Chapter 1 The cell as unit of health and disease Flashcards

1
Q

how many base pairs are in the human DNA?

A

3.2 billion

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2
Q

how many protein coding genes are there?

A

20,000 making up 1.5% of the genome

this is an underestimate since multiple isoforms of genes exist.

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3
Q

how much of the human DNA is transcribed

A

85% with 80% being responsible for regulating the gene expression.
98.5% of the genome does not code proteins.

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4
Q

the non-protein coding region is responsible for?

A
  • promoter/enhancer (binds transcription factors)
  • Binding sites of proteins that maintain chromatin structures.
  • Noncoding regulatory RNAs (micro-RNA and long noncoding RNA (never translated into proteins).
  • mobile genetic elements (transposons) “jumping genes”
  • Structural regions of DNA (telemores and centromeres)
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5
Q

what area is affected with polymorphisms?

A

the genetic variations of the non-protein coding regions of the genome. The area responsible for gene regulation.

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6
Q

how much of the DNA is identical between people?

A

more then 99.5% of human DNA is identical between 2 people.

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7
Q

2 common types of DNA variations in the human genome

A
  • Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP)

- Copy number variations (CNVs)

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8
Q

feature of the single nucleotide polymorphisms?

A
  • almost always biallelic (only 2 choices exist at a given site within the population (A or T).
  • occur in exons and introns
  • 1% occur in coding regions inline with the 1.5% coding regions of human DNA
  • can occur in regulatory elements of the genome
  • SNP can be neutral with no effect, but can serve as markers for disease-associated gene due to their proximity.
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9
Q

feature of the CNV (copy number variations)?

A

-responsible for upto thousands of base pair variations in the human genome and 50% of them are involved in gene-coding sequences.

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10
Q

define Epigenetics?

A

heritable changes in gene expression that are not caused by alterations DNA.

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11
Q

Gene expression is affected by?

A
  • Chromatin Remodeling (147bp around a histone)
  • DNA methylation; causes DNA condensation (silencing)
  • Histone modifying factors…
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12
Q

What is chromatin?

A
  • histones wrapped around with 147bp of DNA to form beads-on-a-string appearance of DNA. the have 2 forms;
    1: HETEROchromatin: transcriptionally inactive
    2: EUCHchromatin: trancriptionally active
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13
Q

what are Histone modifying factors?

A
  • chromatin remodeling complexes: can reposition nucleosomes on DNA, thus exposing or silencing.
  • Chromatin writer complexes: they mark histones via; methylation, acetylation, phosphorylation on specific AA.
  • Chromatin erasers: removing of histone marks.
  • Chromatin readers: bind histones with a particular marks, regulating gene expression.
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14
Q

what do different mark from chromatin writers do?
methylation
acetlyaltion
phosphorylation.

A
  • methylation; on lysine and arginines causing either transcriptional activation or repression depending on which histone is marked.
  • acetylation: (histone acetyltransferases) causes chromatin to open up.
  • HDAC (histone deacetylases) reverse this process causing chromatin condensation.
  • histone phosphorylation can cause opening or closing up of chromatin.
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15
Q

noncoding RNA types?

A

Micro-RNAs (miRNAs) 22 nucleotides in length.

Long non-coding RNA

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16
Q

micro RNA functions

silencing mRNA: takes advantage of this pathway for knockdown technology.

A

6000 miRNA genes, which can regulate multiple protein coding genes.
1st transcribed as pri-miRNA then cleaved into pre-miRNA which is then exported from the nucleus to be cleaved by DICER to miRNA.
The resulting single stranded miRNA associates RISC (RNA induced silencing complex) that either blocks ribosomes or cleaves the target mRNA leading to SILENCING.

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17
Q

Long non-coding mRNA function

A

about 30,000 of them in the human genome.
-they can bind to areas on the chromatin to repress the access to ribonucleoproteins.
-XIST is an X-chromosome linked gene that is responsible for X-chromosome repression.
many enhances are sites of lncRNA synthesis.

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18
Q

what is CRISPRs and Cas

A
"clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats"
Cas = CRISPR-associated genes
this system in used by the acquired immunity of prokaryotes. 
Bacteria sample DNA of infecting agents, incorporating it into the host genome as CRISPRs. which is then transcribed and processed into an RNA sequence that binds and directs the nuclease Cas9 to a sequence (a phage) leading to its cleavage and the destruction of the phage. 
guide DNA (gDNA) is used to guide Cas9 to cleave double stranded DNA
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19
Q

proteins destined for the plasma membrane or for secretion go through what organelles?

A

the RER where they are synthesized

the Golgi where they are assembled

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20
Q

Proteins destined for the cytosol are synthesized where?

A

Free ribosomes

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21
Q

what does the smooth endoplasmic reticulum do?

A

its abundant in the in gonads and liver where it serves as the site of steroid hormone and lipoprotein synthesis as well as the modification of hydrophobic compounds such as drugs into water-soluble molecules.

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22
Q

organelles responsible for disposing of the cells own proteins?

A
  • Proteasomes: “disposal” complexes cleave up tagged proteins in the cytosol, and are needed to end cellular processes and to present peptides to the major histocompatibility complex 1 for immunity.
  • lysosomes; damage and unwanted phagocytosed microbes and damaged or unwanted cellular organelles are degraded and eliminated.
  • Peroxisomes: contain catalase, peroxidase and other oxidative enzymes to breakdown of very long chain fatty acids making H2O2.
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23
Q

what is cell polarity?

A

the internal organization of the cell organelles depending on what they are exposed to? since the basolateral and apical sides of a cell are exposed to different things

24
Q

what is the life-span of a mitochondria?

A

10days

25
Q

cell membrane, phospholipid function and location?

  • phosphatidylinositol
  • phosphatidylserine
  • Glycolipids
A
  • phosphatidylinositol: inner membrane; can be cleaved by PLC or phosphorylated to allow scaffolding for proteins
  • phosphatidylserine: inner membrane; negative charge for electrostatic interaction with proteins. can flip to the extracellular side during apoptosis (eat me signal) and coagulation activation.
  • Glycolipids and sphingomyelin: extracellular face bound to sugar linkages are important in cell-cell and cell-matrix interaction (inflammatory cell recruitment).
26
Q

difference between a Channel protein, and a carrier protein?

A
  • Channel protein: create hydrophilic pores that when open, permit rapid movement of solutes
  • Carrier protein: bind their specific solute and undergo a series of conformational changes to transfer the ligand across the membrane, their transport is relatively slow.
27
Q

How are vitamins taken up by cells?

A

via invaginations in the plasma membrane called caveolae (larger molecules via receptor-mediated transport), taken up by Clathrin proteins.
the caveolae is also responsible for membrane signaling by internalizing receptors.

28
Q

the process of receptor mediated endocytosis?

A

coated pit is formed which then uncoats to form an early endosome with low pH. the late endosome then fuses with the lysosome.

29
Q

what are the 3 major classes if cytoskeletal proteins?

A
  • actin microfilaments
  • intermediate filaments
  • microtubules
30
Q

properties of actin microfilaments?

5-9nm

A

formed from the globular protein actin (G-actin). which non-covalently polymerize into long filaments (F-actin) which then form a souble-stranded helices.
in muscle cells myosin binds to it
in non-muscle cells F-actin assembles via an assortment of actin-binding proteins to move components around in a cell.

31
Q

properties of intermediate filaments?

10nm

A

responsible for the tensile strength and structure of cells. important for nuclear lamins.

32
Q

microtublues properties?

25nm

A

made of noncovalently polymerized dimers of alpha and beta tubulin arrayed in constantly elongating or shrinking hollow tubes with a defined polarity the ends are desginated + or -.
negative end being in the centromere.
positive end is constantly elongated or shrinking.

33
Q

name 4 functions of microtubules?

A
  • molecular motor (dynein and kinesin)
  • mechanical support for sister chromatid seperation
  • core of primary cilia
  • core of motile cilia or flagella (sperm)
34
Q

3 basic types of cell junctions?

A
  • occluding junctions (tight junction) maintain cell polarity.
  • anchoring junctions (desmosomes) connect cell cytoskeleton to the one next to it. A single desmosome (spot desmosome) can be attached to cell proteins responsible for mechanical sensing.
  • communicating junctions (gap junction) ions can pass through. (connexins).
35
Q

cellular waste disposal is done by?

A
  • lysosomes

- proteasomes

36
Q

the function of lysosomes?

A

membrane organelles containing roughly 40 different acid hydrolases, which are made in the RER and tagged with mannose-5-phosphate in the golgi to be transported to lysosomes.

  • degrade internalized material
  • old senescent organelles and large protein complexes
  • phagocytosis of microoganisms (phagosome engulfed material)
37
Q

the function of proteasomes?

A

tunover proteins and misfolded or denatured proteins.
proteins are tagged by ubiquitin for degradation.
proteasomes are hollow organs that are fed with ubiquinated proteins.
has role in the MHC1 immune response.

38
Q

name some types of cell signals

A
  • pathogens and damage to neighboring cells
  • cell-cell contacts (gap junction)
  • Cell-ECM contacts
  • secreted molecules
39
Q

types of signaling?

A
  • paracrine
  • autocrine
  • synaptic
  • endocrine
40
Q

what kindof receptor does Insulin bind to?

A

Thyrosine kinase

41
Q

interstitial matrix vs basement membrane?

A

basement membrane is a more organized version of the seemingly random array of interstitial matrix in connective tissues under epithelial cells, and is made by the overlying epithelial cells. (type 4 collage is present).

42
Q

3 components of the ECM?

A
  • Fibrous structural proteins such as collagens and elastic that confer tensile strength and recoil
  • Water-hydrated gel such as proteoglycans and hyalaluronan that permit compressive resistance and lubrication.
  • Adhesive glycoproteins that connect ECM elements to one another and to cells.
43
Q

Collagen description?

A

3 separate polypeptide chains braided into a ropelike tripe helix.

44
Q

Basis of the symptoms of vitamin C deficiency?

A

hydroxylation of the lysyl residues in collagen by the enzyme lysyl oxidase causes crosslinking of the triple helices by covalent bonds resulting in great tensile strength.
This enzyme is vitamin C dependent, thus deficiency causes weak collagen, and poor wound healing.

45
Q

Elastin properties?

A

consist of a central core of elastin with an associated meshlike network composed of fibrillin.

46
Q

morphology of proteoglycans and hyaluronan?

A

long polysaccharides called glycosamingolycans attached to a core protein.
core protein attached to a long hyaluronic acid polymer.
like a test tube brush.
the highly negatively charged densely packed sulfated sugars attract cations (Na+) and abundant water molecules, producing a viscous, gelatin-like matrix.
they can also function as a reservoirs for secreted growth factors.

47
Q

types of adhesive glycoproteins and adhesion receptors?

A
  • Fibronectin: synthesized by a variety of cells, including fibroblasts. They form a mesh scaffolding during wound healing.
  • Laminin: found in the basement membrane to connect cells to underlying ECM components such as type IV collagen and heparan sulfate.
  • Integrins: made of alpha and beta subunits that allow cells to attach to ECM constituents such as laminin linking intracellular cytoskeleton with the outside world.
48
Q

what are integrins responsible for?

A
  • platelet aggregation

- on the surface of leukocytes mediate adhesion to and transmigration across the endothelium.

49
Q

cell cycle sequence?

A
G1 = presynthetic growth
S = DNA synthesis
G2 = premitotic growth
M = Mitotic

G0 = quiescent phase

50
Q

how is cell cycle regulated?

A

via proteins called cyclins associating with cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs).
CDKs acquire the ability to phosphorylate when they are complexes with the relevant cyclins.

51
Q

checkpoints of DNA replication?

A

G1 - S checkpoint: monitors the integrity of DNA before irreversibly committing cellular resources to DNA replication.
G2 - M checkpoint: ensures that accurate DNA replication has occurred.

52
Q

how are checkpoints of DNA replication enforced?

A

via CDK inhibitors (CDKi).

designated as: P21, P27, P57.

53
Q

Warburg effect?

A

during cell division there is an increase in glucose and glutamine uptake and an increase in glycolysis but a DECREASE in oxidative phosphorylation. This ensure the cell can grow and replicate its organelles.

54
Q

Cyclin D associated with which CDK?

A

CDK4 and CDK6

55
Q

Cyclin A associated with which CDK?

A

CDK2 and CDK1

56
Q

Cyclin B associated with which CDK?

A

CDK1

57
Q

Cyclin E associated with which CDK?

A

CDK2