Chapter 12 Flashcards

1
Q

What fracture involves the ring of atlas (C1)? Type?

A

Jefferson Fracture
Comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a comminuted fracture

A

complete fracture
fragments of bone remain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a complete non-comminuted fracture

A

fracture line
bone separated into 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an avulsion fracture

A

fragment of bone pulled away by tendon or ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an incomplete fracture

A

little or no displacement
most commonly in forearm or tib/fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of incomplete fractures (name)

A

Greenstick
Torus (buckle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name a type of avulsion fracture

A

John Fracture
Clay Shoveler’s Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What fracture involves the arch of C2

A

Hangman’s Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name of fracture affecting spinous process of lower cervical region

A

clay shoveler’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What surrounds the nucleus pulposus

A

annulus fibrosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The central mass of the intervertebral disk:
a. annulus fibrosus
b. nucleus pulposus

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Herniated disc or slip disc is known as

A

herniated nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cause of herniated nucleus pulposus and location

A

cause: compression of disc and twisting
location: lumbar or cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

bony defect in the pars interarticularis
a. spondlylolysis
b. spondylolisthesis

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anterior displacement of one vertebra over another
a. spondlylolysis
b. spondylolisthesis

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If there is a bony defect in the pars interarticularis bilaterally it is a:
a. spondlylolysis
b. spondylolisthesis

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

spondylolisthesis occurs where?

A

typically L5
exclusively in lumbar

17
Q

Pars interarticularis is the ______ of the scotty dog

A

neck

18
Q

What is a pathologic fracture

A

area on bone has weakness due to process of a tumor, infection, or metabolic disease

19
Q

Opposite cortex is intact and bone is bent
a. comminuted
b. greenstick
c. avulsion
d. stress

A

b

20
Q

Repeated pressure onto bone
a. comminuted
b. greenstick
c. avulsion
d. stress

A

d

21
Q

Cause of stress fracture

A

mismatch bone strength and mechanical stress

22
Q

transverse fracture through distal radius with dorsal angulation
a. colles fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

A

a

23
Q

transverse fracture of carpal bones
a. colles fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

A

b

24
Q

transverse fracture of 5th metacarpal neck
a. boxers fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

A

A

25
Q

fracture of ulna shaft and anterior dislocation of medial radius
a. colles fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

A

C

26
Q

fracture of radius shaft and distal dislocation of ulna
a. colles fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

A

D

27
Q

Cause of nursemaid’s elbow

A

dislocation of radial head by pulling on arm

28
Q

Fracture that goes through metaphysis or epiphysis extending through physis (name AKA)

A

salter-harris fracture
growth plate fracture

29
Q

Salter-harris type 1

A

completely through epiphysis

30
Q

Salter-harris type 2

A

75% through epiphysis and rest is through metaphysis

31
Q

Salter-harris type 5

A

complete through epiphysis with compression

32
Q

24hr in house coverage by general surgeons and prompt availability of care in specialties
a. Trauma 1 Center
b. Trauma 2 Center
c. Trauma 3 Center
d. Trauma 4 Center

A

a

33
Q

can handle majority of trauma cases but does not have cardiology, hemodialysis, or microvascular surgeons on hand
a. Trauma 1 Center
b. Trauma 2 Center
c. Trauma 3 Center
d. Trauma 4 Center

A

B

34
Q

provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, stabilization, and emergency operations
a. Trauma 1 Center
b. Trauma 2 Center
c. Trauma 3 Center
d. Trauma 4 Center

A

c

35
Q

provides advanced trauma life support and basic emergency department facilities
a. Trauma 1 Center
b. Trauma 2 Center
c. Trauma 3 Center
d. Trauma 4 Center

A

d

36
Q

CT is good for _____ in trauma scenarios

A

acute cerebral hemorrhage and fractures of facial or skull bones

37
Q

Scotty dog leg

A

inferior articular process

38
Q

Scotty dog ear

A

superior articular process

39
Q

Scotty dog eye

A

pedicle

40
Q

Scotty dog body

A

lamina

41
Q

Scotty dog nose

A

transverse process