1 w/the branch site
      • U2AF35 w/the polypyrimidine tract
      • U2AF65 w/the 3’ splice site
  • prespliceosome complex
    • U2–snRNP attaches to the branch site
    • an association between U1–snRNP and U2–snRNP brings the 5’ splice site into close proximity
  • spliceosome
    • U4/U6–snRNP (a single snRNP containing two snRNAs) and U5–snRNP attach to the prespliceosome complex
    • results in interactions that bring the 3’ splice site close to the 5’ site and the branch point
  • All three key positions in the intron are now in proximity and the two transesterifications occur as a linked reaction
33
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

SR proteins

A
  • splicing factors
  • important in splice-site selection
  • name given because their C-terminal domains contain a region rich in serine (abbreviation S) and arginine (R)
  • several functions
    • establishment of a connection between bound U1–snRNP and the bound U2AF proteins in the commitment complex
    • interact with exonic splicing enhancers ESEs
  • CASPs (CTD-associated SR-like proteins) or SCAFs (SR-like CTD-associated factors
    • subsets of SR proteins
    • connect between the spliceosome and the CTD of the RNA polymerase II transcription complex
    • this creates a link between transcript elongation and processing
    • probable that these splicing factors ride with the polymerase as it synthesizes the transcript, and are deposited at intron splice sites as soon as these are transcribed
    • Electron microscopy studies have shown transcription and splicing occur together, and the discovery of splicing factors that have an affinity for RNA polymerase II provides a biochemical basis for this observation.
34
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

exonic splicing enhancers (ESEs)

A
  • purine-rich sequences located in the exon regions of a transcript.
  • interact with SR Proteins
  • several human diseases are caused by mutations in ESE sequences
  • location of ESEs and and their counterparts, the exonic splicing silencers (ESSs) indicates that assembly of the spliceosome is driven not simply by contacts within the intron but also by interactions with adjacent exons
  • possible that an individual commitment complex is not assembled within an intron but initially bridges an exon
  • Initial assembly of a commitment complex across an exon might be less difficult than assembly across a much longer intron
35
Q

Module 10

GU–AG introns

exonic splicing enhancers (ESEs)

alternative model for assembly of the commitment complex

A
  • In this model, each individual commitment complex (one shown in orange and one in red) is built up across an exon,
  • this brings the complex into close association with an exonic splicing enhancer or silencer and its attached SR proteins
  • Once complexes have been built up over adjacent exons, splicing follows the original pathway
  • the only difference being that the resulting spliceosome is made up of components of adjacent commitment complexes, rather than being derived from the single commitment complex