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Coa > Chapter 12 Ophthalmic Pt Services And Education > Flashcards

Chapter 12 Ophthalmic Pt Services And Education Flashcards

1
Q

A patient who has an upper blepharoplasty has been treated for: a) chalazion
b) epicanthal folds
c) dermatochalasis
d) brow ptosis

A

C dermatochalasis

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2
Q

The procedure for removing a growth from the eyelid is:
a) excision
b) incision
c) decompression
d) biopsy

A

A- excision

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3
Q

When repairing a lower lid laceration in the area of the punctum, tissue alignment is especially critical because:
a) the lacrimal drainage system is involved
b) the tear-producing ducts are involved
c) infection may set in
d) eyelash alignment may be affected

A

A- the lacrimal drainage system is involved

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4
Q

An infant with a blocked nasolacrimal duct might initially need which of the following procedures?
a) dacryocystorhinostomy
b) removal of the tear gland
c) punctal dilation
d) probe and irrigation

A

D- probe and irrigation

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5
Q

A patient with dry eyes might have which of the following procedures?
a) lacrimectomy
b) cyclocryo
c) punctal occlusion
d) punctal dilation

A

C- punctual occlusion

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6
Q

Anesthesia for laser refractive surgery is usually:
a) local
b) general
c) topical
d) not needed

A

C- topical

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7
Q

The purpose of extraocular muscle (EOM) surgery as a child might include all of the following except:
a) prevention/resolution of amblyopia b) cosmesis
c) correction of anisometropia
d) establish stereo vision

A

C- correction of anisometropia

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8
Q

Symptoms of cataract include:
a) becoming more nearsighted
b) becoming more farsighted
c) early presbyopia
d) discharge

A

A- becoming more nearsighted

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9
Q

Symptoms of cataract include:
a) ghost image
b) vertical diplopia
c) stabbing pains
d) lid twitch

A

A- ghost image

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10
Q

Cataracts can be caused by all of the following except:
a) exposure to ultraviolet light
b) injury
c) open-angle glaucoma
d) diabetes

A

C- open-angle glaucoma

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11
Q

Your patient wants to know if she will have stitches in her eye after cataract surgery. You tell her:
a) “No, cataract surgery is always ‘stitchless’ now.”
b) “No, cataract surgery is done with laser.”
c) “No, unless something changes during surgery.”
d) “Yes, stitches are a safeguard against wound gape.”

A

c) “No, unless something changes during surgery.”

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12
Q

Insertion of a phakic IOL would be done for the purpose of:
a) cataract removal
b) correction of refractive error
c) preventing cataracts
d) intraocular medication

A

B- correction of refractive error

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13
Q

Laser treatment for primary/chronic open-angle glaucoma is a(n):
a) valve implant
b) iridotomy
c) iridectomy
d) trabeculoplasty

A

D- trabeculoplasty

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14
Q

Angle-closure glaucoma is most often treated by performing a:
a) surgical trabeculectomy
b) valve implant
c) laser iridotomy
d) surgical iridectomy

A

C- laser iridotomy

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15
Q

Diabetic retinopathy is currently treated with:
a) topical medication
b) oral medication
c) insulin injections
d) laser

A

D- laser

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16
Q

Hypertension mainly affects which eye structure?
a) cornea
b) lens
c) retina
d) optic nerve

A

C- retina

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17
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used in the treatment of retinal disease caused by hypertension?
a) topical medication
b) periodic injections
c) conventional surgery
d) laser surgery

A

D- laser surgery

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18
Q

The main ocular concern in a patient with cancer is:
a) accelerated presbyopia
b) decreased blood supply to the eye
c) spread of cancer to the eye’s tissues
d) decreased nerve response

A

C- spread of cancer to the eye’s tissues

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19
Q

Shingles is a systemic infection that can also affect the eye and is caused by:
a) Toxocara canis
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) herpes simplex
d) herpes zoster

A

C- herpes simplex

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20
Q

Which of the following might be done on a patient with thyroid eye disease?
a) exophthalmometry
b) B-scan ultrasound
c) glare test
d) duochrome test

A

A- exophthalmometry

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21
Q

Sagging and eversion of the lower eyelid is termed:
a) entropion
b) ectropion
c) epiphora
d) trichiasis 87.

A

B- ectropion

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22
Q

Entropion is defined as:
a) lids that turn inward
b) lids that have inward-turned hairs
c) upper lids that droop
d) lids that turn outward

A

A- lids that turn inward

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23
Q

Infection of the lash follicle is a:
a) chalazion
b) hordeolum
c) xanthelasma
d) blepharitis

A

B- hordeolum

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24
Q

An infected meibomian gland causes a(n):
a) blepharochalasis
b) obstructed nasolacrimal duct
c) chalazion
d) hordeolum

A

C- chalazion

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25
Q

Infection of the lacrimal sac is termed:
a) canaliculitis
b) lacrimitis
c) lacrimal cystitis
d) dacryocystitis

A

D- dacryocystitis

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26
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of dry eye?
a) burning
b) epiphora (streaming tears)
c) gritty, foreign-body sensation
d) extreme itching

A

D- extreme itching

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27
Q

All of the following are common indications of viral conjunctivitis except:
a) photophobia
b) recent sore throat
c) moderate redness
d) yellow crusting

A

D- yellow crusting

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28
Q

The type of conjunctivitis caused by constant irritation (such as a contact lens) is:
a) giant papillary
b) seasonal
c) bacterial
d) viral

A

A- giant papillary

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29
Q

An inflammation of the white of the eye that can be very painful is:
a) episcleritis
b) scleritis
c) uveitis
d) iritis

A

B- scleritis

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30
Q

Protrusion of the eyeball is known as:
a) exophthalmos
b) keratoconus
c) buphthalmos
d) ptosis

A

A- exophthalmos

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31
Q

A cream-colored arc in the cornea at the limbus that may be related to cholesterol is:
a) toxic pemphigoid
b) keratoconus
c) drug reaction
d) arcus

A

D- arcus

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32
Q

Which of the following refers to a layer of inflammatory cells/pus in the AC?
a) hypopyon
b) leuko-aqueous
c) hypophema
d) eosinophilosis

A

A- hypopyon

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33
Q

Prior to dilating a patient, one should evaluate:
a) the space between the iris and lens
b) the iridocorneal angle
c) for cataracts
d) the cup-to-disc ratio

A

B- the irdocorneal angle

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34
Q

Because of elevated intraocular pressure, a child born with glaucoma has:
a) buphthalmos
b) exophthalmos
c) proptosis
d) lid lag

A

A- bupthalmos

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35
Q

What are the symptoms of angle-closure glaucoma? a) redness, pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights b) redness, tearing, blurred vision, and pain from bright lights c) discharge, redness, and pain from bright lights d) redness, small pupil, and halos around lights

A

A

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36
Q

In open-angle glaucoma:
a) the iris blocks off the angle structures
b) the pressure damages the ciliary body
c) the angle allows too much aqueous to drain out
d) the angle looks normal

A

D- the angle looks normal

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37
Q

A patient in the end stages of open-angle glaucoma:
a) may have a small temporal island of vision
b) may have a small central island of vision
c) may have a small nasal island of vision
d) still has enough peripheral vision to get around

A

A- may have a small temporal island of vision

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38
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a protozoan-caused infection that can damage the choroid and retina. It is most often passed to humans by means of:
a) contaminated water
b) heterosexual contact
c) contaminated drug paraphernalia
d) cat feces

A

D- cat feces

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39
Q

Histoplasmosis is a fungus-caused infection that can attack the choroid. A human gets histoplasmosis by:
a) drinking contaminated water
b) eating contaminated meat
c) contact with dog feces
d) inhaling the spores

A

D- inhaling the spores

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40
Q

An infection of the internal ocular tissues occurring after surgery or penetrating injury is:
a) retinitis
b) orbititis
c) endophthalmitis
d) cellulitis

A

C- endophthalmitis

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41
Q

Treatment for sympathetic ophthalmia is:
a) enucleation of the inflamed, uninjured eye
b) enucleation of the injured eye
c) enucleation of both eyes
d) emergency lens extraction

A

B- enucleation of the injured eye

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42
Q

All of the following are hereditary except:
a) albinism
b) retinitis pigmentosa
c) trachoma
d) coloboma

A

C- trachoma

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43
Q

Which blood cell carries oxygen in the blood?
a) platelets
b) macrophages
c) white blood cells
d) red blood cells

A

D- red blood cells

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44
Q

Which order represents human circulation? a) capillaries, arteries, heart, lungs, heart, veins, capillaries b) capillaries, veins, heart, lungs, heart, arteries, capillaries
c) veins, arteries, capillaries, heart, lungs, heart, veins
d) arteries, heart, veins, lungs, capillaries, heart, arteries

A

B- capillaries, veins, heart, lungs, heart, arteries, capillaries

45
Q

Chemicals from the endocrine glands travel to the target organ through the:
a) muscle fibers
b) bone marrow
c) bloodstream
d) nerve fibers

A

C- bloodstream

46
Q

The primary goal of the eye’s components is to:
a) interpret what is seen
b) focus incoming light onto the lens
c) focus incoming light onto the retina
d) maintain proper intraocular pressure

A

C- focus incoming light onto the retina

47
Q

Most of the blood supply directly to the eye is supplied by the:
a) internal carotid artery
b) external carotid artery
c) ophthalmic artery
d) ophthalmic vein

A

C- ophthalmic artery

48
Q

The “plate” of connective tissue that serves as the underlying structure of the eyelids is the:
a) tarsus
b) Tenon’s capsule
c) conjunctiva
d) meibomian glands

A

A- tarsus

49
Q

The main lacrimal (tear) gland is located:
a) under the brow
b) near the nose
c) in the lower lid
d) in the conjunctiva

A

A- under the brow

50
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the tear film layer?
a) mucin
b) water
c) oil
d) plasma

A

D- plasma

51
Q

Which tear film layer acts to prevent or retard evaporation of tears from the eye?
a) lipid (oily) layer
b) aqueous (watery) layer
c) mucus layer
d) epithelium

A

A- lipid (oily) layer

52
Q

Which ocular structure refracts light the most?
a) tear film
b) cornea
c) aqueous
d) lens

A

B- cornea

53
Q

The average adult corneal diameter, in millimeters, is:
a) 12 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 8 mm

A

A- 12mm

54
Q

Which corneal layer acts to limit corneal hydration (edema)?
a) endothelium
b) stroma
c) Bowman’s layer
d) epithelium

A

A- endothelium

55
Q

How many muscles make up the iris?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) each strand is a muscle

A

B- 2

56
Q

Which of the following structures is responsible for aqueous production?
a) ciliary muscle
b) ciliary body
c) trabecular meshwork
d) islets of Langerhans

A

B- ciliary body

57
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the crystalline lens?
a) It lies behind the pupil.
b) It is suspended by zonules.
c) It lies in the anterior chamber.
d) It is encased in a capsular bag.

A

C- it lies in the anterior chamber

58
Q

Which of the following does not automatically occur when a patient focuses on a close-up object?
a) narrowing of palpebral fissures
b) pupils get smaller (miosis)
c) eyes converge
d) lens thickens (accommodates)

A

A- narrowing of palpebral fissures

59
Q

When a person looks at a near object:
a) the ciliary muscle contracts, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken
b) the ciliary muscle relaxes, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken
c) the ciliary muscle contracts, causing the zonules to pull tight, causing the lens to thin
d) the ciliary muscle relaxes, causing the zonules to pull tight, causing the lens to thicken

A

a) the ciliary muscle contracts, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken

60
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the uvea?
a) choroid
b) iris
c) retina
d) ciliary body

A

C- retina

61
Q

The major function of the choroid is:
a) aqueous production
b) accommodation
c) blood supply to the retina
d) blood supply to the cornea

A

C- blood supply to the retina

62
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding cone cells? a) They are concentrated in the foveal area.
b) They outnumber the rods 20 to 1.
c) They are responsible for color and central vision.
d) They function best in daylight.

A

B- they outnumber the rods 20 to 1

63
Q

Fibers from the retina travel through the optic chiasm in the following manner:
a) nasal fibers cross, temporal fibers do not cross
b) temporal fibers cross, nasal fibers do not cross
c) the upper half of all fibers cross, the lower half do not cross
d) all fibers cross to the opposite side

A

A- nasal fibers cross, temporal fibers do not cross

64
Q

Your patient complains that he cannot see objects on his left with his left eye. Confrontation visual fields confirms this. You suspect a retinal detachment. What part of the retina would be affected if you are correct? a) left eye, nasal side
b) left eye, temporal side
c) left eye, upper hemisphere
d) right eye, temporal side

A

A- left eye, nasal side

65
Q

The head of the optic nerve, visible with the ophthalmoscope, is called the:
a) optic radiation
b) optic disc
c) macula
d) lamina cribrosa

A

B- optic disc

66
Q

Which of the following should always be prescribed safety lenses?
a) children and adults
b) postoperative cataract patients
c) health care workers
d) children and monocular patients

A

D- children and monocular patients

67
Q

The thinnest allowable width for a general wear, impact-resistant glass safety lens is:
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.2 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 3.7 mm

A

B- 2.2 mm

68
Q

Welders must wear safety glasses or shields that will protect them from:
a) chemical splashes
b) laser radiation
c) infrared radiation burns
d) ultraviolet radiation burns

A

D- ultraviolet radiation burns

69
Q

Your patient sees 20/20, yet complains of “not being able to see.” Which of the following tests might help in documenting the problem?
a) pinhole test
b) tonometry
c) color vision test
d) contrast sensitivity

A

D- contrast sensitivity

70
Q

A test done to estimate how much of a vision loss is due to cataracts and how much to retinal disease is:
a) glare testing
b) brightness acuity testing
c) potential acuity testing
d) OCT

A

C- potential acuity testing

71
Q

The doctor has asked you to measure a patient’s central corneal thickness. You might explain this to the patient using any of the following except:
a) “Corneal thickness can be related to how we interpret your eye pressure readings.”
b) “This measurement uses ultrasound to measure your cornea.
” c) “This reading is just one aspect in determining if glaucoma is present.”
d) “This measurement is essential in fitting your contact lenses.”

A

d) “This measurement is essential in fitting your contact lenses.”

72
Q

The eye care provider has determined that an infant’s nasolacrimal duct is blocked. The procedure to rectify this problem is:
a) probe and irrigate
b) Quickert-Dryden tube insertion
c) dacryocystectomy
d) punctal dilation

A

A- probe and irrigate

73
Q

Botulinum toxin injection, or Botox (Allergan Inc, Irvine, CA), is used to relieve:
a) accommodative esotropia
b) accommodative spasms
c) blepharospasms
d) migraine headaches

A

C- blepharospasms

74
Q

Removal of an eyelash is called:
a) trichiasis
b) epilation
c) incision
d) indentation

A

B- epilation

75
Q

Standard instructions for a patient with conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
a) if another family member develops symptoms, give him or her your eye drops
b) do not share washcloths with anyone
c) wash your hands before and after touching the eye
d) do not share pillows with anyone

A

A- if another family develops symptoms, give him or her your eye drops

76
Q

A patient who has had a corneal foreign body removed in the office should be told to:
a) expect a foreign body sensation for the rest of the day
b) use “numbing drops” as needed for pain
c) expect the eye to feel better right away
d) avoid heavy lifting

A

A- expect a foreign body sensation for the rest of the day

77
Q

The parent of a child who is being patched for amblyopia asks how the patch is going to help. You respond:
a) the patch prevents secondary infections
b) the weak eye is patched to relieve eye strain
c) the strong eye is patched to force the weaker eye to work harder
d) the patch prevents the eyes from crossing

A

C- the strong eye is patched to force the weaker eye to work harder

78
Q

A patient with which of the following might be taught how to do “pencil push-up” eye exercises?
a) amblyopia
b) convergence insufficiency
c) divergence insufficiency
d) exotropia

A

B- convergence insufficiency

79
Q

A properly applied pressure patch should:
a) prevent the patient from moving his or her eye
b) prevent the patient from opening his or her eye
c) eliminate pain
d) improve the patient’s vision

A

B- prevent the patient from opening his or her eye

80
Q

Use of a pressure patch in superficial corneal defects is generally indicated because:
a) it helps create a smooth surface for healing
b) it keeps light from entering the cornea
c) the pressure makes healing faster
d) the patch keeps the medicine on the eye

A

A- it helps create a smooth surface for healing

81
Q

The patient should be told all of the following after application of a pressure patch except:
a) to call the office if the eye opens under the patch
b) to leave the patch on until told to remove it
c) that the purpose of the patch is to promote healing
d) to remove the patch if it is uncomfortably tight

A

D- to remove the patch if it is uncomfortably tight

82
Q

An eye patch is commonly used after ocular surgery for all of the following except:
a) to prevent infection and absorb discharge
b) to protect the eye
c) to stop bleeding and reduce swelling
d) to improve visual acuity

A

D- to improve visual acuity

83
Q

Urgent ocular situations generally need to be seen:
a) at the practice’s convenience
b) the same day
c) within 24 to 48 hours
d) within minutes

A

C- within 24 to 48 hours

84
Q

All of the following may trigger an angle-closure glaucoma except:
A) being dilated in the office
B) being in a dark room
C) sudden exposure to bright light
D) sitting in a movie theater

A

C- sudden exposure to bright light

85
Q

In angle-closure glaucoma:
a) the iris closes off the anterior chamber angle
b) there is a sudden surge of aqueous production
c) a miotic pupil prevents aqueous passage
d) corneal edema closes off the anterior chamber angle

A

A- the iris closes off the anterior chamber angle

86
Q

Which of the following conditions gives a higher risk for developing an angle-closure glaucoma attack?
a) high hyperopia
b) high myopia
c) aphakia
d) keratoconus

A

A- high hyperopia

87
Q

The appearance of halos around lights during an attack of angle-closure glaucoma is due to:
a) lens edema
b) corneal edema
c) vitreous hemorrhage
d) optic nerve damage

A

B- corneal edema

88
Q

Emergency treatment during an angle-closure glaucoma attack includes pressurelowering medications and:
a) miotics
b) mydriatics
c) antibiotics
d) corticosteroids

A

A- miotics

89
Q

In examining the pupil of a painful red eye, which would most likely be seen in iritis?
a) The affected eye would have a smaller pupil.
b) The affected eye would have a larger pupil.
c) The affected eye would have an oval-shaped pupil.
d) Iritis does not affect the pupil size or shape.

A

A- the affected eye would have a smaller pupil

90
Q

A 60-year-old patient calls with flashes and floaters in one eye, which started 2 days ago. You should:
a) schedule him or her for a routine eye exam in a month
b) schedule him or her for a dilated exam in a week
c) schedule him or her for an urgent visit right away
d) reassure the patient that this is normal as one ages

A

C- schedule him or her for an urgent visit right away

91
Q

Which of the following causes the most severe chemical injury?
a) acetic acid
b) hydrochloric acid
c) nitric acid
d) ammonia

A

D- ammonia

92
Q

Before any treatment is started on a patient who presents with a foreign body in the eye, the most important question to ask is:
a) “Were you wearing safety glasses?”
b) “Does the eye hurt?”
c) “Does your vision seem to be affected?”
d) “What were you doing when this happened?”

A

d) “What were you doing when this happened?”

93
Q

Painful corneal burns due to ultraviolet light might occur (if one fails to protect the eyes) in all of the following situations except:
a) tanning booth
b) direct viewing of a lunar eclipse
c) welding
d) snow skiing

A

B- direct viewing of a lunar eclipse

94
Q

A patient has been hit in the eye with a tennis ball. Your best action is to:
a) ask him to come right in before the eye swells shut
b) explain the symptoms of retinal detachment and have him call back if they appear
c) make him an appointment for next week so the swelling has a chance to go down
d) tell him to use an ice pack and call back if he has any problems

A

A- ask him to come right in before the eye swells shut

95
Q

All of the following can result from blunt trauma to the eye except:
a) blow out fracture
b) traumatic hyphema
c) retinal detachment
d) trachoma

A

D- trachoma

96
Q

A hemorrhage in the anterior chamber is:
a) a subconjunctival hemorrhage
b) cells and flare
c) a hyphema
d) a vitreous hemorrhage

A

C- a hyphema

97
Q

An assessment that makes a statement about a patient’s ability/inability to perform tasks that he or she needs and wants to do is an evaluation of:
a) impairment
b) disability
c) qualification
d) vision loss

A

B- disability

98
Q

A person with 20/20 acuity in both eyes and normal visual fields:
a) would never qualify as having a visual disability
b) is not eligible for any type of assistance
c) may still be visually disabled
d) does not have a visual impairment

A

C- may still be visually diabled

99
Q

A patient usually presents with a form for a vision test related to obtaining a driver’s license when:
a) getting a license for the first time
b) getting a driving citation for the first time
c) failing the acuity test at the license bureau
d) failing the driving test at the license bureau

A

C- failing the acuity test at the license bureau

100
Q

Which of the following is considered the “normal” human body temperature?
a) 89.6˚ F
b) 96.8˚ F
c) 98.6˚ F
d) 99.6˚ F

A

B- 96.8

101
Q

The best way to check respiration rate is to:
a) covertly evaluate it after the pulse has been checked b) place a hand on the patient’s back and time the breaths
c) ask the patient to breathe normally
d) ask the patient to breathe once every 2.5 seconds

A

A- covertly evaluate it after the pulse has been checked

102
Q

Respiration can additionally be evaluated by noting:
a) if pinching the ankle causes an increase
b) the ratio of pulse to breaths
c) any unusual sounds or irregularities
d) the patient’s reaction to additional oxygen

A

C- any unusual sounds or irregularities

103
Q

BP might be especially important in each of the following patients except:
a) the patient with a cataract
b) the patient who is being prepped for a chalazion excision
c) the patient who is using beta-blocker drops for glaucoma
d) the patient who feels dizzy

A

A- the patient with a cataract

104
Q

How many people survive cardiac arrest if someone performs chest compressions or CPR?
a) 1 in 5
b) 1 in 10
c) 1 in 20
d) 1 in 25

A

B- 1in 10

105
Q

What is the first step in the rescue/CPR process?
a) Activate 911 or an emergency response system.
b) Assess responsiveness.
c) Position patient.
d) Check for pulse and breathing.

A

B- assess responsiveness

106
Q

The correct rescuer position for performing chest compressions on an adult is:
a) straddling the victim, hands interlaced, elbows straight
b) at the victim’s side, both hands on chest, elbows bent c) at the victim’s head, heel of one hand on chest, elbow straight
d) at the victim’s side, hands interlaced, elbows straight

A

D- at the victim’s side, hands interlaced, elbows straight

107
Q

The correct depth for chest compressions in an adult is: a) 1 to 1.5 inches
b) at least 2 inches
c) 4 inches
d) until the rib cage crackles

A

B- at least 2 inches

108
Q

The rate of compressions in hands-only CPR is:
a) 30 per minute
b) one per second
c) 100 per minute
d) 120 per minute

A

C- 100 per minute

Coa (19 decks)

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