Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy 1002 > Chapter 1 - Language, Homeostatis And Structrual Organization > Flashcards

Chapter 1 - Language, Homeostatis And Structrual Organization Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomical position

A

Standing erect, face forward, upper limbs at the side, feet together, palms facing anteriorly with thumbs away from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Frontal plane

A

Also called coronal, divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Transverse plane

A

Also called horizontal, divides the body into superior and inferior parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sagittal plane

A

Splits the body into right and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Oblique plane

A

When a cut is made along an axis other than a right angle cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anterior

A

At or near the front of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Posterior

A

At or near the back of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Midline

A

An imaginary vertical line that divides the body equally (right down the middle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lateral

A

Father from the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medial

A

Nearer the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Superior

A

Towards the head / upper part of a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inferior

A

Away from the head / lower part of a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Superficial

A

Close to the surface of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Deep

A

Away from the surface of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Body cavities

A

Any fluid-filled space, space where the organs develop, most cavities provide room for the organs to adjust and contains protective membranes and sometimes bones that protect the organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the body cavities?

A

Cranial, vertebral, thoracic (containing the pericardial and pleural cavity), abdominal and pelvic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is in the cranial cavity

A

Space occupied by the brain, enclosed by the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is in the spinal cavity

A

Space occupied by the spinal cord enclosed by the vertebral column making up the backbone. Spinal cavity is continuous with the cranial cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is in the thoracic cavity

A

Space occupied by the ventral internal organs superior to the diaphragm, including lungs, trachea, and the heart, surrounded by the ribs and the chest wall muscles

Contains the pleural cavity (lateral) - holds the lungs and,
Mediastinum (medial) - pericardial cavity that holds the heart, esophagus and trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is in the abdominopelvic cavity

A

The abdominal cavity and will of the digestive organs and the pelvic cavity with the bladder and reproductive organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is in the abdominal cavity

A

Ventral internal organs inferior to the diaphragm and superior to the pelvic girdle, cavity surrounded by the abdominal wall and the pelvic girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is found in the dorsal body cavity

A

Cranial and vertebral cavities, contains and protects the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is found in the ventral body cavity

A

Thoracic cavity, abdominopelvic cavity, abdominal cavity, pelvic cavity and peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is found in the pelvic cavity

A

Inferior portion (compared to abdominal cavity), found in the bony pelvis, contains the reproductive organs and bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Serous cavities

A

Small space between two serous membranes (a thin double layered membrane), serous fluid is found within this small space. The part of the membrane that is lining the cavity walls is known as the parietal serosa and it folds over onto itself to make the visceral serosa which covers the organs in the cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 different serous cavities

A

Pericardial cavity, pleural cavity and peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pericardial cavity

A

The space between the two layers of the pericardium that surrounds the heart. The pericardium is a double walled sac that holds the heart and the roots to the great vessels - holds the heart in place and provides a barrier to infection. The space is filled with pericardial fluid. Made up of outer fibrous pericardium and the inner serous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What makes up the inner serous pericardium

A

Parietal pericardium is attached to the fibrous (outer) pericardium and the visceral pericardium / epicardium is on the surface of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the pleural cavity

A

The pleural cavity is a fluid-filled space that surrounds the lungs. It is found in the thorax, separating the lungs from its surrounding structures. The pleural cavity is bounded by a double layered serous membrane called pleura. The pleura is formed by an inner visceral pleura and an outer parietal layer. Between these layers is the pleural cavity that contains serous fluid which helps to lubricate the cavity and allows the lungs to move freely during breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the peritoneal cavity

A

It is the largest serous membrane in the body (surface area about the same as the skin). It is made up of two continuous layers including the parietal peritoneum that has contact with and loosely attaches to the abdominal wall and the visceral peritoneum which covers the viscera (the abdominal organs of digestion - stomach, intestines, etc..). Serous fluid fills the peritoneal cavity between these two layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ascites

A

A condition in which fluid collects in spaces within your abdomen. If severe, ascites may be painful. It can set the stage for an infection in your abdomen and the fluid may also move into your chest and surround your lungs. Most common cause of ascites is cirrhosis of the liver or different types of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 9 regions of the abdomen? (Right to left, top to bottom)

A

Right hypochondriac region, epigastric region, left hypochondria region, right lumbar region, umbilical region, left lumbar region, right iliac (inguinal) region, hypogastric region and left iliac (inguinal) region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is found in the right hypochondriac region

A

Liver, gall bladder, the right kidney and parts of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is found in the epigastric region

A

Liver, part of the stomach, duodenum and pancreas, part of the spleen and adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is found in the left hypochondriac region

A

Contains part of the spleen, the left kidney, part of the stomach, the pancreas and parts of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is found in the right lumbar region

A

Gall bladder, right kidney, part of the liver and ascending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is found in the left lumbar region

A

The descending colon, left kidney and part of the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is found in the umbilical region

A

The umbilicus, many parts of the intestines (duodenum, jejunum and the ileum), contains transverse colon and bottom portions of the left and right kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is found in the right iliac region

A

Contains the appendix, the cecum and the right iliac fossa (pain here often associated with appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is found in the left iliac region

A

Descending colon, sigmoid colon and the left iliac fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is found in the hypogastric region

A

Contains the organs around the pubic bone - the bladder, part of the sigmoid colon, the anus and many organs of the reproductive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Chemical level of organization

A

The simplest level of hierarchy, building blocks of all matter (atoms), combine to form molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tissue level of organization

A

Tissue is made up of groups of cells that carry out a similar function. The four basic types are - epithelium, muscle, connective tissue and nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Organ level of organization

A

Made up of at least 2 types of tissue to serve a function within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

3 major parts of the human cell

A

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Plasma membrane

A

Made up of primarily proteins in a phospholipid bilateral - made of polar hydrophilic (heads) and non-polar hydrophobic (tails) built from fatty acid chains. Hydrophilic heads are attached to water (found on outside extracellular and inside intracellular fluid, faces outside and inside surfaces of the membrane). Hydrophobic tails avoid water and are found in between the two layers of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ability of the plasma membrane

A

The priorities of the heads and tails of the plasma membrane means it will easily assemble together to form a spherical structure and when torn it will reveal themselves. The membrane is a fluid structure which is always in flux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Proteins found within the cell membrane

A

Integral proteins - found within the bilateral, used mostly for transport
Peripheral proteins - loosely attached to integral proteins, mostly enzymes or support for the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Glycoprotein

A

Protein with carbohydrate attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Glycolipid

A

Lipid with carbohydrate attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Functions of the cell membrane

A

Transport - hydrophilic channels allow water to pass (couldn’t with hydrophobic tails), active pumps to move substance across membranes
Signal transduction - the movement of a “message” from outside of the cell to the inside, allowing the cell to perform the correct response
Provides attachment for other cells or extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Passive transport

A

Molecules moving with a concentration gradient, no energy required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Diffusion

A

Molecules move from high concentration to low concentration to achieve equilibrium. To move through membrane “it” has to be - lipid soluble, small enough to pass through channels or be assisted by a carrier protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Speed of diffusion

A

Dependent on the kinetic energy of the molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Simple diffusion

A

Unassisted, for small, hydrophobic, non-polar, lipid soluble molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Osmosis

A

The spontaneous diffusion of water or other solvent through a semi-permeable membrane down its concentration gradient, moves to dilute the more concentrated solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Solute

A

Something that is found dissolved in the solvent (ex. Salt (NA) in water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

The movement of certain molecules using a passive transport method to pass through the bilateral, done using proteins which act as carriers in the membrane (carrier-facilitated diffusion) or using water-filled protein channels (channel-mediated facilitated diffusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Osmolarity

A

The number of particles (ions) per litre of solution, only concerned with the number of particles, not size or composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Isotonic solution

A

Same osmolarity as body fluids, no movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hypotonic solution

A

Hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of solutes than the cell, due to osmotic pressure, water will then diffuse into the cell to even out and the cell will appear turgid (or bloated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hypertonic solution

A

The solution contains more dissolved particles than the cell, therefore water will leave the cell to dilute the fluid around it, this causes the cell to look shrivelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Active transport

A

Requires energy to move molecules against their concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Sodium-Potassium pump

A

Sodium in cytoplasm of cell binds to the Na/K pump, this binding causes the breakdown of ATP into ADP and Pi, this phosphorylation process causes the receptor to change shape and release sodium out of the cell.
Potassium then binds from the extracellular fluid and causes the release of the phosphate group which causes the original shape of the receptor to be returned and potassium is released into the cytoplasm (the intracellular space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Homeostasis

A

Maintaining internal conditions despite changes in the environment - balancing act, requiring endocrine and nervous system to maintain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Homeostatic regulation

A

Adjustments in physiological systems that preserve homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Negative feedback loop

A

3 main components - receptor, control centre and effector

  • stimulus produces change in variable which is detected by the receptor
  • this information is sent along afferent pathway to control centre
  • control centre puts out information along efferent pathway to effector
  • response of effector feeds back to reduce the effect of the stimulus and returns variable to homeostatic level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Positive feedback loop

A

The initial stimulus produces a response in the body to enhance the original condition of the stimulus thus increasing it
- body wants to keep adding to the situation which caused the stimulus in the first place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Example of positive feedback loop

A

Oxytocin is released by stimulation of stretch receptors during labour and this intensifies the contractions to become more powerful and frequent and these contractions produce more oxytocin to continue cycle when delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Example of negative feedback loop

A

Reduction in body temperature below homeostatic level results in hypothalamus sending message to shiver and this muscle contractions release heat to raise temperature, once reach, initial stimulus shuts off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Beginning process of metabolic process, simple terms

A

Carbohydrates, fats and proteins consumed, broken down into absorbable forms - amino acids, glycerol and fatty acids and glucose (or other sugars), these are then transported through the blood to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Anabolism

A

Incorporation into molecules - using building blocks to form larger molecules (ex. Amino acids into proteins and glycerol and fatty acids into triglycerides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Catabolism

A

Breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones (component parts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

With oxygen, 3 stages - glycolysis, Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) and oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Anaerobic respiration

A

Sufficient oxygen not prescient, energy from glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Steps of glycolysis

A
  • Glucose (6 carbons) converted into glucose 6 phosphate by hexokinase, ATP to ADP
  • glucose 6-phosphate rearranged into fructose 6 phosphate by phosphoglucose isomerase
  • fructose 6-phosphate converted into fructose 1-6 biphosphate by phosphofructose kinase, ATP into ADP
  • fructose 1-6 biphosphate broken down into DHAP (dihydroxyacetone phosphate) and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
  • DHAP converted into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (now 2)
  • both glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate each go through following steps
  • G3P converted into 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate, NAD —> NADH + H
  • 1,3 biphosphoglycerate converted into 3-phosphoglycerate, ADP —> ATP
  • 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate
  • 2-phosphoglycerate into PEP, water released
  • PEP into pyruvate, ADP into ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Glycolysis products

A

2 ATP (net), 4 total, 2 NADH and 2 pyruvate molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Advantages of aerobic metabolism

A

With oxygen is much better at producing energy (ATP) and produces less harmful byproducts (CO2)
- 30-32 ATP produced in the best conditions, compared to anaerobic which produces 2 ATP per cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Disadvantage of anaerobic respiration

A

Lactic acid and more CO2 produced, harmful byproducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate ..

A

Gets rerouted into fermentation to get lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

With sufficient oxygen, pyruvate …

A

Pyruvate moves into the inner mitochondrial membrane, then moves into Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle and then ultimately oxidative phosphorylation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Krebs cycle

A
  • pyruvate oxidized into acetyl-coA (NAD—> NADH)
  • acetyl-coA into citrate into isocitrate
  • isocitrate converted into alpha-ketoglutarate (NAD—> NADH, CO2 released)
  • alpha-ketoglutarate into succinyl coA (NAD—> NADH, CO2 released)
  • succinyl coA into succinate (GDP—>GTP, ADP—>ATP)
  • succinate into fumarate (FAD—>FADH2)
  • fumarate into malate (water added)
  • malate into oxaloacetate (NAD—>NADH)
  • oxaloacetate oxidized into acetyl-coA to begin cycle again
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Products of kreb’s cycle

A

Per pyruvic acid = 2 CO2, 4 reduced enzymes (3 NADH, 1 FADH2) and 1 ATP

2 pyruvic acids from 1 glucose (x2 for total glycolysis to kreb’s cycle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation

A
  • Reduced co-enzymes (FADH2 and NADH) deliver electrons picked up during the last few phases to complexes I and II
  • electrons transferred from one complex to another down the membrane
  • each complex is reduced and then oxidized releasing energy that is used to pump H+ into the inter membrane space which creates an electrochemical gradient between the matrix and the inter membrane space
  • coenzyme Q (ubiquinone) and cytochrome C are mobile carriers that shuttle between the larger complexes
  • at complex IV, electron pairs combine with two protons to form water
  • at complex V, called ATP synthase, energy from the proton gradient allows the synthesis of ADP into ATP
  • produces about 24-28 ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lactic acid cycle - presence of oxygen

A

Lactate gets oxidized back to pyruvate and sent to the aerobic pathway.
Lactate is taken over to the liver and is converted back to sugar via gluconeogenesis known as the lactic acid cycle or the cori cycle
- if this new glucose is not currently needed it can be stored as glycogen (using glycogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Lactate in the absence of oxygen

A

Lactate will continue to build up, when lactic acid is produced it immediately dissociates into lactate and hydrogen ion (proton) which increases the acidity of the cell (drops pH) and contributes to fatigue of the muscle and reduced firing strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Gluconeogenesis in the liver (simple terms)

A

Lactate converted back to pyruvate and 6 ATP are needed to reform glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Glycogenesis

A

Glucose molecules are combined into long chains of glycogen to then be stored for later use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Excess glucose

A

Majority of it will be stored as fat (about 80-85% of energy storage is in the form of fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

Glycogen broken down, glycogen converted into glucose 1-phosphate and then glucose 6-phosphate

  • glucose 6-phosphate is trapped in the cell because it cannot cross the membrane
  • hepatocytes (and some kidney and intestinal cells) contain glucose 6-phosphate (G6P) to produce free glucose (now can leave the cell and enter the blood stream)
  • large glycogen storage in liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Glucagon

A

Given when there are low blood sugar levels (made naturally by the alpha cells of the pancreas), it stimulates the conversion of stored glycogen in the liver to glucose when then can be released into the bloodstream
- stimulates glycogenolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Lipolysis

A
  • triglycerides broken down into fatty acids and glycerol
  • fatty acids are oxidized into acetyl-coA by beta oxidation
  • acetyl-coA then used in Kreb’s cycle
  • glycerol directly enters the glycolysis pathway as DHAP

(Because one triglyceride can yield 3 fatty acid molecules with as much as 16 or more carbons in each one, fat molecules yield way more energy than carbohydrates, yield more than twice the amount of energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ketogenesis

A
  • occurs when we lack carbohydrates, begins to use fats as energy source
  • oxaloacetate or another intermediate molecule of the kreb’s cycle depletes and therefor acetyl-coA cannot enter the cycle anymore, it begins to build up
  • the liver converts acetyl-coA into ketone bodies by ketogenesis
  • this leads to ketosis are release of ketone bodies in urine
  • most ketone bodies are organic acids —> metabolic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Examples of ketone bodies

A

Acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

4 types of tissue

A
  • epithelial
  • connective
  • muscle
  • nervous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Two types of epithelial tissue

A

covering / lining epithelium - outer layers of the skin, open cavities of the cardiovascular, digestive and respiratory system and encloses ventral body cavity

glandular epithelium - covers the glands (both exocrine an endocrine) of our body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

6 main functions of epithelial tissue

A

protection, secretion, absorption, excretion, filtration, diffusion and sensory reception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Epithelial structure

A

apical surface and basal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Apical surface

A

upper surface that is exposed to the exterior world or the cavity of an internal organ, may contain microvilli (acts to increase surface area and the efficiency of absorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Basal surface

A

surface for attachment, includes basal lamina and reticular lamina, the bottom edge of the cell or tissue adjacent to the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Basal lamina

A

filters what is allowed to diffuse up from the connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Basement membrane

A

A thin, pliable sheet-like type of extracellular matrix that provides the cell and tissue support and acts as a platform for complex signalling, sits between epithelial tissues including the mesothelium, endothelium and underlying connective tissue

Basal and reticular lamina form the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Reticular lamina

A

fibers that reach up from the connective tissue found underneath, this network of collagen fibers “belongs” to the underlying connective tissue providing an anchoring, basal and reticular lamina AKA the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Types of epithelia

A

Simple epithelia or stratified epithelia

  • squamous epithelia
  • cuboidal
  • columnar epithelia
  • stratified squamous epithelium
  • translational epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

simple squamous epithelia

A
  • very thin and permeable
  • flat single layer with disc-shaped central
  • used to absorption, secretion and filtration
  • found in the alveoli of the lungs and in the pericardial, pleural and peritoneal cavities

Two types:

  • endothelium - slick and friction reducing lining (capillaries)
  • mesothelium - found in serous membranes on the lining of ventral body cavities and covering organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

simple cuboidal epithelium

A
  • single layer of cube like shaped cells
  • large spherical central nuclei
  • used primarily for secretion and absorption
  • found on the surface of the ovaries, lining of nephrons and walls of the renal tubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

simple columnar epithelia

A
  • single layer of tall cells with round to oval shaped nuclei
  • might also contain goblet cells
  • these epithelia are used for absorption and secretion (some even have cilia on their free surface - cilia moves water relative to the cell in a regular movement of the cilia)
  • found in the small intestine where it absorbs nutrients from the lumen of the intestine and found in the stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

2 modifications of simple columnar epithelia

A
  • dense microvilli on the apical surface of absorptive cells
  • tubular glands made of cells that secrete mucous containing intestinal juice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A
  • single layer of cells that have different heights (therefore some do not reach the surface)
  • nuclei can be seen at many different levels
  • might have mucous-secreting cells
  • found along the respiratory airways (ciliated type), non-ciliated found in male sperm carrying ducts of reproduction and in large glands
  • mainly involved in absorption and secretion of mucous, use of ciliary action to move mucous, so in the respiratory track it can secret a layer of mucous to trap dust and then the cilia move this sheet of dust trapping mucous up and away from the lungs
110
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium

A
  • the apical surface are made up of squamous and the deep layers are made from cuboidal or columnar
  • provides protection against mechanical stress, chemical abrasions and even radiation
  • found in the esophagus, mouth and vagina
  • found in areas of wear and tear - external part of the skin and extends a short distance into every body opening that is directly continuous with the skin
111
Q

Epithelial properties

A
  1. polarity - composed of layers
  2. supported by connective tissues - sits on connective tissue layer collagen protein fibers reach up and the basement membrane / basil layer helps resist stretching and tearing
  3. avascular but innervated - supplied by capillaries of connective tissue, no blood vessels - nourishment comes from substances that diffuse from blood vessels in underlying connective tissue (innervated by nerve fibers)
  4. high regenerative capacity - when apical basal polarity are destroyed, epithelial cells begin to reproduce rapidly by cell division, this requires adequate nutrition
112
Q

simple epithelia

A

made up of a single cell layer, this type of epithelia is often used where we need to absorb something, for secretion or to filter something, so the thin epithelial barrier is very desirable

113
Q

stratified epithelia

A

this is epithelia that is made up of two or more layers of cells which are stacked on top of each other, found in areas that are more likely to be damaged like high abrasion areas such as the lining of the mouth, as this provides more protectiong

114
Q

translational epithelium

A
  • allows for organs to stretch as they kill - think the urinary organs
  • made of stratified layers translational epithelium cells
  • it is made up of both stratified squamous and stratified cuboidal
  • apical layer depends based on the amount of stretch can be squamous like or dome shaped
  • basal layer made of columnar of cuboidal epithelium
  • found in renal system - mainly the uterus, bladder and part of the urethra
  • lines a space / cavity or inside an organ and can undergo a change in their shape or structure
115
Q

Glandular epithelial

A
  • glands are classified by 2 sets of traits - where they release their product (endocrine meaning internally secreting or exocrine meaning externally secreting) and the relative cell number - unicellular or multicellular
  • made of stratified layers transitional epithelium cells
  • a glad is cells that release a product known as a secretion
  • endocrine or exocrine
116
Q

Endocrine glands

A
  • ductless
  • secret by exocytosis directly into extracellular space
  • hormone produces
117
Q

Exocrine glands

A
  • secrets products onto the bodies surface or into body cavities
  • ducted (multicellular) or ductless (exocytosis done by unicellular glands)
  • produce things like mucous, sweat, oil, saliva, bile and digestive enzymes to name a few
118
Q

Unicellular exocrine glands

A
  • the important unicellular exocrine glands are mucous cells and goblet cells
  • found within the epithelial lining of the respiratory and intestinal tracts
  • all types of glands produce mucin (which once it becomes dissolved in water forms mucous - a slimy coating, used to protect and lubricate surfaces
  • mucous cells - aid in stress / stretch or acidic environments
  • goblet cells - aid in immunity
119
Q

Multicellular exocrine glands

A
  • made up fo two basic parts - epithelium derived duct and secretory unit made up of secretory cells
  • the secretory unit is surrounded by connective tissue which supplies it with blood vessels and nerve fibres, this forms a fibrous capsule which enters the gland and divides it into lobes
120
Q

Multicellular exocrine glands - classified by …

A

Structure - simple or compounds glands

  • simple glands have an unbranched duct
  • compound glands have a branched duct

Compound glands - further categorized by their secretory units

  • tubular - secretory cells from tubes
  • alveolar - secretory cells from small sacs
  • tubuloalveolar - if they have both tubular and alveolar units
121
Q

Multicellular exocrine glands

A

Secretion:

  • merocrine glands - secret their products via exocytosis as it is produced (most common)
  • holocrine glands - accumulate their products inside of them until they rupture
  • apocrine glands - debated if they are in humans or not, they work like holocrine glands, but the apex of the cell pinches off to releasing secretory granules and a little bit of cytoplasm, unlike holocrine the cell does not die but repairs this damage and continues the cycle
122
Q

Connective tissue

A
  • most abundant tissue in the body
  • made up of 4 different classifications - connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone and blood
  • arise from embryonic origin - mesenchyme
  • varying degrees of vascularity - cartilage is avascular, dense connective tissue is poorly vascularized and other types are rich in blood supply
  • composed of an extracellular matrix mainly non-living, this give it its strength and resilience to trauma
123
Q

2 main elements of connective tissue …

A

1 - ground substance

2 - fibres

124
Q

Connective tissue - ground substance

A
  • fills the space between cells and contains fibres allowing it to be flexible
  • ground substance is filled with interstitial fluid and other proteins
  • as the ground substance contains a large amount of fluid, it acts like a medium for nutrients and other dissolved substances to disuse through between the cell and the blood capillaries
125
Q

Connective tissue - fibres types

A

Collagen - tough and provide tensile strength (these are the strongest and most common), made primarily of collagen in a cross lined fibrils which are bundled together into collagen fibres
Elastic - contains elastin that allows them to stretch and recoil, mainly in skin, lungs and blood vessel walls
Reticular - surround small blood vessels and support soft tissue of organs to allow more “give”, it is made up of a net or network of short fine collagenous fibre (differing slightly in chemical and structural form)

126
Q

Connective tissue cells

A
  • each major class has its own cell type (primarily blast cells)
  • fibroblasts = connective tissue proper
  • chondroblasts = cartilage
  • osteoblasts = bone
  • hematopoietic stem cells = blood
  • also contains fat cells, immune cells like macrophages, lymphocytes, mast cells and blood vessels, nerves
127
Q

Connective tissue - fibroblasts

A

Fibroblasts can often be seen adhering to newly formed fibres

128
Q

Connective tissue- macrophages or histiocytes

A

Play a role in phagocytosis and thereafter enter the lymphatic system to aid in activation of immune responses

129
Q

Connective tissue - leukocytes

A

These blood borne defensive cells leave the vascular system during inflammatory events to patrol adjoining tissue spaces

130
Q

Connective tissue - plasma cells

A

Highly efficient producers of antibodies

131
Q

Connective tissue - mast cells

A

This is the key cell involved in inflammation, mast cells release histamine and heparin, these chemical agents induce the vascular response that cause inflammation

132
Q

Connective tissue - adipocytes

A

Are the cells involved in the metabolism and storage of fats or triglycerides

133
Q

Connective tissue - mesenchymal cells

A

These are the embryonic stem cells that divide to form new cells of all connective tissue types

134
Q

“Blast” suffix

A

Means to be forming and they are the cells that make the ground substance and fibres

135
Q

“Cyte” suffix

A

Once the blasts mature, the become less active forms with the suffix “cyte” which help to maintain the health of the matrix
- cytes can revise back to blasts to help with repairs, etc..

136
Q

Connective tissue proper - loose connective tissue types

A

Areolar connective tissue
Adipose connective tissue
Reticular connective tissue

137
Q

Areolar connective tissue

A
  • this is the support network connective tissue that binds to other tissue (provides support for blood vessels and nerves)
  • functions - stores nutrient in fat, provides a defence against infection, holds fluid as seen with edema)
  • also forms much of the mesentery supporting organs within the abdominal cavity
  • as a supportive material for blood vessels and nerves, areolar connective tissue is found in the nooks and crannies of most tissues where blood vessels and nerves penetrate
138
Q

Edema causes

A

Due to the areolar tissue becoming inflamed, acting as a sponge and soaking up excess fluids

139
Q

Adipose connective tissue

A
  • large amount of capillary beds
  • much higher nutrient storing capacity vs areolar tissue - this is due to the fact that adipocytes (fat cells) make up about 90% of its mass)
  • when we look at adipose tissue under a microscope, we can see the large fat droplet (almost pure triglyceride) taking up almost the whole cell pushing the nucleus off to one side
  • can be found in subcutaneous space
  • main functions include insulation, nutrient storage and shock absorber
140
Q

Reticular connective tissue

A
  • form of connective tissue that is used to provide a matrix like soft internal skeleton known as stroma which is used to support free blood cells in lymph nodes, bone marrow and the spleen
  • like areolar but has lots of reticular fibres - these form a delicate network in which reticular cells are found
141
Q

Connective tissue proper - dense connective tissue types

A

Dense regular connective tissue, dense irregular connective tissue and elastic connective tissue

142
Q

Dense regular connective tissue

A
  • closely packed bundles of collagen fibres running on the same direction and parallel to direction of pull
  • great for use in areas where you need good resistance to tension in one direction
  • the slightly wavy appearance of the fibres allow for a little bit of stretch in the tissue but one these fibres are pulled straight there is no more stretch
  • it is very poorly vascularized and has very few other cells then its fibroblasts (which are between the collagen fibres and continuously produce the fibres)
  • forms tendons, fascia around muscles and blood vessels
143
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue

A
  • same structural element as regular, but fibres run in more than one plane (irregularly) and the collagen fibres are much thicker
  • forms the dermis, joint capsules coverings around some organs
  • areas where tension is applied from more than one direction
144
Q

Elastic connective tissue

A

Dense regular connective tissue with high proportion of elastic fibres

  • allows recoil of tissues following stretch
  • found in walls of arteries, bronchial tubes, vertebral ligaments
145
Q

Cartilage

A
  • flexible connective tissue that keeps joint motion fluid by coating the surfaces of the bones in our joints and by cushioning bones against impact
  • good at withstanding tension and compression
  • avascular - it gets nutrients from blood vessels found in the connective tissue membranes surrounding it via diffusion
  • no nerve fibres
146
Q

Types of cartilage found in the body

A

Hyaline, elastic and fibrocartilage

147
Q

Cartilaginous tissue

A
  • embedded within the cartilage matrix are chondrocytes, or cartilage cells, and the space they occupy are called lacunae (singular = lacuna)
  • cartilaginous tissue is avascular, meaning that all nutrients need to diffuse through the matrix to reach the chondrocytes
  • this is a factor contributing to the very slow healing of cartilaginous tissues
148
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A
  • the most common cartilage in our body
  • provides a pliable but firm support and covers (articular cartilage) long bone ends, nose, ribs, respiratory passages and epiphyseal plates
  • has smooth surface
  • makes up a template of the embryonic skeleton before bone formation
  • strong and flexible, it is found in the rib cage and nose and covers bones where they meet to form moveable joints
149
Q

Epiphyseal plates

A

A plate of hyaline cartilage at the ends of bone allows continued growth until adulthood

150
Q

Fibrocartilage

A
  • it is “in between” of hyaline cartilage and dense regular connective tissue
  • tough because it has thick bundles of collagen fibres dispersed through its matrix
  • the knee, jaw joints and intervertebral discs are examples of fibrocartilage
  • compression and resists tension
  • supports heavy pressure
151
Q

Elastic cartilage

A
  • nearly identical to hyaline but more elastic fibres
  • this tissue gives rigid support as well as elasticity
  • will go back to its original shape
  • example - ear, epiglottis
152
Q

Bones

A
  • hardest connective tissue
  • formed by a rigid extracellular matrix of collagen fibres that have a mineralized substance with a type of calcium phosphate
153
Q

What would happen to bone without collagen?

A

Without collagen, bones would be brittle and shatter easily

154
Q

What would happen to bone without mineral crystals

A

Bones would flex and provide little support

155
Q

Blood - connective tissue

A
  • type of atypical connective tissue which has no fibres but is a fluid tissue
  • erythrocytes (aka red blood cells) - transports
  • leukocytes (aka white blood cells) - immune system defence cells protect against micro-organisms or molecules
  • some leukocytes are able to move across the endothelial layer of the blood vessels to enter other tissue
  • platelets involved in clotting
  • soluble protein molecules that form the “fibres” during clot formation
  • rest is a mix of nutrients, salt, waste all dissolved in liquid matrix
156
Q

Classifications of muscle

A

Skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle

157
Q

Characterizations used for muscle

A

Characterized by properties that allow movement

  • excitable and respond to stimulus
  • contractile - can shorten and generate a pulling force
  • voluntary - under conscious control
  • involuntary - are not under conscious control
158
Q

Skeletal muscle

A
  • voluntary control
  • muscles are made up of skeletal muscle cells pack together with connective tissue
  • skeletal muscles generate heat as a by-product of their contraction and thus participate in thermal homeostasis - shivering is an involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles in response to perceived lower than normal body temperature
159
Q

Skeletal muscles under the microscope

A

Long and cylindrical
Multi-nuclei
Striated because of myofilaments

160
Q

Cardiac muscle

A
  • found only in the walls of the heart
  • involuntary control - ability to contract with their own intrinsic rhythms (no need for any stimulus)
  • cardiomyoctes attach to each other using special cell junctions called intercalated discs
  • long branching fibres allow for electrochemical and mechanical sync so the cells can synchronize their actions
161
Q

Cardiac muscle cells under the microscope

A
  • striated with generally one nucleus
  • intercalated discs - anchoring sites (fascia adherens and desmosomes) and gap junctions - gap junctions allow action potentials to travel between cells by allowing ions to move between cells
162
Q

Smooth muscle

A
  • found in walls of hollow organs other than the heart
  • used to squeeze substances through these organs (intestines - peristalsis)
  • under involuntary control
163
Q

Smooth muscle under the microscope

A
  • no visible striations - known as smooth
  • spindle shaped with one central nucleus
  • together they form a sheet
164
Q

Nervous tissue

A
  • main components of the nervous system - brain, spinal cord, nerves
  • neutrons are branching cells that are made of cell body, axon and dendrite
  • respond to stimuli and transmit electrical impulses
165
Q

Two main types of cells that make up of nervous tissue

A

1 - neurons - send information via electrochemical impulses called action potentials
2 - supporting cells (such as neuroglia or glial cells) - essential to supporting neurons and modulating propagation

166
Q

Neuroglia

A

Play as essential role in supporting neurons and modulating their information propagation

167
Q

Glia

A

Also called glial cells or neuroglia, they are non-neuronal cells in the CNS and the PNS, they maintain homeostasis, produce myelin and provide support and protection

168
Q

Regeneration - tissue repair step 2

A

3 steps to tissue repair - inflammation, organization and regeneration
Organization - begins during inflammatory phase, about 3-4 days after injury, granulation tissue replaced blood clot, capillaries are contained in the granulation tissue, fibroblasts in granulation tissue product collagen fibres that bridge the gap of the wound, surface epithelial begin to multiply and migrate over granulation tissue

169
Q

Regeneration - tissue repair phase 1

A

Inflammatory phase - begins at the time of the injury and lasts up to 4 days, includes clotting of platelets to stop blood loss, mast cells are released, release of vasodilator histamines to increase blood flow to the area

170
Q

Regeneration - tissue repair stage 3

A

Regeneration phase - epithelial surface regenerates under scab, thickens, this phase can continue for 6 months to one year after injury, collagen continues to increase and the tissue begins to contract with the help of fibroblasts, both of which add strength to the new tissue, excessive collagen can cause soar tissue formation

171
Q

Four signs of inflammation

A

Redness, swelling, pain and local heat

172
Q

Debris is removed slowly during tissue repair by …

A

The lymphatic system

173
Q

Tissue regeneration capacity

A

Extremely well - epithelial, bone, areolar connective tissue, dense irregular connective tissue, blood forming tissue
Moderate capacity - smooth muscle, dense regular connective tissue
Weak capacity - skeletal muscle, cartilage
No capacity - cardiac muscle, nervous tissue in the brain (replaced by scar tissue which lacks flexibility and is more compact)

174
Q

Three layers of the integumentary system

A

1 - epidermis
2 - dermis
3 - hypodermis

175
Q

Epidermis

A
  • the most superficial layer of your skin
  • made of epithelial cells
  • has no vascularization
176
Q

Dermis

A
  • mostly fibrous connective tissue

- has vascularization within this layer

177
Q

Hypodermis

A
  • technically not part of the skin
  • deep to the dermis (holds subcutaneous tissue)
  • this layer shares the skins protective functions however, it is functionally not part of the skin
  • hypodermis also known as the superficial fascia - made up of mostly adipose tissue and stores fat and is an anchor for the skin to the underlying structures
178
Q

Keratinocytes

A
  • main job is to produce keratin - a fibrous protein that helps give the epidermis protective properties
  • comes from the stratum basale - undergoing mitosis and are pushed up
  • the layer of keratinocytes are held together tightly by desmosomes
  • as they move up by new cell production under them they product keratin
  • at the surface of the skin they are dead, keratin filled plasma membranes
179
Q

Melanocytes

A
  • synthesizes pigment melanin
  • melanin accumulates in membrane bound granules known as melanosomes
  • the granules of melanin accumulate on the superficial side of the keratinocyte nucleus to make a pigment shield to protect from UV
  • melanosomes are then moved to keratinocytes
180
Q

Dendritic cells

A
  • ingest foreign substances

- key activator of our immune system

181
Q

Tactile (markel) cells

A
  • found at the epidermal-dermal junction and are associated with disc-like sensory nerve endings
  • tactile cells with the sensory nerve ends function as sensory receptors for touch
182
Q

The epidermis layers

A

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum and stratum corneum

183
Q

Epidermis - stratum basale

A
  • deepest layer, attaching to the dermis
  • made up of the youngest of the keratinocytes
  • basal cell divide here (stratum germinativum) - when the basal cell divides in the stratum basale one cell will go up to become the mature keratinocyte and the other will remain to produce more keratinocytes
  • melanocytes (reach into more stratum spinosum and occasionally tactile cells are found here)
184
Q

Epidermis - stratus spinosum

A
  • contains a weblike system of bundles of pre-keratin intermediate filaments to resist tension
  • these filaments attach to desmosomes and look like spiked balls
  • melanin granules and dendritic cells are most abundant in this layer
185
Q

Epidermis - stratum granulosum

A
  • keratinization occurs at this layer - process in which the cytoplasm of the epidermis is replaced by keratin
  • cells flatten and nuclei and organelles begin to disappear and disintegrate
  • accumulate 2 granules (keratohyaline grandules - which helps to form keratin in the upper layer and lamellar granules - helps to slow water loss in the epidermis as it contains water resistant glycolipid)
  • the cell’s plasma membranes also thicken due to proteins binding inside layer of their membrane and the lipids that were released by the lamellar granules coat the outside surface - this leads to waterproofing and more physical toughness)
  • layer of death
186
Q

Epidermis - stratum lucidum

A
  • visible only in thick skin
  • made up of 2-3 rows of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes
  • found here or in the Stratum Corneum the sticky substance of the Keratohyaline granules clings to the keratin filaments in the cells, this causes them to form large cable like parallel arrays of intermediate filaments (tonofilaments)
187
Q

Epidermis - stratum corneum

A
  • makes up the majority of the epidermal thickness
  • this layer protects against abrasions and damage to the skin (via keratin and thickened plasma membranes)
  • the glycolipids between cells waterproofs this layer
  • cells at this layer are dead
  • made of flattened anucleated (no nucleus) cells
  • during a specialized form of apoptosis, the nucleus and other organelles break down, but the plasma membrane thickens
  • made up of a protective coat of keratin and the thick plasma membranes of the cells
188
Q

Thick epidermis

A
  • used in areas that are likely to experience abrasion (palms, fingertips and soles of the feet)
  • made of 5 layers of strata - stratum: basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  • stratum corneum particularly dense in these locations
189
Q

Thin epidermis

A
  • found most everywhere else on the body
  • all layers are thinner than thick skin
  • missing the stratum lucidum
190
Q

The dermis contains

A
  • two layers - papillary and reticular layers
  • contain fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, white blood cells and lots of vascular / lymphatic and nerve supplies
  • made from strong and flexible connective tissue
  • hair follicles, oil and sweat glands come from this layer (pushing up and through the epidermis)
191
Q

The papillary layer

A
  • superficial to the reticular layer
  • made of loose areolar connective tissue - collagen and elastic fibres forming a loose mesh, woven with many fine blood vessels, its looseness allows phagocytes and other defensive cells to move freely on “patrol”
  • has projections into the stratum basale of the epidermis known as dermal papillae
  • in thick skin - dermal papillae are on top of dermal ridges, which collectively form friction ridges (finger prints)
  • some have capillary loops, others have free nerve endings (for pain) and touch receptors
192
Q

The reticular layer

A
  • deep to the papillary layer
  • thick vs the thin papillary layer
  • made of dense irregular fibrous connective tissue, collagen and elastin fibres, which make up a tight mesh work of fibres
  • well vascularized with sensory and sympathetic nerve supply
  • this layer makes up about 80% of the thickness of the dermis
193
Q

What determines the pigmentation of the skin?

A

Melanin (made in your skin), carotene and hemoglobin

194
Q

What gives us a suntan?

A

Melanin, prolonged sun exposure causes melanin buildup which helps protect DNA of skin cells from UV radiation

195
Q

Where does fair skin’s pinkish hue come from?

A

Oxygenated pigment

196
Q

Why does it take time for a tan to appear from sun exposure?

A

Take 10 days after initial sun exposure for melanin production to peak

197
Q

Melanin in light coloured skin…

A

Small amounts of melanin in light coloured skin, so epidermis is nearly transparent and allows hemoglobin’s colour to show through

198
Q

Why do sun tans fade after time?

A
  • melanosomes are temporary structures - which are eventually destroyed by fusion with lysosomes
  • the melanin filled keratinocytes (found in the stratum corneum) slough off over time)
199
Q

What makes different skin tones if we have the same number of melanocytes (cells)?

A

It’s the kind of melanin made and the amount of melanin made / retained

200
Q

Melanin

A
  • made up of amino acids
  • ranges in colour from reddish yellow to brownish black
  • melanin pigment is int he deeper layer of the epidermis
  • the melanosomes (that hold the pigment) are broken down by lysosomes higher up so that why’s the pigment is found in the deeper layers
  • the darker the skin the darker the colour and more melanosomes you have vs fair skinned individuals - keratinocytes are retained longer with darker skin
201
Q

Skin appendages

A

Nails, hair, sebaceous gland, sweat glands

202
Q

What are nails made from?

A

Made out of hard keratin vs the soft keratin of the epidermis

203
Q

Each nail has ..

A
  • a free edge
  • an nail palate / body
  • proximal root
204
Q

Nails

A
  • the nail bed is made of the deeper layers of the epidermis and the actual nail is the superficial keratinized layers
  • nail growth occurs at the nail matrix, the thick proximal portion of the nail bed
  • the hyponychium (informally known as the quick) found at the distal free edge secures the nail’s free edge to the fingers
205
Q

What can the nail tell us?

A

Concave nail - iron deficiency
Horizontal lines - malnutrition
Clubbing of the nail - lung cancer, COPD, interstitial lung disease, GI disorders, some autoimmune disease
Yellow colour to the nail - respiratory or thyroid disorder
White / yellow thick nails - fungal infection

206
Q

Hair

A
  • made by the hair follicles out of mostly dead keratinized cells
  • hair’s main function is - sense insect, etc.. on the skin, on the scalp - guards head from trauma, heat loss and sunlight, eyelashes shield the eyes, nose hairs filter large particles
207
Q

Hair structured elements

A

Shaft - projects from the skin, this is the part where keratinization has already completed
Root - remained deep in follicle and the location where keratinization is still occurring
Vascular supply
Sebaceous gland - lubricates and keeps hair from dying
Arrest or pili muscle - causes the hair to stand erect

208
Q

Sebaceous gland

A
  • branched alveolar glands
  • function is to secrete sebum (oily substance)
  • most are found as outgrowths around hair follicles, found everyone on the body except thick skin on the soles of the feet and the palms of the hands
  • larger on the face, neck and upper chest
  • purpose is to serve as lubrication for hair and skin so it does not become brittle and slows water loss from skin when air humidity is low, sebum also kills bacteria
209
Q

Sweat (sudoriferous) glands

A
  • up to 3 million per person
  • found everyone on the body except the nipples and parts of the external genitalia
  • function is to control body temperature
  • sweat is a hypotonic filtrate of the blood made of 99% water and some salts as well as antibodies, dermicidin and vitamin C and some traces of metabolic waste
210
Q

Sweat and drugs

A

Some drugs that are taken can be found in small amounts within the sweat because of this, therefore, when a person is suspected of being a mule for cocaine officers will often swab the inside of their shoes and test that for traces of cocaine with could have leached out of the balloons they have swallowed

211
Q

Sweat pH

A

Normally acidic with a pH of 4-6

212
Q

Two types of sudoriferous glands

A

Eccrine (also known as mesocrine sweat glands)

  • simple coiled tubular gland
  • produces sweat - expels from a funnel-shaped pore
  • found most everywhere on the body

Apocrine

  • found in the auxiliary and genital regions
  • produces the same components that make up sweat as well as fatty substances and proteins
  • ducts empty into hair follicles
  • the viscous milky substances (made up of fats and proteins) does not smell until bacteria found on the skin gain access to it, they do not begin to function until around the time of puberty
  • activated by the SNS, function is still not exactly known, there is a theory they might be the human equivalent of sexual scent glands due to the fact the SNS activates them and they enlarge and shrink during different different phases of the female menstrual cycle
213
Q

What are the skin’s main functions?

A
  • cutaneous sensation (tactile and pain receptors)
  • metabolic functions (such as when the sun hits the skin and converts modified cholesterol into a vitamin D precursor)
  • blood reservoir (can hold about 5% of the bodies blood volume)
  • excretion (sweat contains a lot of nitrogen waste, water and sodium chloride)
  • protection
  • temperature regulation
214
Q

Skin - protection functions

A

The skin protects as a barrier from the outside world …
Chemicals - using skin secretions (the acid mantle which maintains a low pH), defensins (antibiotic) and melanin
Physical - a physical barrier to stop things from getting into our body however some substances can penetrate the skin
- lipid soluble substances (oxygen, CO2, vitamins A, D, E, K and steroids)
- oleoresins - plant poisons
- organic solvents - acetone, paint thinners, dry cleaning chemicals
- salts of heavy metals (such as lead and mercury)
- select drugs
Biological - has an immune system function to protect us from foreign bodies (dendritic cells trigger parts of the immune system response, dermal macrophages “antigen presenters”)

215
Q

Skin - temperature regulation

A
  • average amount of sweat loss = 500 mL
  • when external environment is cool, blood vessels in skin constrict which causes warm blood to bypass skin and skin temperature drops to external environment)
  • this allows passive heat loss to slow and conserve
  • hair stands up to keep heat trapped into skin when cool
216
Q

Aging skin

A
  • rate of epidermal cell regeneration / replacement slows, and the skin begins to thin
  • lubricating substances begin to become deficient thus the skin becomes dry and itchy
  • less collagen fibres are found in the skin and those that are in the skin become stiffer
  • melanocytes reduce in number
217
Q

Aging skin and UV rays

A
  • increased risk of cancer
  • by avoiding UVA (aging rays) - activates an enzyme matrix metalloproteinases which degrades collagen and other dermal components) and UVB (burning rays) helps reduce wrinkles
  • the UV rays that we like to call a tan also cause sagging blotchy wrinkled skin with liver spots due to UVA activating that enzyme matrix metalloproteinases which degrades collagen and other dermal components
218
Q

What are some things we might see when the skin is trying to tell us something?

A
  • cyanosis
  • redness, flushing, erythema
  • pallow
  • jaundice
219
Q

Hypoxia indicated by the skin

A
  • bluish colouring of the skin that indicates hypoxemia
  • unoxygenated hemoglobin in the capillaries generates the dark blue colour appreciated clinically as cyanosis
  • with darker skin colours, the melanin masks the changes in skin colour, but cyanosis will still appear in mucous membranes or nail beds
220
Q

Hypoxia vs hypoxemia

A

Hypoxia is to low of O2 to sustain normal life functions
Hypoxemia is low O2 in arterial blood
- these are often used interchangeably

221
Q

Erythema

A
  • redness or flushing of the skin or mucous membranes due to hyperaemia (increased blood flow with dilated capillaries)
  • early signs of alcohol abuse is a persistently red face due to enlarged blood vessels (regulation of vascular control in the brain fails with sustained alcohol intake) - referred to as telangiectasia
  • can be due to embarrassment, fever, hypertension (the condition itself or side effect of medication), inflammation, allergy
222
Q

Pallor of the skin

A
  • paleness of blanching of the skin
  • caused by - poor perfusion, hypovolemia, anemia, hypoglycaemia, frost bite), not related to melanin but blood flow
  • may be hard to see in people with darker skin - have to look at mucous membranes (eyelids and lips)
  • hypoglycaemia- andrengeric cutaneous vasoconstriction
223
Q

Jaundice

A
  • result of bilirubin build up in the blood and tissue - this is a waste produce created when red blood cells break down, builds up particularly in connective tissues and elastin
  • this buildup leads to the appearance of jaundice and is caused by any condition that disrupts the flow of bilirubin from the blood to the liver and than out of the body
  • damage to the liver - hepatitis, alcoholism and cancer
  • interference with the flow of bile - cancer, gallstones, blocking bile duct
  • destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis) - toxins
224
Q

Burns

A
  • burns are tissue damage that results from heat, overexposure to the sun or other radiation or chemical or electrical contact
  • burns can be minor medical problems or life-threatening emergencies
  • treatment of burns depends on the location and severity of the damage
225
Q

Burn depth

A
  • traditional classification of burns is first, second, third or fourth degree
  • current designations of burn depth are superficial, superficial partial thickness, deep partial thickness and full thickness
  • fourth degree is still used to describe the most severe burns, burns that extend into the muscle, bone and / or joints
226
Q

First degree / superficial burn

A
  • involves only the outer layer of the skin, the epidermis
  • the burn site is red, painful, dry but has no blisters (ex. Mild sunburn, long term tissue damage is rare)
  • heals in about six days without scarring
227
Q

Process of first degree / superficial sunburn healing..

A

Day 1 - redness, hot to touch and painful
Day 2-3 - the pain and erythema subsides
Day 4-6 - the injured epithelium peels away from the newly healed epidermis

228
Q

Second degree / superficial partial thickness burns

A
  • involves the epidermis and part of the lower layer of the skin, the dermis
  • the burn sites looks red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful (forms blisters within 24 hours between the epidermis and the dermis)
  • initially appears to be only epidermal may be determined to be partial thickness 12-24 hours later
  • heals in 7-21 days, scarring is unusual, pigment changes may occur
  • a layer of fibrinous exudates and necrotic debris may accumulate on the surface, which may predispose the burn wound to heavy bacterial colonization and delayed healing
  • these burns typically heal without functional impairment or hypertrophic scarring
229
Q

Second degree / deep partial thickness burns

A
  • extends into the deeper dermis and are characteristically different from superficial partial thickness burns
  • deep burns damage hair follicles and glandular tissue
  • painful to pressure only, almost always blister (easily unroofed), are wet or waxy dry and have variable mottled colourization from patchy cheese white to red
  • they do not blanch with pressure
  • if infection is prevented and wounds are allowed to heal spontaneously without grafting, they will heal in 3-9 weeks
  • these burns invariable cause hypertrophic scarring
230
Q

Third degree / full thickness burn

A
  • extends through and destroys all layers of the dermis and often injure the underlying subcutaneous tissue
  • burn eschar, the dead and denatured dermis, is usually intact, es-CAR is dead tissue that sheds or falls from the skin
  • the eschar can compromise the variability of a limb or torso if circumferential
  • skin appearance can vary from waxy white to leathery gray to charred and black
  • the skin is dry and inelastic and does not blanch with pressure
  • hairs can easily be pulled from hair follicles, vesicles and blisters do not develop
  • the eschar eventually separates from the underlying tissue and reveals an unheralded bed of granulation tissue
231
Q

Fourth degree burn

A
  • deep and potentially life threading injuries that extend through the skin into the underlying tissues such as fascia, muscle and / or bone
  • there is no feeling in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed
232
Q

Cellulitis

A
  • a common, potentially serious bacterial skin infection
  • the affected skin appears swollen and red and is typically painful and warm to the touch
  • cellulitis usually affects the skin on the lower legs, but it can occur in the face, arms and other areas, it occurs when a crack or break in your skin allows bacteria to enter
  • left untreated, the infection can spread to your lymph nodes and bloodstream and rapidly become life threatening, it’s usually spread from person to person
233
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A

Flesh-eating bacteria is a rare infection of the skin and tissues below it, it can be deadly if not treated quickly
- necrotizing fasciitis spreads quickly and aggressively in an infected person, it causes tissue death at the infection site and beyond

234
Q

Decubitus ulcers

A
  • bedsores - also called pressure ulcers - are injuries to the skin and underlying tissue resulting from prolonged pressure on the skin
  • bedsores most often develop on skin that covers bony areas of the body, such as the heels, ankles, hips and tailbone
235
Q

Abscess

A

A tender mass generally surrounded by a coloured area from pink to deep red, abscesses are often easy to feel by touching, the vast majority of them are caused by infections, inside, they are full of puss, bacteria and debris. They are painful and warm to touch, abscesses can show up any place on your body

236
Q

Urticaria (hives)

A

Reddened, itchy welts that may be triggered by exposure to certain foods, medications or other substances

237
Q

Hematoma

A

Collection of blood outside of a blood vessel, it occurs because the wall of a blood vessel wall, artery, vein or capillary has been damaged and blood has leaked into tissues where it does not belong

238
Q

The nervous system has 3 main overlapping functions …

A

1 - sensory inputs - with the use of millions of sensory receptors out body monitors for changes both inside and outside of our body (sensory inputs)
2 - integration - we then process and interpret these sensory inputs and made a decision as to what should be done (called integration)
3 - motor output - we can affective effector organs (muscles and glands) in order to perform a response (known as motor output)

239
Q

Divisions of the nervous system…

A

CNS and PNS
CNS —> brain and spinal cord

PNS —> motor and sensory neurons
Motor neurons —> somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system

Autonomic nervous system —> sympathetic division and parasympathetic division

240
Q

PNS

A
  • everything outside of the CNS, nerves that run from the brain and spinal cord
  • the PNS is divided into two divisions - sensory division (afferent) and motor division (efferent)
241
Q

Sensory division of PNS

A

Afferent
Carries messages (impulses) towards the CNS from receptors all over your body
Made up of somatic sensory fibres and visceral sensory fibres

242
Q

Motor division of PNS

A
  • efferent
  • carries messages (impulses) from the CNS to effector organs (muscles and glands)
  • made of the somatic nervous system (voluntary) and the autonomic nervous system (involuntary)
243
Q

Somatic nervous system of motor division of PNS

A
  • somatic motor nerve fibres carry messages from the CNS to skeletal muscles to allow conscious control of movements
244
Q

Autonomic nervous system of the motor division of PNS

A

Visceral sensory impulses from the visceral organs (organs within the ventral body cavity) and glands

  • involuntary control
  • has two divisions —> sympathetic and parasympathetic
245
Q

Parasympathetic control —> rest and digest

A
  • constricts pupils
  • stimulates salivation
  • inhibits heart
  • constricts bronchi
  • stimulates digestive activity
  • stimulates gall bladder
  • constricts bladder
  • relaxes rectum
246
Q

Sympathetic system —> fight or flight

A
  • dilates pupils
  • inhibits salivation
  • relaxes bronchi
  • accelerates heart
  • inhibits digestive activity, stimulates glucose release by liver
  • secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine from kidney
  • relaxes bladder
  • contracts rectum
247
Q

Neurons

A
  • a specialized cell that is used to conduct electrical impulses (messages) around the body
  • our nervous system is made up of 2 principal types of cells the neurons and neuroglia
248
Q

3 special characteristics (besides conducting messages) or neurons …

A
  • amitotic - they are unable to divide
  • have a very high metabolic rate requiring a large amount of oxygen and glucose (they can not survive more than a few minutes without oxygen)
  • extreme longevity - can function optimally for your whole lifetime
249
Q

Why do neurons not have centrioles?

A

Neurons cannot divide because they lack centrioles, because centrioles function in cell division, the fact that neurons lack these organelles is consistent with the amniotic nature of the cell

  • some cells in the human body never divide and one such cell is the neuron
  • these are times / locations when we can develop new neutrons in adulthood, this originate as stem cells
250
Q

Cell body of the neuron

A
  • the cell body is the main centre of the neuron cell which has the normal organelles that are needed to synthesize proteins and other chemicals
  • is it also known as the soma
  • a cluster of cell bodies in the CNS is known as nuclei (this is where most neutron cell bodies are located)
  • cell bodies that lie along nerves in the PNS are called ganglia
  • extending from cell bodies are arm like processes - dendrites and axons
251
Q

Dendrites

A

The main receptive region of the neuron and transmit the message toward the cell body (graded potentials not action potentials), they provide a large surface area for receiving signals
- are always non-myelinated

252
Q

Axon

A
  • single part of the cell that conducts messages away from the cell body and towards the axon terminals
  • a neuron only has one axon by they might branch along their length (axon collaterals)
  • comes from the axon hillock on the cell body - the trigger zone
  • can be long accounting for almost the entire length of the neuron, short or absent (long axons are called nerve fibres)
  • the distal end of the axon is the axon terminal or axon boutons
  • the axon is the site of nerve impulse generation and transmission
  • may of may not have myelin sheath - white fatty covering that protects and insulates the axons, creating nodes of ranvier which increases conduction velocity of the axon
253
Q

Neuroglia (glial cells)

A
  • there are 6 types of neuroglia (4 in CNS and 2 in PNS)
  • do not produce electrical impulses, they maintain homeostasis, form myelin in the peripheral nervous system and provide support and protection for neurons
254
Q

Astrocytes

A
  • the most abundant and versatile glial cell
  • found in the CNS, the facilitate the exchange between the neuron and the capillaries
  • they maintain the chemical environment around the neurons and anchor / facilitate the exchange between neurons and capillaries, their role as exchange facilitators helps to determine the capillary permeability for neurons
  • helps to clean up leaking K ions and recycle transmitters, this ensures the outside environment of the neuron is kept in a functional balance
255
Q

Microglia

A
  • found in the CNS, they maintain the health and defence of the neurons
  • when they detect a foreign micro-organism or dead neurons they turn into a special macrophage in order to phagocytize it, which is critical as our immune cells have limited access to the CNS
  • they are like the guards or security
256
Q

What are the four glial cells of the CNS?

A

Astorcytes, microglia, ependymal cells and oligodendrocytes

257
Q

What are the glial cells of the PNS?

A

Satellite cells and Schwann cells

258
Q

Ependymal cells

A
  • found in the CNS, these cells line the central cavities of the CNS to help with the movement of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  • they are ciliated and use the beating of their cilia to circulate the CSF
259
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A
  • found in the CNS

- form the myelin sheaths of the CNS

260
Q

Satellite cells

A
  • found in the PNS

- surround the neuron cell bodies and are thought to have similar functions to the astrocytes in the CNS

261
Q

Schwann cells

A
  • found in the PNS
  • form the myelin sheath of the PNS
  • play a vital role in regeneration of damaged peripheral nerve fibres
262
Q

3 structural class of neurons

A

Unipolar (pseudo) neurons, bipolar neurons, and multipolar neurons

263
Q

Pseudo, unipolar neurons

A
  • found in the ganglia in the PNS function as sensory neurons
  • a single process extending from the cell body and divide into 2 branches that is associated with a receptor at the distal end, known as the peripheral process and a central process that goes into the CNS
264
Q

Bipolar neurons

A
  • they are pretty rare in the body but are found in special sense organs such as neurons in the retina of the eye or the olfactory mucosa
  • has 2 processes, one from single axon and one from dendrite
265
Q

Multipolar neurons

A
  • most common neuron type in humans, more than 99% of neurons are multipolar and it is the major neuron of the CNS
  • they have 3 or more processes, one axon and multiple dendrites
  • many processes extend from the cell body, all are dendrities except for a single axon
266
Q

3 functional classes of neurons

A
  • sensory (afferent) neurons - conduct impulses towards the CNS from receptors, almost all unipolar with cell bodies in the sensory ganglia outside of the CNS, the receptor end of some sensory neurons have terminals that function as the actual sensory receptors but most sensory neuron endings have receptors to provide them with information
  • motor (efferent) neurons - conduct impulses from the CNS to effectors (muscles and glands), these are multipolar and except for some neurons in the ANS they have their cell bodies found in the CNS
  • inter neurons - associated neurons, conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons and are the CNS integration pathways, these make up 99% of out neurons and are multipolar, most found within the CNS
267
Q

Functional class - neuron type according to direction of impulse conduction …

A

Multipolar neurons - most are inter neurons that conduct impulses within the CNS, integrating sensory input or motor output, may be one of a chain of CNS neurons or a single neuron connecting sensory and motor neurons
- some are motor that conduct impulses along the efferent pathway from the CNS to an effector (muscle / gland)

Bipolar neurons - essentially all are sensory neurons located in some special sense organs (ex. Bipolar cells of the retina)

Unipolar neurons - most are sensory neurons that conduct impulses along afferent pathways to the CNS for interpretation, these sensory neurons are called primary or first order sensory neurons)

268
Q

Membrane ion channels

A
  • there are lots of different membrane proteins, which acts as ion(s) channels in order to allow ions in and out of the cell, on a selective bases only allows their type of ions to pass
  • of these there are many membrane ion channels - non-gated aka leaky (always open) and gated (to be gated means that it has a gate made of protein which will change shape in order to open and close the channel)
  • ion channels are used to produce an electrical current by ions diffusing across the membrane with their concentration gradient
269
Q

There are many different types of gated ion channels within their cell ..

A 
Chemically gated (ligand gated) - open with the appropriate chemical binds, neurontransmitter will bind and it causes the channel to open 
Voltage gated - channels open in response to a change in membrane potential 
Mechanically gated - channels open when a membrane receptor is physically deformed, pressure applied causes it to open
270
Q

The resting membrane potential

A
  • salty banana - there is more sodium on the outside of the cell and more potassium inside of the cell
  • polarized membrane have a net positive charge outside and a net negative charge inside therefore a -70 mV across the membrane (this is a negative charge relative to the outside of the cell)
  • the potential difference of the resting neuron is known as the resting membrane potential
  • more permeability to potassium leaking to the resting potential
  • sodium and potassium pump work to maintain polarized state of diffusion gradient
271
Q

Sodium / potassium pump

A

Maintains the polarized state by maintaining the diffusion gradient for sodium and potassium, it does this by pumping 3 sodiums from the cell and returning 2 potassium’s back into the cell (for each cycle of the pump, which is always running)

Anatomy 1002 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions