Chapter 12 Drugs And Chemical Classes Flashcards

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0
Q

When using a drug for a condition is not advisable because of potential adverse actions.

A

Contraindications

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1
Q

The appropriate use of a drug when treating a disease or condition.

A

Indication

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2
Q

The amount of medication that can be given for the average person for the specified condition.

A

Dosage

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3
Q

What types of interventions should be completed for a drug overdose patient on scene according to the book.

A

12 lead ECG. Pulse oximetry and capnography.

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4
Q

A tube placed into the stomach and saline circulated in order to suction out the contents is called a _______. And how long after ingestion if the substance should this procedure be done.

A

Gastric lavage. 1 hour after ingestion

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5
Q

What medication is used to soak up stomach contents and inhibit the absorption mechanism in the body.

A

Activated charcoal.

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6
Q

A state in which pain is controlled or not perceived.

A

Analgesia

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7
Q

Pain should be assessed by taking a thorough _______. Remember PQRST

A

History

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8
Q

Does acetaminophen (Tylenol) have any anti pyretic or anti inflammatory properties.

A

No

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9
Q

One of the more common overdoses involves what over the counter drug.

A

Acetaminophen

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10
Q

ASA (aspirin) is mainly used today for the prevention of

A

Prevention of clot formation due to heart disease and clot formation disorders.

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11
Q

ASA is the primary treatment for what major ailment.

A

Chest pain.

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12
Q

ASA reduces rates of ________ and _________ with Pts with chest pain.

A

Mortality and morbitity

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13
Q

A risk of liver disease exists with what major over the counter analgesic.

A

Acetaminophen

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14
Q

For ASA. What are the toxicity levels and what are the fatal doses.

A

Toxic 200 to 500 mg/ kg

Fatal above 500 mg/kg

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15
Q

What major physiological effect does toxic levels of ASA produce.

A

Hyperpnea. High RR

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16
Q

NSAID stands for

A

Non Steroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs

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17
Q

NSAIDs are used to treat what

A

Treat acute or chronic inflammatory reactions

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18
Q

Which substance plays a major part in the inflammatory process and is the major substance that NSAIDs counter act.

A

Prostaglandins

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19
Q

The Most common NSAIDs are. (2)

A

Ibuprofen and naproxen sodium.

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20
Q

Toxic levels of NSAIDs may cause what rare and wierd side effect.

A

Nystagmus (rapid eye movement)

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21
Q

What organ does toxic overdose levels of NSAIDs effect the most

A

Kidneys

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22
Q

Agonists cause what

A

Physiological response

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23
Q

Which is the most common opioid analgesic used today.

A

Morphine

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24
Q

What other major opioid analgesics do we use and see often.

A

Fentanyl Methadone Meperidine

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25
Q

Is fentanyl a true opioid analgesic.

A

No. It’s a narcotic analgesic but is synthetic meaning that it’s roots do not come from the poppy. (Opium)

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26
Q

Partial agonists are also called

A

Agonist-antagonist drugs

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27
Q

Propoxyphene plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug

A

Darvocet

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28
Q

Hydrocodone plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug

A

Vicodin

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29
Q

Oxycodone plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug

A

Percocet, Tylox

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30
Q

Codeine plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug

A

Tylenol 3

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31
Q

What drug class blocks the effects of opioid analgesics.

A

Opioid antagonists

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32
Q

Name a major opioid antagonist that we deal with every day.

A

Naloxone/Narcan

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33
Q

Anesthetics effect what major system in the body. Think about it.

A

The CNS. Can’t feel

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34
Q

Three types of Anesthetics. (How they work).

A

General, regional, and local.

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35
Q

How do Anesthetics work simply.

A

They blunt the CNS to the perception of pain

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36
Q

General anesthesia is given by two routes.

A

Inhalation or IV

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37
Q

Regional anesthesia is given by injecting anesthesia near a

A

Nerve

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38
Q

When regional anesthesia is used on fingers or ties this is called a

A

Digit block

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39
Q

What level of anesthesia/Sedation. Used for anxiety reduction and coordination may be impaired with ventilators and cardiovascular functions intact. Respond to verbal commands.

A

Minimal level

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40
Q

What level of anesthesia/Sedation. Minimally depressed LOC. Spontaneous ventilations present. Can respond to verbal commands. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained. KNOWN AS CONSCIOUS SEDATION.

A

Moderate level.

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41
Q

What level of anesthesia/Sedation. Drug induced level of unconsciousness. Cardiovascular function is impaired. PPV may be needed. Must maintain airway.

A

General anesthesia.

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42
Q

During the fist stage of anesthesia what is the last sense to be lost.

A

Hearing

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43
Q

What stage of general anesthesia. Administration of anesthesia until loss of consciousness.

A

Analgesia

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44
Q

What stage of general anesthesia. Loss of consciousness to beginning of surgical anesthesia. Pt may laugh swear sing struggle.

A

Excitement level.

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45
Q

What are the first two levels of general anesthesia referred to.

A

The “Induction”

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46
Q

What stage of general anesthesia. Lasts until spontaneous breathing stops. How many planes are in this level to help anesthesiologist know what level of general anesthesia the pt is in.

A

Surgical anesthesia. 4 planes are always analyzed.

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47
Q

What are the 4 different planes or physical reflexes during surgical level general anesthesia that the anesthesiologist always keeps an eye on In order to see what level of anesthesia they are in.

A

Pupil size. Eyeball movement. Character of respirations. BP

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48
Q

Plane four of the surgical anesthetic stage of general anesthesia consists of what physical reflexes.

A

Pupils dilated. Eyeball movement absent. Absent chest wall breathing with Depressed diaphragmatic breathing. Decreased BP.

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49
Q

What stage of general anesthesia. Cessation of breathing and circulator collapse.

A

Medullary depression/paralysis. (Toxic stage).

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50
Q

This stage of General Anesthesia is avoided due the fact that it deactivates the centers in medulla that control breathing.

A

Stage four. Medullary depression/paralysis (toxic stage).

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51
Q

Is cocaine a local topical anesthetic.

A

Yes

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52
Q

These drugs often provide an analgesic effect when given alone. The effect is less than that of a full agonist though.

A

Agonist-antagonist.

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53
Q

The use if Anesthetics in the field may be encountered during which aggressive field interventions. (3)

A

Rapid sequence intubation
Conscious sedation
Anxiolysis

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54
Q

Which two drugs are used for sedation in the field.

A

Etomidate (Amidate)

Fentanyl (Sublimaze)

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55
Q

Which drug is used in trauma situations and is less likely to cause hypotension compared with other opioids.

A

Fentanyl

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56
Q

A short acting drug that works in the brain to produce anesthesia.

A

Etomidate (Amidate)

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57
Q

A bacterial disease that can be transmitted through cuts and puncture wounds.

A

Tetanus

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58
Q

The best treatment for Tetanus is

A

Prevention

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59
Q

The immunization is a tetanus/diphtheria combo recommended as a booster every _____ years.

A

10 years

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60
Q

In the ER your tetanus/diphtheria booster should be every ___ years.

A

5 years

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61
Q

A common local anesthetic.

A

Lidocaine

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62
Q

Lock jaw is a common symptom of what bacterial disease

A

Tetanus

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63
Q

An infant, someone with sickle cell disease, or someone who has lost their spleen in an accident all should receive this type if immunization. What type of immunization is this?

A

Haemophilus influenza type B immunization

Bacterial

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64
Q

Which vaccine has helped reduced meningitis in small children. What type of vaccine is this.

A

Streptococcal pneumoniea vaccine

Bacterial.

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65
Q

Viral immunization so protect against what viruses.

A

Hep A, Hep B, flu, rubella, chicken pox, measles, mumps, Rabies

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66
Q

Preformed antibodies to a specific virus or bacteria that may be derived form animals or humans or produced synthetically.

A

Immunoglobulins

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67
Q

A chemical that counteracts a poison

A

Antidote

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68
Q

Medications designed to treat infection are called

A

Antimicrobials

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69
Q

Medications designed to treat bacterial infections are called

A

Antibiotics.

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70
Q

Antibiotics are used for both ___________and ___________.

A

Locally and systematically

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71
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit growth and replication are called

A

Bacteriostatic

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72
Q

Antibiotics that attack and kill existing bacteria are called

A

Bactericidal

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73
Q

The first family of antibiotics is called

A

Penicillin

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74
Q

Which suffix will identify most pencillins.

A

Names ending with -illin.

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75
Q

What drugs can kill both gram positive and gram negative bacteria as well as defeat this that penicillin cannot.

A

Cephalosporins

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76
Q

The antibiotics have large chemical compounds and are quite effective against community acquired pneumonia.

A

Macrolides

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77
Q

A antibiotic widely used to respiratory and skin infections like acne.

A

Tetracyclines

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78
Q

Antibiotic therapy is one of the most common causes of what type of fungal infection.

A

Yeast infection due the fact that the antibiotics interfere with the balance of the fungus naturally occurring in the body.

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79
Q

What is tines pedis

A

Athletes foot. Foot fungus

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80
Q

What suffix is commonly used on anti fungal medications.

A

Names ending in -zole.

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81
Q

Which agent do not have the ability to replicate or reproduce without a host.

A

Viruses

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82
Q

What medications is commonly used to treat Thrush in humans

A

Nystatin

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83
Q

A medication that can greatly limit the ill effects of influenza if given within the first 48 hours of contamination.

A

Amantadine

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84
Q

Two very popular drugs used to treat the HIV Virus.

A

Zidovudine (AZT) and Lamivudine (Epivir)

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85
Q

A common suffix for anti viral drugs is

A

-vir

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86
Q

A potentially deadly disease mostly from tropical and subtropical regions that comes from a single cell parasite and spread through Mosquitos is

A

Malaria

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87
Q

What are some common S/S of malaria.

A

Attacks of chills and fever

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88
Q

A common drug that treats Malaria is

A

Quinine sulfate

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89
Q

What disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

A

TB

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90
Q

One dangerous aspect of TB is that a person can

A

Have it for years and not show any S/S at all and spread the disease throughout their community.

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91
Q

One major sign of TB infection is

A

Enlarged Lymph Nodes.

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92
Q

A single called organism is called a

A

Amoeba

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93
Q

The one and only Ameoba that can cause disease is called

A

Entamoeba histolytica which cause amoebiasis

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94
Q

Wierd bacterial infections and amoeba infections are very rare but when they appear can be dangerous. What little know medication can be used against them.

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

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95
Q

A worm classified as a parasite that lives in human beings is called a

A

Helminth

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96
Q

A treatment for leparsy is called

A

Dapsone

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97
Q

Agents designed to fight cancer are called (2)

A

Antineoplastic or chemotherapeutic agents

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98
Q

Most essential vitamins and minerals are obtained by doing what

A

Eating a well balanced diet

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99
Q

Vitamin and mineral substitutes have gained popularity in dieting and weight training therapy . What other therapy also takes these

A

Cancer therapy

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100
Q

What are the fat solvable vitamins. (4)

A

A, D, E, K

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101
Q

What vitamins are water soluble

A

C and B

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102
Q

What vitamin will interfere with Coumadin (Warfarin). This is a anticoagulant drug.

A

Vitamin K.

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103
Q

What vitamin acts as a vasodilator.

A

B3

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104
Q

Two main crystalloids in prehospital care are

A

Normal saline and Ringers lactate

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105
Q

Benzodiazapines when they are taken in excess produces what type of dangerous physiological effect.

A

Respiratory depression.

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106
Q

Benzodiazepines are believed to act on the portion of the brain that affects_________.

A

Emotion.

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107
Q

Benzodiazepines have a high therapeutic index that means what.

A

They are relatively safe.

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108
Q

Benzodiazepines are commonly used for four reasons today. Name

A

Treat anxiety, muscle spasms, and convulsions and provide sedation.

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109
Q

Benzodiazepines are what schedule of contolled substances

A

Schedule IV

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110
Q

Commonly used Benzodiazepines are listed name a few

A
Alprazolam (Xanax)
Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Diazepam (Valium)
Midazolam (Versed)
Lorezapam (Ativan)
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111
Q

A common benzo antidote or receptor antagonist.

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon).

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112
Q

What drug may induce seizures that have been taking benzos for a long period of time.

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

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113
Q

Benzodiazepines are replacing what drugs.

A

Barbiturates.

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114
Q

Antidepressants are mainly used for 2 mental disorders

A

Depression and bipolar disorder

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115
Q

Depression and bi polar disorder are considered what type of disorder

A

Mood disorders

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116
Q

SSRIs stands for what type of psych drugs

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

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117
Q

SSRIs block what the Reuptake of what endorphin at the nerve synapse

A

Serotonin

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118
Q

The highest serotonin concentrations in the body are found where

A

The mucosa if the GI tract

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119
Q

Tricyclics antidepressants work by blocking the Reuptake of what 2 neurotransmitters

A

Norepinephrine and serotonin

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120
Q

Are tricyclic antidepressants life threatening in overdose Y/N

A

Yes

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121
Q

Signs of poisoning may produce three major toxic syndromes. Name

A
  1. Anticholenergic
  2. Cardiovascular
  3. Seizure
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122
Q

Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and serotonin all have one distinct organic compound in common.

A

Monoamines

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123
Q

Monoamines are believed to promote a ______ mood

A

Stable

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124
Q

Tyramine is known to make what rise in high concentrations

A

BP

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125
Q

Excessive elation, talkativeness, flight of ideas, motor activity, arritability, accelerated speech, and delusions of grandeur are all signs of type of psych disorder

A

Mania

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126
Q

What common drug is used to treat mania and bi-polar disorder.

A

Lithium

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127
Q

Taking Lithium results in what decreasing in the cells of the body

A

Na+

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128
Q

What drug is a challenge in overdose due to the fact that activated charcoal will not bind to it.

A

Lithium

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129
Q

Psychosis is usually associated with what major psych disorder

A

Schizophrenia

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130
Q

Antipsychotic drugs center on the ________ receptors where they block Reuptake in order to allow it to stay in the synapse longer.

A

Dopamine

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131
Q

What disorder is the most common cause of seizures.

A

Epilepsy

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132
Q

What is Tardive dyskinesia

A

Involuntary repetitive body movement

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133
Q

Hydra toxins are effective drugs against

A

Seizures and convulsions

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134
Q

The most common hydantoin is

A

Dilantin

135
Q

The theory behind Dilantin is that it interferes with the

_____ _______ transport.

A

Sodium ion transport

136
Q

This drug is a common drug from Barbiturate class to treat status epilepticus in the hospital.

A

Pentobarbital.

137
Q

Three very common benzodiazepines that are also used to treat seizures.

A

Diazepam (Valium)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Midazalam (Versed)

138
Q

Hydantoin derivatives are direct-acting

A

Muscle relaxants.

139
Q

Dantrolene inhibits the release of what major Cation to limit muscle spasms.

A

Ca++

140
Q

Two common types of CNS stimulants are

A

Anorexiants and amphetamines

141
Q

CNS stimulants are believed to work by doing what

A

Blocking inhibitor neurotransmitters in the brain.

142
Q

What CNS stimulant is used to suppress appetite for weight loss

A

Anorexiants

143
Q

A common Anorexiant

A

Sibutramine (Meridia)

144
Q

This CNS stimulate affects the portion of the brain responsible for alertness.

A

Amphetamine

145
Q

What two common disorders are amphetamines usually prescribed to treat

A

Narcolepsy and ADD

146
Q

Name two common amphetamine drugs.

A

Methamphetamine (Desoxyn)

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

147
Q

Some diseases cause peripheral dysfunction with movement. These disorders are typically caused by a imbalance with what two neurotransmitters

A

Dopamine and acetylcholine

148
Q

Which neurotransmitter cannot cross the blood brain barrier. It’s a major one for movement.

A

Dopamine

149
Q

Parkinson’s disease effect the body ability to

A

Move correctly

150
Q

Alzheimer’s effects the body’s

A

Memory and carry out routine daily activities

151
Q

An inherited disease characterized by progressive dementia and involuntary muscle movement. It’s related to the imbalance of what two neurotransmitters

A

Huntington chorea

Dopamine and acetylcholine

152
Q

Two primary mechanisms cholinergic drugs exert their action

A

They may stimulate agonist activity at the receptor or

They may impede the enzyme acetylcholinesterase

153
Q

The two mechanisms that allow cholinergic drugs to operate by allowing the neurotransmitter to stay in the ________ longer.

A

Synapse

154
Q

Drugs that affect the ganglion, adrenal medulla, skeletal muscle are responsible for what effects

A

Nicotinic

155
Q

Drugs that respond and stimulate at the post ganglionic receptor are responsible for

A

Muscarinic effects

156
Q

Atropine comes from what plant

A

Belladonna

157
Q

This drug blocks the cholinergic response and is used to treat systemic bradycardia.

A

Atropine

158
Q

For SLUDGEM what does the M stand for. You know the rest.

A

Miosis. Constricted pupils

159
Q

Ganglionic stimulant drugs like nicotine gum and nicotine stimulate which receptors along the transmission series.

A

Autonomic ganglia.

160
Q

The most common ganglionic blocking drug is.

A

Trimethaphan

161
Q

Drugs affecting the adrenergic functions are Designed to produce action similar to two major adrenergic neurotransmitters

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

162
Q

Name three natural catecholamines

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

163
Q

What is the precursor for both epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

Dopamine

164
Q

Adrenergic blocking drugs are classified as (2)

A

Alpha blockers

Beta blockers

165
Q

Two very popular cardio selective Beta blockers are

What do they do

A

Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Atenolol (Tenormin)
They both reduce BP and HR

166
Q

Alpha adrenergic blocking drugs can be used to help with major systemic ailment

A

Hypertension

167
Q

Which beta blockers are cardio selective beta blockers. Beta1 or Beta 2

A

Beta1

168
Q

Non selective beta blockers work on which dip adrenergic receptors.

A

Both Beta 1 and Beta 2

169
Q

What drug is used for supra ventricular tachycardias. Why

A

Adenosine. It slows conduction through the AV node without affecting myocardial contractility

170
Q

A term that refers to the entire group of cardiac glycosides

A

Digitalis

171
Q

What plant is digitalis derived from

A

The foxglove plant

172
Q

Four goals of hypertensive therapy

A

Decrease heart workload
Maintain adequate BP for perfusion
No undesirable side effects
Permit long term administration

173
Q

How does digitalis work

A

It increases intracellular concentrations of Ca++ by blocking the ion pumps on the cell membrane increasing cardiac contraction and effect conduction.

174
Q

What disease in the US is the leading risk factor for acute myocardial infarction

A

Hypertension

175
Q

Hypertension is also linked to what other major medical conditions

A

Stroke, cerebral hemorrhage, and renal failure

176
Q

What antiarrhythmic classification. Blocks fast Na+ channels, decreased excitability! prolonged depolarization

A

1A

177
Q

What antiarrhythmic classification. Blocks Na+ sodium channels! decreased excitability, shortens depolarization or has little effect

A

1B

178
Q

What antiarrhythmic classification. Profoundly slow conduction

A

1C

179
Q

What antiarrhythmic classification. Beta blockers, suppress automaticity, and rate of conduction.

A

II

180
Q

What antiarrhythmic classification. Prolonged depolarization time, by interfering with outflow of K+ through K channels

A

III

181
Q

What antiarrhythmic classification. Calcium channel blockers, block inward movement of Ca++, slows conduction particularly through the AV Node, and slow cardiac smooth muscle contraction.

A

IV

182
Q

These type of drugs are based on the premise of volume reduction of the intravascular circulation.

A

Diuretics

183
Q

Total effect of diuretics is

A

Reduced systemic BP.

Decreased cardiac workload

184
Q

A common diuretic is a _____ diuretic and they center on this particular part if the kidney.

A

Loop diuretics

Center on the Loop of Hienle

185
Q

How do Loop diuretics work.

A

They stop the reabsorption of Na+ and water

186
Q

Common side effect of Loop Diuretics is

A

Hypokalmia

187
Q

Extremely common Loop Diuretic

A

Furosemide (Laxis)

188
Q

Most common antihypertensive drugs are from this class.

A

Thiazide diuretics

189
Q

A Thiazide diuretic works how

A

By increasing excretion of Na+, Cl-, and water at the distal renal tube

190
Q

A common Thiazide diuretic

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

191
Q

How do Potassium sparring diuretics work

A

They promote Na+ and water excretion at the distal renal tube but Potassium is reabsorbed. Fixes the problem with Loop diuretics.

192
Q

An example of a Potassium sparring diuretic

A

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

193
Q

How do osmotic diuretics work

A

They pull fluid from the vascular space by increasing osmotic pressure and limit water reabsorption

194
Q

Drugs that are derived from tropical trees and shrubs.

A

Rauwolfia derivatives

195
Q

Angiotensin-converting inhibitors play a key role of lowering what extremely important medical statistic.

A

BP. They help lower it

196
Q

These drugs work directly on the peripheral blood vessel wall, causing dilation and inhibiting constriction.

A

Vasodilators

197
Q

Vasodilators essentially lower BP by increasing the container with doing what that is very important for us.

A

Reducing volume.

198
Q

Vasodilator drugs may stimulate what natural reflex in the body which may cause concern if other countering drugs are not used at the same time.

A

A sympathetic reflex to the lowering of BP. This could be counter productive if these sympathetic responses are not blocked with other medications.

199
Q

What anti depressant drugs can also block norepinephrine at the sympathetic junction and thus block vasoconstriction.

A

MAOI’s. Mono amine oxidase inhibitors.

200
Q

This class of drug blocks both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system at the ganglia.

A

Ganglionic blocking agents

201
Q

Why are ganglionic blocking agents not readily used.

A

They have a very low safety profile

202
Q

Anti coagulants and fibrinolytics are commonly used to treat what two common emergencies.

A

Strokes and myocardial infractions

203
Q

A thrombus is a

A

Blood clot

204
Q

A deep vein thrombosis may lead to a very dangerous medical emergency.

A

Pulmonary embolus

205
Q

Hess drugs prevent platelets from sticking together.

A

Anti platelets drugs

206
Q

Is ASA a anti platelet or anti coagulant drug.

A

Anti platelet

207
Q

These drugs interfere with the coagulation cascade and try to prevent blood clots from forming

A

Anticoagulants.

208
Q

What is a DVT

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis

209
Q

Do anti coagulants break down existing clots. Y/N

A

No. They simply prevent current ones from getting larger and prevent future ones from forming.

210
Q

What is a major risk of using anticoagulants.

A

Hemorrhage

211
Q

Some common anticoagulants are (3)

A

Heparin
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Warfarin (Coumadin)

212
Q

These drugs dissolve clots that have already formed. Unlike current anticoagulants.

A

Fibrinolytics

213
Q

The goal of fibrinolytics is

A

Reset abolish blood flow through the blocked blood vessel.

214
Q

Common fibrinolytics used today have a common suffix. What is it

A

-ase

215
Q

How many proteins are integral in the clotting cascade.

A

13 proteins.

216
Q

Von Willebrand disease is a type of what major medical condition

A

Hemophilia.

217
Q

Two Main therapies used for the replacement of blood components are

A

Crystalloids and colloids.

218
Q

________ attempt to replace a specific part if the blood.

A

Colloids

219
Q

________ simply to try to replace volume when it come to blood loss therapy

A

Crystalloids

220
Q

Placid and ASA are two medications in what class.

A

Anti platelet agents.

221
Q

Drugs used to lower cholesterol levels decreasing risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease.

A

Antihyperlipidemics.

222
Q

An active ingredient in many over the counter brands of cold and allergy medicine is

A

Pseudoephedrine

223
Q

Pseudo ephedrine is classified as a

A

Decongestant.

224
Q

A chemical mediator released during a inflammatory response.

A

Histamine

225
Q

H1 histamine receptors are found where

A

Blood vessels and bronchioles

226
Q

H2 receptors are found where

A

GI tract

227
Q

Rhinitis is what

A

Runny nose

228
Q

Histamine reactions can effect many things in the body. Name some

A

Inflammation, edema, swelling

229
Q

What major effect (dangerous) does histamine responses have on the body

A

Constricts the bronchioles

230
Q

What systemic response does histamine cause

A

Anaphylaxis.

231
Q

A common antihistamine that we carry on the rescue

A

Diphenhydramine

232
Q

An antitussives are what type of drug

A

Cough suppressants.

233
Q

Some common cough suppressants (antitussives) are

A

Codeine, Robitussin MD

234
Q

Drugs that break down mucosa and make it more watery

A

Mucokinetic drugs

235
Q

One of the most widely used mucokinetic drugs is

A

Saline

236
Q

A drug commonly used on cystic fibrous patients for their mucous buildup.

A

Dornase Alfa (pulmozyme)

237
Q

These drugs decrease the adhesiveness and surface tension of respiratory secretions.

A

Expectorants.

238
Q

A Very common expectorant

A

Robitussin

239
Q

These drugs remain the primary treatment for obstructive pulmonary disease.

A

Bronchodilators

240
Q

Three very common obstructive pulmonary disease are

A

Asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema

241
Q

The drugs that provide the most assistance to respiratory emergencies are

A

Beta-selective agonists with an emphasis on the Beta 2 receptor (Lungs)

242
Q

Non selective agonists activate what receptors.

A

Alpha and Beta receptors.

243
Q

By stimulating the Alpha and Beta receptors. A non selective agonist will promote what in a person.

A

Open up the lungs Beta 2 and dry a person out by limiting secretions Alpha 1 and 2. Remember alpha receptor activation promote constriction.

244
Q

A drug that centers on the Beta 2 receptors and limit the strain on the heart are

A

Beta 2 selective drugs

245
Q

What is a very common Beta 2 selective drug that we carry for respiration emergencies

A

Albuterol.

246
Q

When stimulated by acetylcholine, bronchial smooth muscle normally does what.

A

Constricts

247
Q

Anti cholinergic bronchodilators block the action of __________ resulting in what significant events

A

Acetylcholine, smooth muscle relaxation and bronchdilation

248
Q

A very common anti cholinergic

A

Atrovent

249
Q

These derivatives act by relaxing smooth muscle. They also stimulate CNS and Cardiac muscle

A

Xanthines

250
Q

Drugs that have been developed to help stabilize the cells responsible for inflammation are called

A

Leukotriene inhibitors.

251
Q

These drugs are for people that have extreme allergies as well as reactive airway disease.

A

Leukotriene antagonists

252
Q

A common leukotriene inhibitor is

A

Montelukast (Singulair)

253
Q

What medications are commonly used to help prevent inflammation

A

Steroids

254
Q

When steroids and sympathomimetics are mixed and then inhaled they become a drug that are in a particular sub class under Bronchodilators.

A

Prophylactic asthmatic drugs

255
Q

Oxygen is at what percentage at room air

A

21%

256
Q

What should immediately be given for a person with chest pain, cardiac or pulmonary arrest, hypoxemia, any cardiopulmonary emergency, or SOB.

A

Oxygen

257
Q

Drugs that directly effect the Medullary center of the brain are

A

Analeptics

258
Q

Why are analeptics considered inferior

A

They are not as effective as mechanical ventilation

259
Q

What are some common Reflex Respiratory Stimulants. What are they used for in the field

A

Spirit of Ammonia, AKA smelling salts. Syncopal episodes

260
Q

Narcotics and Barbiturates have a common and very dangerous side effect

A

They are bot respiratory depressants.

261
Q

What are some drugs that cause Urinary problems

A

NSAID’s, contrast dye, and some antibiotics

262
Q

Common antacids (2)

A

Rolaids and alka seltzer

263
Q

Simethicone (Mylicon) is a common drug found in what class

A

Antiflatulants class

264
Q

A common digest ant drug

A

Pancreatin

265
Q

This is a involuntary action controlled by the emetic center of the Medulla

A

Vomiting

266
Q

Two very common antiemetics

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) and Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

267
Q

What is a common Emetic drug

A

Syrup of Ipecac

268
Q

What drugs are commonly though of as street drugs and promote appetite in a person. They also are helping people with cancer

A

Cannabinoids.

269
Q

Medications that are designed to protect the lining of the GI tract are called

A

Cytoprotective agents

270
Q

What are some diseases that affect the GI tract and break it down over time

A

Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative colitis

271
Q

An H2 receptor antagonist does what in the body

A

Blocks the acid buildup in the GI tract and further blocks histamine release.

272
Q

What are some common H2 antagonist medications.

A

Cimetidine (Tagament)
Ranitidine (Zantac)
Famotidine (Pepcid)

273
Q

Name some Common laxatives.

A

Milk of magnesia
Ducolax
Metamucil

274
Q

A common anti diarrheal that has been around for a long time

A

Pepto Bismal

275
Q

A condition characterized by increasing intraocular pressure is called

A

Glaucoma

276
Q

What two drugs are used for the dilation of the eye and to aid in its overall resting if it has been strained

A

Mydriatic and Cycloplegic agents

277
Q

Conjunctivitis and corneal inflammation are two examples of conditions that effect the ____.

A

Eye

278
Q

The parathyroid gland is responsible for regulation of what crucial Cation.

A

Ca++

279
Q

Cortisol, Aldosterone, Sex Hormones are all major steroid hormones manufactured in what important body part.

A

Adrenal Cortex

280
Q

What steroid hormone increase blood sugar, regulate metabolism of carbs and proteins, and suppress the inflammatory response,

A

Glucocorticoids (Cortisol)

281
Q

What steroid hormone regulate electrolyte and water balance.

A

Mineralcorticoids (Primarily Aldosterone)

282
Q

Which organ releases hormones into the bloodstream mad digestive enzymes into the GI tract

A

Pancreas.

283
Q

The two major hormones released from the pancreas are

A

Glucagon and insulin

284
Q

Which hormone increases the ability for tissue to take up glucose

A

Insulin

285
Q

Which hormone acts on the stored liver glycogen, converting it to glucose so that it can be released into the blood and used.

A

Glucagon

286
Q

Two very popular Rapid acting insulins on the market

A

Lispro (Humalog)

Aspart (Novalog)

287
Q

Two examples of long acting insulins out on the market are

A

Ultralente

Lantus

288
Q

An example of a combination insulin medication is

A

Humalin 50/50

289
Q

Humalog is a insulin that lasts how long

A

30min to 2.5 hours

290
Q

Novalog is an insulin that lasts how long

A

1 to 3 hours

291
Q

Ultralente is a insulin that will last how long.

A

10 to 20 hours

292
Q

This condition consists of recurrent episodes of acute arthritis

A

Gout

293
Q

An alkaloid substance that acts to suppress the initial immune reaction that precipitates the pain of Gout

A

Colchicine

294
Q

How long for Colchicine to be absorbed

A

2 hours

295
Q

Hematuria is what condition.

A

Blood in the urine

296
Q

This drug reduces the production of gouty substances.

A

Allopurinol

297
Q

Two main female hormones

A

Estrogen and Progesterone

298
Q

An injection based on progesterone is

A

Depo Provera

299
Q

How does Depo Provera work

A

It inhibits ovulation

300
Q

A common ovulation stimulant

A

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)

301
Q

A common drug to help increase contractions

A

Oxytosin (Pitocin)

302
Q

A common therapy given to women in preterm labor between 24 to 34 weeks of gestation.

A

Corticosteroid therapy

303
Q

Metandren is a drug for men that does what

A

Increase testosterone

304
Q

Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors are used for what and can be dangerous they can lower what

A

For erectile dysfunction and can lower BP dangerously if used with other medications

305
Q

What form of drugs do we not want to administer if the Pt has been using PDE’s.

A

Nitrates like Nitroglycerin

306
Q

These medications increase the efficiency of the immune system.

A

Immunomodulating agents

307
Q

Methamphetamine’s aid in the large release of what neurotransmitter

A

Dopamine

308
Q

Some Serious side effects of Methamphetamine’s are

A

Convulsions, cardiac disrhythmias, respiratory problems.

309
Q

Vasospasms can come about by using what illegal drug

A

Cocaine

310
Q

These drugs cause slowing of normal body functions and often induce sleep.

A

Sedatives/hypnotics

311
Q

Two most common classes sedatives/hypnotics are. What are their controlled substance schedules.

A

Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates. They are both Schedule 4 controlled substances.

312
Q

This drug is a rapid acting synthetic CNS depressant and manufactuered in clandestine labs and known as the “Date Rape” drug.

A

Gamma Hydroxybutyrate (GHB)

313
Q

These drugs are mind altering drugs that affect perception of time, reality, and the environment.

A

Hallucinogens

314
Q

Hallucinogens effect what main body system.

A

The cardiovascular system

315
Q

Some common Hallucinogens are

A

PCP and LSD

316
Q

These environmental substances are designed to kill weeds and are toxic to human beings

A

Herbicides

317
Q

Prolonged exposure to herbicides can cause a person to developer what major disease.

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

318
Q

Paraquat is a dangerous

A

Herbicide

319
Q

Rodenticides kill mice by promoting internal

A

Hemorrhaging.

320
Q

Chlorinated hydrocarbons can cause what type of effect on a human.

A

Disrupt the Na+ channel on cells which will cause involuntary muscle tremors and convulsions

321
Q

What is the most popular insecticide out on the market.

A

Organophosphate

322
Q

How do organophosphates operate.

A

They cause a build up of acetylcholine by inhibiting the acetylcholinesterase which causes muscle tremors and convulsions as well as bronchoconstrictions and excess secretions.

323
Q

Another insecticide that is a acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Just shorter in duration.

A

Carbamate

324
Q

The most common botanical insecticide is

A

Nicotine

325
Q

The alcohol found in wine beer and spirit is called

A

Ethanol

326
Q

One of the antidotes to Ethylene Glycol is

A

Ethanol

327
Q

This substance is found in paint remover, glass cleaner, depicting solutions, antifreeze, and sheelac.

A

Methanol

328
Q

Heavy Metals get their name because they are ___ time heavier then water

A

5

329
Q

Some common heavy metals are

A

Lead mercury and arsenic

330
Q

Classified as any material that may pose a risk to health is a

A

Hazardous material.

331
Q

Gases that displace oxygen are

A

Asphyxiants.

332
Q

More then ______ types of chemicals can be found in the average American home.

A

5000

333
Q

Some examples of extremely Base materials are

A

Caustic soda and ammonia

334
Q

What is a extremely strong inorganic acid that is found in many industrial settings.

A

Hydrofluoric Acid

335
Q

What type of gel can we put on a acid burn

A

Calcium Gluconate gel