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AFD Paramedic School > Chapter 11 Basic Principles of Pharmacology > Flashcards

Chapter 11 Basic Principles of Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

Who is recognized as the Father of pharmacology?

A

Claudius Galen

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2
Q

What did Claudius Galen believe was the reason for illness?

A

It was the result of a imbalance of blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile.

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3
Q

Father of medicine?

A

Hippocrates

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4
Q

A book that contains a list of medical substances with their formulas, uses, and methods of preparation?

A

Formulary

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5
Q

A book describing drugs, chemicals, and medicinal preparations in a country or specific geographical area?

A

Pharmacopeia

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6
Q

Any substance (other then food or device) intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, relief, treatment, or prevention of disease, or to affect the structure , or function of the human body or animals?

A

Drug

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7
Q

The study of drugs and their effects and actions on the host?

A

Pharmacology

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8
Q

What early drug was used to treat vomiting and nausea? (base for Antropine)

A

Belladonna

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9
Q

Spanish emperor Frederick II declared pharmacy a separate entity from medicine in what year?
It was not widely accepted as such until what century?

A

1240

16Th century

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10
Q

Medicines developed for the diagnosis and/or treatment of rare diseases or conditions?

A

Orphan drugs

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11
Q

Name some Diseases that may need orphan drugs

A 
Sickle cell anemia. 
Lou Gehrig's disease 
Cystic fibrosis. 
Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
Hemophilia. 
Muscular dystrophy. 
Tourette's syndrome.
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12
Q

Name that is the precise description of a chemical composition and molecular structure?

A

Chemical name

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13
Q

The name listed in the Pharmacopoeia

A

Official name

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14
Q

Name proposed by the first manufacturer when it was submitted for approval from the FDA. (The U.S. Adopted Names Council actually assigns it)

A

Generic name AKA non-proprietary name

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15
Q

Brand name or proprietary name given the chemical compound by the company that makes it.

A

Trade name.

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16
Q

The companies drug patent is good for how long

A

20 years

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17
Q

Can the drug original drug name ever be used by another drug company after the patent has expired.

A

No

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18
Q

Large group plant based substances that contagion nitrogen and are found in nature.

A

Alkaloids

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19
Q

Common suffix for alkaloids

A

-ine

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20
Q

A compound that yields a sugar and one or more other products when it’s parts are separated.

A

Glycoside

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21
Q

Common early glycoside that comes from the Purple Foxglove plant.

A

Digitalis

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22
Q

Plant residue used for medicinal and recreational purposes.

(Common example)

A

Gum

Opium gum

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23
Q

Extracts from flowers, leaves, stems, roots, seeds, and bark.
(Common example)

A

Oil

Wintergreen oil

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24
Q

Drugs chemically derived in a lab and have no impurities?

Common example

A

Synthetic drugs

Insulin

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25
Q

Before 1980 what very common drug came from pigs and cows.

A

Insulin

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26
Q

What main system is used for drug classification?

What year was it first published?

A

The Anatomical Therapeutic Chemical Classification System

1976

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27
Q

What are the three main areas of drug classifications?

A
  1. Body system area
  2. Mechanism of action area
  3. Class of agent area
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28
Q

The body system area is also called

A

The drug physiological classification

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29
Q

The mechanism of action area is also called

A

The therapeutic classification

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30
Q

The class of agent area is also called the

A

Chemical classification

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31
Q

A reference that has over 4000 pages of drug info indexed by generic name official name chemical name etc and is updated every year.

A

Physicians desk reference.

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32
Q

This reference provides health care professionals with information about uses for drugs included in the labeling approved by the FDA and those that are not (OFF LABEL USES).

A

American Hospital Formulary Service

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33
Q

Before what year was their no legal control of pharmaceutical substances.

A

1906

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34
Q

The first Act the standardized the name, strength, quality, quantity, and purity of the drugs in the beginning if the twentieth century. It was eventually replaced by what Law

A

The Pure Food and Drug Act

The Federal Food, Drug Act of 1938

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35
Q

What act established the word “narcotic”

A

The Harrison Narcotics Act of 1914

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36
Q

The Harrison Act of 1914 was eventually replaced by what law in 1970

A

The Controlled Substance Act of 1970

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37
Q

What Act required everyone to have a prescription for certain drugs?

A

The Durham-Humphrey Amendments of 1928

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38
Q

What Act was the FIRST legislation that dealt with drug safety specifically due to a major tragedy that killed 107 people (mainly children)

A

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938.

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39
Q

The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 does what

A

It is the legal basis by which the manufacture, importation, possession, and distribution of certain drugs are regulated by the US and sets up five schedules (classifications) of abuse potential and potential for addiction.

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40
Q

The FDA is part of what larger government agency

A

US Department of Health and Human Services

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41
Q

What agency enforces controlled substances laws and monitors the need for changing schedules of abused drugs.

A

DEA

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42
Q

The test of a substance to find out its components (amount and purity)?

A

Assay

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43
Q

What is the name if the test that takes into account the effect it has on a organism and compares it to the result with some agreed standard.

A

Bioassay

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44
Q

What reference is the official public standards-setting authority for prescription and over the counter medicines.

A

Pharmacopeia

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45
Q 
Schedule I of Controlled Substances
Accepted use in US. Y/N
Abuse potential? 
Potential for addiction?
Examples:
A

No
High
May lead to severe dependence
Heroin peyote marijuana LSD

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46
Q 
Schedule II of Controlled Substances
Accepted use in US. Y/N
Abuse potential? 
Potential for addiction?
Examples:
A 
Yes
High
May lead to severe physical  and psych dependence
Morphine codeine oxycodone methadone
pentobarbital cocaine opium
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47
Q 
Schedule III of Controlled Substances
Accepted use in US. Y/N
Abuse potential? 
Potential for addiction?
Examples:
A

Yes
Less abuse potential then I and II
Moderate to low physical or high psych dependence
Anabolic steroids hydro condone Vicodin Tylenol 3

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48
Q 
Schedule IV of Controlled Substances
Accepted use in US. Y/N
Abuse potential? 
Potential for addiction?
Examples:
A 
Yes 
Lower abuse potential compared with III
Limited physical and psych dependence
Benzodiazepines lorazepam anti depressants 
Anti psychosis phenobarbital
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49
Q 
Schedule V of Controlled Substances
Accepted use in US. Y/N
Abuse potential? 
Potential for addiction?
Examples:
A

Yes
Limited physical and psych dependence
Cough suppressants with small amounts of codeine or opioids Lomotil Phrenergan

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50
Q

Studies on tissue models are called

A

In vivo

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51
Q

Studies on animals are called

A

In vitro

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52
Q

The FDA approval process for an Investigational drug has how many phases.

A

4 official phases with a preclinical that is not counted in the beginning.

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53
Q

Which investigational phase is closely monitored by the FDA. First time on a human. 20 to 80 people.

A

Phase 1

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54
Q

Which investigational phase is closely monitored by the FDA and is usually one a couple hundred people. Preliminary data is analyzed for effectiveness on a specific disease and side effects.

A

Phase II

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55
Q

Which investigational phase has expanded controlled and uncontrolled trials. Involves hundreds to several thousand people. Info on thy drugs effectiveness and safety is analyzed. Data on its predictability is gathered. If everything is good the manufacturer officially files a New Drug Application with the FDA.

A

Phase III

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56
Q

Which investigational phase has post marketing surveillance. Drug is released for general use. Not closely regulated by the FDA.

A

Phase IV

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57
Q

The Peripheral Nervous system consists of 2 subdivisions.

A

The somatic and autonomic subdivisions.

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58
Q

The Somatic Nervous system does what

A

Controls movement of voluntary muscles

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59
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System does what

A

Regulates many involuntary functions.

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60
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System has how many divisions and name

A

Two

  1. The sympathetic (adrenergic) system
  2. The parasympathetic ( cholinergic) system.
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61
Q

Motor pathways of the somatic nervous system use how many neurons to conduct information from the CNS to the muscle innervated by the nerve.

A

1

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62
Q

Motor pathways of the ANS use how many neurons send information from the CNS to the Effector.

A

2

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63
Q

A muscle, gland, or organ on which the ANS exerts an effect.

A

Effector.

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64
Q

Anatomically. Where does the sympathetic division of the ANS originate and extend to on the spinal column.

A

T1 to L2.

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65
Q

The parasympathetic division is composed of what cranial nerves and spinal nerves that exit the sacrum.

A

Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X.

S2 to S4

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66
Q

Examples if a sympathetic response.

A

^HR BP contraction conduction cardiac output
Bronchodilation. Shunts blood to skeletal muscles
^glucose. Pupils dilation. ^Sweat

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67
Q

Example of a parasympathetic response

A

Lower HR contractility conduction and cardiac output. Decreased RR. Bronchial constriction. Pupils constrict. Increased GI secretions
Empty bladder and bowel.

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68
Q

Each nerve impulse generates an action potential and chemical charge of either a neurotransmitter or ________________.

A

Neuropeptide

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69
Q

Simply, a ganglion is nothing but a

A

Junction between the pre ganglionic and post ganglionic nerves

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70
Q

The autonomic ganglion is where which two major areas meet.

A

The CNS and peripheral nervous system

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71
Q

What is the official name of the junction (ganglia) between the two neurons.

A

Synaptic junction

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72
Q

A chemical molecule that travels to the other side of the synaptic junction is called a

A

Neurotransmitter.

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73
Q

A neurotransmitter reaches the other side of the synaptic junction and interacts with a ________ in order to cause another nerve impulse or physiological action on the target organ.

A

Receptor

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74
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation often involves a response from how many organs.

A

1

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75
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are usually _______ in length and postganglionic are usually _________ in length and this explains why 1 sympathetic stimuli are so widespread as compared to Parasympathetic stimuli.

A

Sympathetic
Pre short.
Post long.

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76
Q

Two main categories of neurotransmitters.

A

Cholinergic and adrenergic.

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77
Q

In general, the adrenergic (sympathetic) neurotransmitter is

A

Norepinephrine

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78
Q

In general, the cholinergic (parasympathetic) neurotransmitter is

A

Acetylcholine.

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79
Q

The sympathetic and parasympathetic PRE ganglion neurotransmitter is always

A

Acetylcholine

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80
Q

What are the two exceptions in the sympathetic division that has acetylcholine as the main neuro transmitter.

A

The post ganglionic neurons that act on sweat glands and the post ganglionic neurons that act on the blood vessels of the skeletal system.

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81
Q

Post ganglionic fibers in the sympathetic system that release norepinephrine are called _________ fibers. And the fibers in the parasympathetic system that release acetylcholine are called _________ fibers

A

Adrenergic

Cholinergic

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82
Q

Termination if the synaptic transmission ends when the synaptic cleft is ________ of all neurotransmitters.

A

Cleared

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83
Q

What are the two main cholinergic receptors found the parasympathetic division of the CNS

A
  1. Nicotinic

2. Muscarinic

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84
Q

Three areas that the nicotine receptors are located

A

Skeletal muscle
The cells of the Adrenal medulla
The cell bodies of all post ganglionic neurons of the para sympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS.

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85
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors located.

A

Located on the smooth muscle.

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86
Q

Acetylcholine binds to the nicotinic receptors in _________ response.

A

Excitatory response

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87
Q

Acetylcholine binds with the muscarinic receptor in what type of response.

A

Excitatory or inhibition, depending on the target tissues in which the receptors are found.

88
Q

In the parasympathetic division the DRUGS that stimulate these receptors are called

A

Parasympathomimetics

89
Q

In the parasympathetic division the DRUGS that block or inhibit these receptors are called

A

Parasympatholytics

90
Q

Drugs that stimulate the sympathetic receptors are called

A

Sympathomimetics

91
Q

Drugs that block or inhibit the sympathetic receptors are called

A

Sympatholytics

92
Q

Sympathetic receptors are categorized in 5 main types name

A 
Alpha 1
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Beta 2
Dopamine
93
Q

Where are the Alpha 1 receptors found where on the human anatomy

A

Eyes, blood vessels, bladder, and male reproductive system.

94
Q

Stimulation of Alpha 1 receptors causes what major response

A

Constriction

95
Q

Alpha 2 receptors are found in what parts of the human anatomy

A

Digestive system and on the presynaptic nerve terminals in the peripheral nervous system

96
Q

Stimulation of the Alpha 2 receptors result in what.

A

Decreased secretions, decrease peristalsis, and suppression of further norepinephrine release.

97
Q

Where are Beta 1 receptors found

A

Heart and kidneys

98
Q

Stimulation of the Beta 1 receptors results in what

A

Increased HR, contractility, irritability of the heart.

Release of Renin into the blood which results in angiotensin being released which increases vasoconstriction and BP.

99
Q

Where are Beta 2 receptors located

A

Arterioles of the heart, lungs, and skeletal muscle.

100
Q

Stimulation of the Beta 2 receptors result in what major reaction.

A

Dilation. Glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose).

101
Q

Stimulation of the Beta 3 receptor which is a little known receptor plays a major role in heart failure. What does it produce when stimulated.

A

Decreased myocardial contractility.

102
Q

Where are dopamine receptors located.

A

Renal, mesenteric (GI support structure), and visceral blood vessels.

103
Q

Stimulation of the Dopamine receptors result in what.

A

Dilation

104
Q

Norepinephrine stimulates what receptors.

A

Alpha 1, Alpha 2, and Beta 1 receptors.

105
Q

What major receptors does norepinephrine not stimulate.

A

Beta 2 or dopamine.

106
Q

Lack of serotonin in the body is said to be the cause of what psych problem.

A

Depression

107
Q

Stimulation of serotonin results in het physiological affect.

A

Diastalsis

108
Q

What major receptors does epinephrine effect.

A

All Alpha and Beta receptors.

109
Q

Endorphins are neurotransmitters that function in the transmission of signals

A

Within the nervous system.

110
Q

The two most common factors that lead to the release of endorphins.

A

Stress and pain.

111
Q

Most drugs exert their effects by binding with _________ located on the cell membrane.

A

Protein molecules (receptors)

112
Q

Hormones circulated in the body react with receptors on the ________ __________.

A

Target organ

113
Q

Receptor and molecular interaction is determined by

A

Mop antibiotic and fit

114
Q

Adrenergic and cholinergic belong to a family of receptors called.

A

G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)

115
Q

G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) are composed of proteins that wind back and forth through the cell membrane how many times.

A

7

116
Q

GPCR systems have three parts

A

The receptor site itself
G protein
An Effector

117
Q

A second messenger (AKA biochemical messenger) does what.

Example:

A

Relays signals from the receptor on the surface of the cell to the target molecules in the cells nucleus and internal fluid where the physiological action is to take place. They greatly AMPLIFY the strength of the signal received. Ca++

118
Q

When a receptor has a prolonged exposure to a substance (hormone, neurotransmitter, or drug molecule) the cell may decrease the number of receptors to exposed to the substance to reduce its sensitivity. This is called

A

Downregulation

119
Q

When a receptor is blocked by a substance long term, the cell will increase the number of receptors to improve its sensitivity. This is called

A

Up regulation.

120
Q

Drug tolerance and physical dependence are influenced by 2 things

A

Down and up regulation

121
Q

Drug action results from a physiochemical interaction between a drug and a

A

Functionally important molecule in the body

122
Q

Most drugs combine with

A

Receptor sites on a target cell or within the cell itself

123
Q

Medication ground into a powder mad mixed with a solvent usually water is called

A

Liquid drug form

124
Q

A drug swallowed and put in this form for its ease of administration is called

A

Solid drug form.

125
Q

Name some liquid drugs.

A 
Elixir drug water and alcohol
Emulsion water and oil
Extract which is boiled off 
Spirit has aromatic substances
Syrup disguise taste with sugar
Tincture extract in alcohol
126
Q

Fastest to slowest. 4 Enteral drug routes

A

Sublingual, rectal, nasogastric, oral.

127
Q

Fastest to slowest. 5 Parenteral drug routes

A 
IV, Interosseous, Inter cardiac
Tracheal, Inhalation, Intralingual, Intranasal
IM
Sub Q
Intradermal
128
Q

This effect refers to the breakdown of a drug in the liver and walls of the intestines before it reaches the systemic circulation.

A

First pass effect.

129
Q

What type of effect only effects a certain part of the body

A

Local effect

130
Q

Effects the entire body

A

Systemic effect

131
Q

An enteral drug passes through ANY portion of the

A

Digestive tract

132
Q

For sublingual drug administration, the drug is absorbed in the ________ membranes and into the blood vessels and by passes the _____ _____ circulation.

A

Mucous membranes

Hepatic portal circulation.

133
Q

For sublingual Nitroglycerin to work effectively. The PT must be For the drug to be absorbed effectively.

A

Properly hydrated

134
Q

This drug administration route bypasses the voluntary swallowing reflex and allows drugs to be directly placed in the stomach. Used for activated charcoal administration

A

Gastric

135
Q

This drug administration class bypasses the GI tract and avoids the first pass effect.

A

Parenteral

136
Q

Do not try a IV access line on a child in ________ distress.

A

Respiratory

137
Q

This drug administration route has a large surface area consisting of large vasculature it is still disordered extremely UNPREDICTABLE.

A

Endotracheal

138
Q

Endotracheal route medications. Remember the acronym.

A 
NAVEL
Naloxone
Atropine
Vasopressin
Epinephrine
Lidocaine
139
Q

If IV access is not possible where can glucagon be given

A

IM

140
Q

Estrogen patches are found where

A

Buttocks or thighs

141
Q

Nitro patches are found where

A

Upper chest

142
Q

This route for medication goes straight into the spinal cord

A

Intrathecal

143
Q

For Sub Q drug administration the drug must be _______ soluble.

A

Water

144
Q

This route of drug administration goes between the dermal layers of the skin and is used for local anesthetic and allergy testing.

A

Intradermal

145
Q

The science of preparing and dispensing drugs is called.

A

Pharmaceutics

146
Q

The process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated is called

A

Pharmacokinetics

147
Q

Four main processes of pharmacokinetics are

A

Absorption, Distribution,

Metabolism, Elimination and Excretion

148
Q

Most drug movement occurs by this mechanism and does not use energy.

A

Passive transport

149
Q

Does facilitated transport use energy/ATP.

A

No.

150
Q

When a substance has to go against the concentrating radiant in the cell this type of transport utilizes energy and is called

A

Active transport

151
Q

A great example of a active transport system is

A

The sodium/potassium pump at the cell membrane

152
Q

Alkaline medications are more readily absorbed in the

A

Small intestine

153
Q

A drug is absorbed if it is in what form

A

Liquid form

154
Q

The speed with which and how much of a drug reaches its intended site of action is called

A

Bioavailability

155
Q

For enteric absorption most drugs are absorbed in the ______ portion of the small intestine.

A

Duodenum

156
Q

Many drugs attach to protein molecules in the ______ for distribution.

A

Plasma.

157
Q

What plasma protein is the most abundant and binds to the widest range of drugs.

A

Albumin

158
Q

What proteins serve as drug reservoirs by default due to their large size.

A

Plasma proteins

159
Q

By binding to plasma proteins a drug dose can

A

Be stored in the body and released as needed

160
Q

Water solvable drugs tend to stay where in the body due to the fact that they do not pass easily through the fatty bilayers of the cells.

A

The blood and interstitial space. (the fluid that surrounds the cell)

161
Q

What barrier protects the brain and it’s internal fluids from contamination.

A

The blood brain barrier

162
Q

To pass the blood brain barrier you must be ___ soluble.

A

Fat

163
Q

What conditions can damage the blood brain barrier.

A

Hypertension MS trauma

164
Q

Water and fat soluble drugs can pass easily through this barrier when a women is pregnant.

A

The placenta barrier

165
Q

Metabolism is the chemical modification of the original drug by the body and also called

A

Biotransformation

166
Q

Which organ is the chief organ of metabolism.

A

Liver

167
Q

A drug that is transformed into a more active drug during metabolism it is called

A

Prodrug

168
Q

Most FDA approved drugs are transformed into harmless form called a

A

metabolite

169
Q

Which organ is the site often used for excretion (elimination).

A

Kidneys

170
Q

Most drug metabolites not bound to plasma proteins are excreted in the

A

Urine

171
Q

The liver excretes drug metabolites into _____ and then is released into the small intestine

A

Bile

172
Q

THe process where drug metabolites are excreted in bile, reabsorbed, returned to the liver, metabolized once more and excreted though the urine is called

A

Enterohepatic cycling.

173
Q

The intensity or strength of the attraction between a drug and it’s receptor is called

A

Affinity

174
Q

The ability for a drug to produce a physiologic response is after attaching to a receptor is a called

A

Efficacy

175
Q

A drug that causes a physiological response to the receptor to which it binds is called

A

Agonist

176
Q

A drug that only gets a small physiological effect when binding to a receptor is called a

A

Partial agonist

177
Q

A partial agonist is said to have affinity and some

A

Efficacy

178
Q

A drug that binds to a receptor and blocks or causes an opposite response in the receptor is called an

A

Agonist

179
Q

A mechanism by which a drug is processed by enzymes is called

A

Acetylation

180
Q

Drugs that do not need receptors or enzymes for a desired effect are called. Examples are antacids and skin ointments

A

Non specific drug interaction

181
Q

The dose required to produce beneficial effect in 50% of the drug tested population is called

A

Therapeutic dose. (Effective dose) ED

182
Q

The dose that kills 50# of the tested population is called

A

The median lethal dose. LD50

183
Q

The dose that 50# of the population show signs of toxicity is called

A

The toxic dose. Or TD50

184
Q

The description of a drug activity based on its dosage is called

A

Plasma level profile

185
Q

The therapeutic effect of a drug dose closely is seen when a _______ _________ is reached

A

Steady state

186
Q

When the amount of drug ingested matches up with the amount of drug being excreted it is called

A

Steady state

187
Q

The time necessary for the concentration of the drug in the blood to be reduced by 50%is called the

A

Half life

188
Q

The drug concentration level required to elicit a physiological therapeutic response in most patients is called

A

Therapeutic threshold (minimum effective concentration)

189
Q

This index pertains to the drugs margin of safety

A

Therapeutic index. TI =LD50/ED50

190
Q

Thy drugs therapeutic range is determined by what equation. .

A

TR=TD50-MEC (minimum effective concentration)

191
Q

A wider therapeutic range means what

A

It is safer

192
Q

The closer the therapeutic index gets to 1 means what

A

It is more dangerous it is

193
Q

IV drugs given to a person who is suffering from hypothermia are usually administered how

A

Given at longer intervals due to the slow metabolic rate the person may have due to the cold

194
Q

Atropine decreases the bodies ability to

A

Sweat

195
Q

What are some major environmental hazards a person taking tricyclics antidepressants can suffer

A

Severe sunburn and extreme sensitivity to ultraviolet rays for the sun

196
Q

The study of inherited differences (variation) in drug metabolism and response is called

A

Pharmacogenetics

197
Q

If a person lacks aldehyde dehydrogenase what can’t they ingest.

A

Ethanol

198
Q

Some antibiotics must be given three times a day in order to maintain their __________ ________ and maintain optimal results

A

Therapeutic concentration

199
Q

Drug-food interactions can usually be avoided if the person takes the drug ___hour before or ___ hours after eating.

A

1 hour before or 2 hours after they eat

200
Q

An unintentional, undesirable, and often unpredictable effect of a drug used at therapeutic doses to prevent, diagnose, or treat disease is called

A

Adverse reaction

201
Q

The ability of one drug to limit the physiological function of another is called

A

Interference

202
Q

A drug or agent that is harmful to the development of an embryo is called a

A

Teratogen

203
Q

Although the pregnancy risk category is useful caution should be used with drugs that fall under those categories for which only animal data are available which ones

A

Categories B and C

204
Q

An infants liver does not really mature to its full capacity to metabolize drugs until ___ years old.

A

1

205
Q

The kidneys of a newborn do not become functionally mature until the child is approximately how old.

A

30 month

206
Q

When a geriatric is taking multiple drugs it is referred to as

A

Polypharmacy

207
Q

Lasix is also called

A

Furosemide

208
Q

The drug with the higher affinity for any receptor has a ________ absorption rate.

A

Higher

209
Q

________ is where major alterations can occur in the therapeutic effects of medications.

A

Metabolism

210
Q

Most drug-drug interactions involve which kind of drugs.

A

Over the counter

211
Q

This drug is one of the more common drugs that patients often have that is outdated or expired.

A

Nitroglycerin

212
Q

What pregnancy risk level. No evidence or risk exists for the pregnancy.

A

Level A

213
Q

What pregnancy risk level. The risk of human fetal harm is possible but remote

A

Level B

214
Q

What pregnancy risk level. Human fetal risk cannot be ruled out.

A

Level C

215
Q

What pregnancy risk level. Positive evidence of human fetal risk exists.

A

Level D

216
Q

What pregnancy risk level. Contraindicated during pregnancy.

A

Level X

AFD Paramedic School (4 decks)

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