Chapter 10 Ocular Motility

Question 1

Coordinated movement of both eyes in the same direction is known as:
a) ductions
b) versions
c) rotations
d) saccades

Answer 1

B- versions

Question 2

When testing a patient’s versions, it is important to:
a) test in dim lighting
b) keep the patient’s head still
c) use an opaque occluder to break fusion
d) keep the patient’s eyes in primary position

Answer 2

B- keep the patients head still

Question 3

Versional movements are those that: a) result in fusion
b) move one eye
c) move both eyes in the same direction
d) move both eyes in a different direction

Answer 3

C-move both eyes in the same direction

Question 4

If the eyes have normal version movements, all of the following will exist except:
a) each eye will move with equal speed
b) each eye will move smoothly
c) the eyes will diverge equally
d) each eye will be in the same position relative to the other

Answer 4

C- the eyes will diverge equally

Question 5

To test the right inferior rectus (RIR) and the left superior oblique (LSO) muscles, the patient must look:
a) directly right
b) down and to the right
c) up and to the right
d) down and to the left

Answer 5

B- down and to the right

Question 6

Your patient is looking down and to the left. Which muscles are pulling the eyes into this position?
a) RIR and LSO
b) Right superior oblique (RSO) and left inferior rectus (LIR)
c) Right superior rectus (RSR) and left inferior oblique (LIO)
d) Right inferior oblique (RIO) and left superior rectus (LSR)

Answer 6

B- right superior rectus (RSR) and left inferior oblique (LIO)

Question 7

You want to check the action of the right lateral rectus (RLR) muscle. Where do you direct the patient to look?
a) to the left
b) to the right
c) down and right
d) up and left

Answer 7

B- to the right

Question 8

You want to check the action of the LIO muscle. Where do you direct the patient to look?
a) to the left
b) down and right
c) up and left
d) up and right

Answer 8

D- up and right

Question 9

Ductions refer to:
a) muscles that work against each other during eye movements
b) movements of one eye
c) movements of both eyes in the same direction
d) movements of both eyes in the opposite direction

Answer 9

B- movements of one eye

Question 10

Testing ductions is useful in differentiating cases of:
a) restrictive strabismus
b) accommodative strabismus
c) congenital esotropia
d) pseudostrabismus

Answer 10

A- restrictive strabismus

Question 11

The difference between a phoria and an intermittent tropia is:
a) the patient experiences diplopia with the phoria but not with the intermittent tropia
b) the phoria rarely is controlled, and the intermittent tropia always is controlled
c) the phoria usually is controlled, and the intermittent tropia always is uncontrolled
d) the phoria usually is controlled, and the intermittent tropia sometimes is controlled

Answer 11

d) the phoria usually is controlled, and the intermittent tropia sometimes is controlled

Question 12

An adult patient with a tropia has either:
a) amblyopia or anisometropia
b) prism or slab-off lenses
c) diplopia or suppression
d) fusion or stereopsis

Answer 12

C- diplopia or suppression

Question 13

An intermittent horizontal tropia might be aggravated by all of the following except:
a) inattention
b) dry eye
c) illness
d) fatigue

Answer 13

B- dry eye

Question 14

Vertical deviations are conventionally described by indicating:
a) the higher (up-turned) eye
b) the lower (down-turned) eye
c) the preferred eye
d) the eye with best vision

Answer 14

A- the higher (up-turned) eye

Question 15

In pseudostrabismus:
a) the eye turns only if fusion is disrupted
b) the eyes are straight, but there is amblyopia
c) the eyes are straight, but the patient has diplopia
d) the eyes look crossed, but actually are straight

Answer 15

D- the eyes look crossed, but actually are straight

Question 16

Pseudostrabismus usually is seen in: a) boys
b) girls
c) infants
d) adults

Answer 16

C- infants

Question 17

The purpose of covering one eye with an occluder for strabismus screening is to:
a) determine if the patient is suppressing
b) perform monocular testing
c) disrupt fusion
d) determine if the patient is malingering

Answer 17

C- disrupt fusion

Question 18

The cover/uncover test can also reveal the presence of:
a) esotropia versus exotropia
b) vergence insufficiency
c) depth perception
d) visual acuity

Answer 18

A- esotropia versus exotropia

Question 19

During the cover/uncover test, if a patient has a phoria, the response of the eye that is not covered is to:
a) take up fixation
b) move in the same direction as the covered eye
c) remain straight
d) deviate in or out

Answer 19

C- remain straight

Question 20

The alternate (cross) cover test does not reveal:
a) exodeviations
b) esodeviations
c) hyper deviations
d) a phoria versus a tropia

Answer 20

D- a photos versus a tropia

Question 21

If there is no movement of either eye during any part of the alternate (cross) cover test, one has determined that: a) the patient is amblyopic in one eye b) the eyes are orthophoric
c) the patient has stereo vision
d) the patient has equal vision in both eyes

Answer 21

B- the eyes are orthophoric

Question 22

You have performed the alternate (cross) cover test and notice that each eye moves inward when uncovered. What is your next step?
a) record exodeviation in the chart
b) record exotropia in the chart
c) record esodeviation in the chart
d) perform a cover/uncover test

Answer 22

D- perform a cover/uncover test

Question 23

The alternate (cross) cover test can be used to measure the size of a deviation if:
a) the patient can fuse
b) the corneal reflex can be seen
c) it is combined with prisms
d) polarized glasses are used

Answer 23

C- it is combined with prisms

Question 24

Which of the following is not a component of binocular vision?
a) clear vision in each eye
b) alignment of the eyes
c) overlapping visual fields
d) identical images on each retina

Answer 24

D-identical images on each retina

Question 25

Depth perception:
a) requires two eyes
b) requires overlapping visual fields
c) is absent in monocular patients
d) uses environmental “clues”

Answer 25

D- uses environmental “clues”

Question 26

Stereopsis is recorded in:
a) Snellen fractions
b) degrees of arc
c) seconds of arc
d) degrees of field

Answer 26

C- seconds of arc

Question 27

Which of the following indicates the better stereo vision?
a) 50 degrees of arc
b) 25 degrees of arc
c) 50 seconds of arc
d) 25 seconds of arc

Answer 27

D- 25 seconds of arc

Question 28

Stereopsis differs from depth perception in that:
a) depth perception is monocular or binocular
b) stereo vision involves judging spatial relationships
c) depth perception involves seeing in three dimensions
d) stereopsis is a learned experience

Answer 28

a) depth perception is monocular or binocular

Question 29

The Titmus/Wirt test, Randot test, and fly test all use:
a) polarized glasses
b) glasses with one red and one green lens
c) dissociating prisms
d) a red filter

Answer 29

A- polarized glasses

Question 30

When evaluating congenital nystagmus, all of the following might be noted except:
a) binocular or monocular
b) direction
c) magnitude
d) head position

Answer 30

A- binocular or monocular

Question 31

A head position in which the nystagmus is quietest (least) is known as the:
a) null point
b) near point
c) angle of deviation
d) cyclic amplitude

Answer 31

A- bull point