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P1 Final > Chapter 1 EMS Systems > Flashcards

Chapter 1 EMS Systems Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Mobile army surgical hospitals (MAS*H) saved thousands of soldiers’ lives during the Korean war by:
    A) performing surgery within 30 minutes of the injury.
    B) bringing the hospital facilities closer to the battlefield.
    C) deploying combat medics to retrieve wounded soldiers.
    D) using helicopters to airlift casualties to the United States.
A

B) bringing the hospital facilities closer to the battlefield.

Ans: B
Page: 6
Type: General Knowledge

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2
Q 
2.  In the United States, mobile intensive care units (MICUs) initially were staffed by:
A)  physicians.
B)  registered nurses.
C)  funeral home directors.
D)  nonphysician providers.
A

D) nonphysician providers.

Ans: D
Page: 6
Type: General Knowledge

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3
Q
  1. The entity that was created in 1966 and that provides authority and financial support for the development of basic and advanced life support programs is the:
    A) National Association of EMTs.
    B) United States Department of Transportation.
    C) National Highway Safety Department.
    D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
A

B) United States Department of Transportation.

Ans: B
Page: 6
Type: General Knowledge

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a critical point addressed by the “White Paper” written in 1966 that was entitled “Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society”?
    A) Ensuring that paramedics responded to every call
    B) Participating in community-based prevention efforts
    C) Allocating adequate resources for medical direction
    D) Developing and pursuing a national EMS research agenda
A

A) Ensuring that paramedics responded to every call

Ans: A
Page: 7
Type: General Knowledge

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5
Q
  1. The first EMT textbook, Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, was published in 1971 by the:
    A) National Association of EMS Educators (NAEMSE).
    B) American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP).
    C) American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS).
    D) American Association of Critical Care Nurses (AACN).
A

C) American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS).

Ans: C
Page: 6
Type: General Knowledge

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6
Q
  1. Dr. Eugene Nagel advanced emergency medical treatment in 1969 by:
    A) training paramedics to administer certain medications directly through the chest wall and into the left ventricle.
    B) developing and implementing closed-chest cardiac massage (CPR) in order to pump blood in a patient without a pulse.
    C) implementing the “golden hour,” which dramatically increased survival rates of patients who experienced severe trauma.
    D) developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient’s electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital.
A

D) developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient’s electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital.

Ans: D
Page: 6

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7
Q 
7.  Which of the following was NOT a required component identified by the Emergency Medical Services System Act of 1973?
A)  EMS research
B)  Mutual aid agreements
C)  National EMS certification
D)  Integration of health services
A

C) National EMS certification

Ans: C
Page: 7
Type: General Knowledge

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8
Q 
8.  Which of the following is one of the 10 system elements developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) in an effort to sustain EMS systems?
A)  Medical direction
B)  Fully enhanced 9-1-1
C)  Paramedic supervisors
D)  Continued federal funding
A

A) Medical direction

Ans: A
Page: 7
Type: General Knowledge

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9
Q 
9.  The EMS network begins:
A)  by educating dispatchers.
B)  with citizen involvement.
C)  when an injury has occurred.
D)  when paramedics are notified.
A

B) with citizen involvement.

Ans: B
Page: 10
Type: General Knowledge

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS system is correct?
    A) The paramedic is usually the public’s first contact with the EMS system.
    B) The paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls.
    C) The public’s perception of an emergency is often the same as the paramedic’s.
    D) Dispatch information is usually an accurate depiction of what really happened.
A

B) The paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls.

Ans: B
Page: 10
Type: General Knowledge

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11
Q
  1. If the receiving facility does not have adequate resources to take care of your patient, you should next determine whether:
    A) there is an appropriate facility within a reasonable distance.
    B) an emergency physician should be dispatched to the scene.
    C) transport of the patient by ambulance is absolutely necessary.
    D) a BLS ambulance can transport the patient to a distant hospital.
A

A) there is an appropriate facility within a reasonable distance.

Ans: A
Page: 10
Type: General Knowledge

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12
Q
  1. Common actions performed by the dispatcher after receiving an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT:
    A) receiving and entering all data regarding the call.
    B) relaying information to the appropriate resources.
    C) interpreting the information provided by the caller.
    D) determining if an ambulance should be dispatched.
A

D) determining if an ambulance should be dispatched.

Ans: D
Page: 11
Type: General Knowledge

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13
Q
  1. What instructions or guidance would an emergency medical dispatcher MOST likely provide to a caller?
    A) How to properly use a bag-mask device
    B) How to obtain a blood pressure by palpation
    C) How to control bleeding and perform CPR
    D) How to administer prescribed antihypertensives
A

C) How to control bleeding and perform CPR

Ans: C
Page: 11
Type: General Knowledge

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14
Q
  1. If an emergency medical responder is appropriately trained and competent, he or she should be able to:
    A) detect signs of patient deterioration, obtain baseline vital signs, and give IV fluids to maintain adequate perfusion.
    B) perform lifesaving interventions and transport the patient after paramedics have performed a detailed physical exam.
    C) recognize the seriousness of a patient’s condition, provide basic life support care, and relay information to the paramedic.
    D) develop a field diagnosis of the patient’s problem, perform limited advanced airway techniques, and update responding paramedics.
A

C) recognize the seriousness of a patient’s condition, provide basic life support care, and relay information to the paramedic.

Ans: C
Page: 11
Type: General Knowledge

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the EMT is correct?
    A) Manual defibrillation is a skill that all EMTs are required to learn and perform.
    B) In some states, EMTs are trained in advanced airway management and IV therapy.
    C) There are far more certified paramedics in the United States than there are EMTs.
    D) EMTs are licensed and can provide basic life support without medical direction.
A

B) In some states, EMTs are trained in advanced airway management and IV therapy.

Ans: B
Page: 11-12
Type: General Knowledge

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16
Q
  1. A paramedic who is licensed in a particular state:
    A) is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician.
    B) has complete autonomy and can function as an independent provider.
    C) must obtain more continuing education hours than a certified paramedic.
    D) is authorized to function as medical control for EMTs and advanced EMTs.
A

A) is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician.

Ans: A
Page: 12
Type: General Knowledge

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17
Q
  1. Compared to an EMT, an AEMT:
    A) can administer a variety of emergency medications.
    B) has a more advanced knowledge of pathophysiology.
    C) is trained and authorized to perform manual defibrillation.
    D) can legally transfer patient care to a provider of lesser training.
A

B) has a more advanced knowledge of pathophysiology.

Ans: B
Page: 11-12
Type: General Knowledge

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18
Q
  1. A major recommendation made by the 2009 EMS Education Standards for paramedic training was the:
    A) removal of endotracheal intubation from the minimum core content of the training program.
    B) addition of 750 hours of clinical and field training above and beyond classroom education.
    C) inclusion of a college-level anatomy and physiology course as part of the training program.
    D) prerequisite that all paramedic students possess a minimum of an associate’s degree.
A

C) inclusion of a college-level anatomy and physiology course as part of the training program.

Ans: C
Page: 12
Type: General Knowledge

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19
Q
  1. The 2009 National EMS Education Standards:
    A) clearly state that all paramedic training programs must be at least 1,200 hours in length.
    B) require inclusion of a college-level pathophysiology course within the paramedic program.
    C) mandate that the paramedic designation must be achieved through an associate degree program.
    D) outline the minimum knowledge base that the paramedic must possess in order to function in the field.
A

D) outline the minimum knowledge base that the paramedic must possess in order to function in the field.

Ans: D
Page: 12
Type: General Knowledge

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20
Q
  1. The main purpose of continuing education is to:
    A) facilitate networking of EMS personnel.
    B) recall material that was learned previously.
    C) allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level.
    D) remain current with the latest treatment guidelines.
A

D) remain current with the latest treatment guidelines.

Ans: D
Page: 12-13
Type: General Knowledge

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21
Q
  1. It is important to become involved in a national or state EMS organization, such as the National Association of EMTs (NAEMT) or the National Association of State EMS Directors (NASEMSD), because:
    A) such organizations have an impact on the future direction of EMS.
    B) these organizations offer continuing education for all EMS providers.
    C) membership in a professional organization is a tax-deductible expense.
    D) such organizations promote unique EMS training standards for each state.
A

A) such organizations have an impact on the future direction of EMS.

Ans: A
Page: 15
Type: General Knowledge

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22
Q 
22.  Performing the functions of a paramedic prior to licensure is:
A)  immoral.
B)  unlawful.
C)  unethical.
D)  permissible.
A

B) unlawful.

Ans: B
Page: 8
Type: General Knowledge

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23
Q 
23.  Records of your education, state or local credentials, and recertification are held by a recognized agency through a process called:
A)  licensure.
B)  reciprocity.
C)  registration.
D)  certification.
A

C) registration.

Ans: C
Page: 9
Type: General Knowledge

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24
Q
  1. A paramedic is considered a health care professional, and as such should:
    A) demand respect from others who are in the EMS profession.
    B) meet societal expectations whether he or she is on or off duty.
    C) obtain more than the required amount of continuing education.
    D) maintain higher standards than other health care professionals.
A

B) meet societal expectations whether he or she is on or off duty.

Ans: B
Page: 15
Type: General Knowledge

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25
Q
  1. In order to provide the best possible patient care, the paramedic must:
    A) disregard negative judgments made by the patient.
    B) project a sympathetic demeanor toward all patients.
    C) appear competent, even if he or she feels incompetent.
    D) establish and maintain credibility and instill confidence.

Ans: D
Page: 15-16
Type: General Knowledge

A

D) establish and maintain credibility and instill confidence.

Ans: D
Page: 15-16
Type: General Knowledge

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26
Q 
26.  Openness, honesty, and truthfulness are attributes that demonstrate:
A)  integrity.
B)  empathy.
C)  sympathy.
D)  advocacy.
A

A) integrity.

Ans: A
Page: 16
Type: General Knowledge

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27
Q
  1. Being empathetic toward a patient means that you:
    A) reassure the patient of your competence.
    B) know exactly how the patient feels.
    C) acknowledge the patient’s feelings.
    D) feel a sense of sorrow for the patient.
A

C) acknowledge the patient’s feelings.

Ans: C
Page: 16
Type: General Knowledge

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28
Q
  1. If a paramedic is self-motivated, he or she should NOT:
    A) continuously educate himself or herself.
    B) require maximum supervision at work.
    C) possess an internal drive for excellence.
    D) be able to accept constructive feedback
A

B) require maximum supervision at work.

Ans: B
Page: 16
Type: General Knowledge

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29
Q
  1. As an advocate for your patient, you must:
    A) act in the patient’s best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs.
    B) allow your personal feelings to affect the quality of care that you provide to your patients.
    C) treat all patients the same, regardless of differences in lifestyle, culture, and personal values.
    D) keep suspicions of abuse or neglect to yourself if the patient fears retribution from the abuser.
A

A) act in the patient’s best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs.

Ans: A
Page: 16
Type: General Knowledge

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30
Q
  1. All of the following are examples of injury prevention, EXCEPT:
    A) demonstrating the proper use of a bicycle helmet.
    B) instructing a person on how to wear a seat belt properly.
    C) informing a patient of a loose rug at the top of the stairs.
    D) teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens.
A

D) teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens.

Ans: D
Page: 16
Type: General Knowledge

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31
Q
  1. When responding to an emergency scene, it is MOST important to:
    A) proceed in a manner that is timely and safe.
    B) moderately exceed the speed limit when possible.
    C) stay at least 10’ behind any cars in front of you.
    D) use your siren to move heavy traffic out of the way.
A

A) proceed in a manner that is timely and safe.

Ans: A
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

32
Q 
32.  After ensuring your own personal safety, your next priority should be to:
A)  ensure the safety of your patient.
B)  proceed quickly with patient care.
C)  make sure that your partner is safe.
D)  provide safety for any bystanders.
A

C) make sure that your partner is safe.

Ans: C
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

33
Q
  1. You should prioritize the needs of your patient based on the:
    A) distance from the scene to the closest medical facility.
    B) injury or illness that requires the most urgent treatment.
    C) patient’s interpretation of the seriousness of the situation.
    D) patient’s age and the results of his or her initial vital signs.
A

B) injury or illness that requires the most urgent treatment.

Ans: B
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

34
Q
  1. When faced with a situation that is not addressed in your EMS system’s protocols, you should:
    A) contact the nurse at the receiving facility.
    B) radio your medical director to obtain orders.
    C) proceed with basic life support and transport.
    D) let experience guide further care of the patient.
A

B) radio your medical director to obtain orders.

Ans: B
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

35
Q
  1. When deciding which medical facility is most appropriate for your patient’s needs, it is MOST important to:
    A) consider the distance from the scene to the hospital.
    B) ask the patient where his or her physician is located.
    C) be knowledgeable of the major streets and highways.
    D) know the capabilities of all the hospitals in your area.
A

D) know the capabilities of all the hospitals in your area.

Ans: D
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

36
Q
  1. When you transfer care of your patient to the hospital staff, it is MOST important to:
    A) use discretion and protect the patient’s privacy.
    B) give a brief report and quickly return to service.
    C) only give your hand-off report to a staff physician.
    D) always obtain a signature from the receiving nurse.
A

A) use discretion and protect the patient’s privacy.

Ans: A
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

37
Q 
37.  When returning your unit to service following a call, the responsibility of ensuring that the unit is restocked and ready for another call rests with:
A)  the paramedic in charge.
B)  the medic who was driving.
C)  everyone on the EMS team.
D)  the shift captain or supervisor.
A

C) everyone on the EMS team.

Ans: C
Page: 17-18
Type: General Knowledge

38
Q
  1. When educating citizens who live in an area where EMS response times will be lengthy, the MOST important skill to teach them is:
    A) rescue breathing and chest compressions.
    B) maintenance of a patient’s body temperature.
    C) initial management of a patient with a seizure.
    D) manually stabilizing an injured person’s neck.
A

A) rescue breathing and chest compressions.

Ans: A
Page: 18
Type: General Knowledge

39
Q
  1. When educating the public regarding your EMS system, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT:
    A) research the needs of your community.
    B) liken your job to EMS-related TV shows.
    C) advocate the importance of injury prevention.
    D) ensure that citizens know how to access EMS.
A

B) liken your job to EMS-related TV shows.

Ans: B
Page: 18-19
Type: General Knowledge

40
Q
  1. A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic:
    A) is more likely to be sued for negligence.
    B) is held to a higher professional standard.
    C) can function independently of a physician.
    D) carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.
A

D) carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.

Ans: D
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the EMS medical director?
    A) Interfacing between EMS systems and other agencies
    B) Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics
    C) Participating in the hiring process of new EMS personnel
    D) Developing protocols in cooperation with other EMS experts
A

B) Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics

Ans: B
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

42
Q
  1. The MAIN benefit to online medical control is that it:
    A) affords the paramedic better protection against a lawsuit.
    B) provides an immediate and specific patient care resource.
    C) allows the physician and paramedic to develop a rapport.
    D) facilitates a faster transport to the emergency department.
A

B) provides an immediate and specific patient care resource.

Ans: B
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

43
Q
  1. A protocol is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
    A) nationally accepted standard of care.
    B) verbal order given by the medical director.
    C) treatment plan for a specific illness or injury.
    D) agreement between the paramedic and physician.
A

C) treatment plan for a specific illness or injury.

Ans: C
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

44
Q 
44.  Specific functions that the paramedic should perform prior to contacting medical control are called:
A)  standing orders.
B)  online protocols.
C)  physician directives.
D)  predefined standards.
A

A) standing orders.

Ans: A
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

45
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding protocols is correct?
    A) Protocols are usually developed in conjunction with national standards.
    B) A well-written protocol should address every possible patient condition.
    C) Most protocols reflect the personal opinion of the EMS medical director.
    D) Protocols are orders, and the responder cannot deviate from them under any circumstances.
A

A) Protocols are usually developed in conjunction with national standards.

Ans: A
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

46
Q
  1. The main goal of any CQI program is to:
    A) promptly correct any problems once they are identified.
    B) identify and remove paramedics who are not competent.
    C) revamp protocols based on the current standards of care.
    D) assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises.
A

D) assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises.

Ans: D
Page: 19
Type: General Knowledge

47
Q 
47.  A CQI program should primarily focus on:
A)  modifying protocols as needed.
B)  improving patient care delivery.
C)  identifying incompetent medics.
D)  reviewing all patient care reports.
A

B) improving patient care delivery.

Ans: B
Page: 19-20
Type: General Knowledge

48
Q
  1. Peer review can be a good learning experience if:
    A) the EMS system’s medical director and administrative staff take part in the process.
    B) the person or persons conducting the review have at least 10 years of EMS experience.
    C) those conducting the review have good guidelines to follow and the person being evaluated keeps an open mind.
    D) the information gained from the review is shared with other personnel within the EMS system.
A

C) those conducting the review have good guidelines to follow and the person being evaluated keeps an open mind.

Ans: C
Page: 20
Type: General Knowledge

49
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding peer review is correct?
    A) The EMS administrator is the ideal person to conduct the review.
    B) Peer review is not a tool to demean or belittle a fellow paramedic.
    C) It is preferable to use the same people to conduct all peer reviews.
    D) Review findings should be shared with others to facilitate learning.
A

B) Peer review is not a tool to demean or belittle a fellow paramedic.

Ans: B
Page: 20
Type: General Knowledge

50
Q 
50.  Possible stress points in the day-to-day operations of the EMS system that would likely be identified by a comprehensive CQI program include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A)  personal finance issues.
B)  receiving facility issues.
C)  medical direction issues.
D)  education and training issues.
A

A) personal finance issues.

Ans: A
Page: 20-21
Type: General Knowledge

51
Q 
51.  EMS protocol development, training methodologies, and equipment use decisions are based mainly on:
A)  evidence.
B)  experience.
C)  personal opinion.
D)  public preference.
A

A) evidence.

Ans: A
Page: 21
Type: General Knowledge

52
Q
  1. The main purpose of research in EMS is to determine:
    A) if EMS is eligible for federal funding.
    B) the easiest approach to treating a patient.
    C) if local EMS protocols should be amended.
    D) whether treatment is effective or ineffective.
A

D) whether treatment is effective or ineffective.

Ans: D
Page: 21
Type: General Knowledge

53
Q
  1. The first part of EMS research is to:
    A) obtain medical director authorization.
    B) determine if there is adequate funding.
    C) identify a specific problem or question.
    D) determine the style of research to be used.
A

C) identify a specific problem or question

Ans: C
Page: 22
Type: General Knowledge

54
Q 
54.  Research that is based on observation only, without an attempt to alter or change an event, is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ research.
A)  prospective
B)  descriptive
C)  experimental
D)  retrospective
A

B) descriptive

Ans: B
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

55
Q 
55.  A scientific approach to research in which a researcher controls, manipulates, and then measures one or more variables to ascertain how manipulating the variables affects the subjects is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ research.
A)  prospective
B)  qualitative
C)  experimental
D)  nonexperimental
A

C) experimental

Ans: C
Page: 22
Type: General Knowledge

56
Q 
56.  Research that is based on a group of individuals at one point in time is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ research.
A)  descriptive
B)  prospective
C)  retrospective
D)  cross-sectional
A

D) cross-sectional

Ans: D
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

57
Q 
57.  The LEAST preferable and reliable method of selecting people to participate in a research study is:
A)  random sampling.
B)  systematic sampling.
C)  convenience sampling.
D)  alternative time sampling.
A

C) convenience sampling.

Ans: C
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

58
Q 
58.  When research participants are advised of all the aspects of the project, the research project is said to be:
A)  unblinded.
B)  retrospective.
C)  cross-sectional.
D)  double-blinded.
A

A) unblinded.

Ans: A
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

59
Q
  1. The qualitative method of gathering data for a research project:
    A) does not use numerical information and is the least accurate.
    B) uses variables such as mean, median, and mode for data gathering.
    C) is highly accurate in gathering reliable data for the research project.
    D) assigns numerical values to the data and is a highly reliable method.
A

A) does not use numerical information and is the least accurate.

Ans: A
Page: 22
Type: General Knowledge

60
Q 
60.  When using a group of subjects who range in age from 30 to 40 years, 35 years of age would considered the:
A)  mode.
B)  mean.
C)  median.
D)  midpoint.
A

D) midpoint.

Ans: D
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

61
Q
  1. When gathering data for a research project that involves subjects in various age groups, standard deviation outlines:
    A) how close the scores in each set will be to the median.
    B) how much the scores in each set will differ from the mean.
    C) the most frequent age of the subject or subjects being used.
    D) the average age of the subjects used in the research project.
A

B) how much the scores in each set will differ from the mean.

Ans: B
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

62
Q
  1. Prior to conducting a research project in which people will be used as subjects, it is MOST important to:
    A) ensure that all the subjects are fully briefed on the perceived outcome.
    B) obtain consent from the subjects and ensure their safety and well-being.
    C) select subjects who are nonbiased and have no knowledge of the project.
    D) randomly select the subjects using the alternative time sampling method.
A

B) obtain consent from the subjects and ensure their safety and well-being.

Ans: B
Page: 23-24
Type: General Knowledge

63
Q
  1. In order to link research and evidence to patient care, one must:
    A) conduct research at least every 10 years and then perform a retrospective analysis of the data.
    B) ensure that the quality of the evidence is sufficient to justify changing patient care protocols.
    C) recognize that evidence is less reliable than scientific data that produce sound statistics.
    D) understand that only level 1 evidence can be used to justify changing patient care protocols.
A

B) ensure that the quality of the evidence is sufficient to justify changing patient care protocols.

Ans: B
Page: 25
Type: General Knowledge

64
Q
  1. An unblinded research study is one in which:
    A) some of the participants are aware of all aspects of the project.
    B) nobody is aware of any of the aspects of the research project.
    C) only the principal researcher is aware of all aspects of the project.
    D) all research participants are advised of all aspects of the project.
A

D) all research participants are advised of all aspects of the project.

Ans: D
Page: 23
Type: General Knowledge

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a typical question to answer when evaluating and interpreting research?
    A) Is your conclusion based on the data?
    B) Did you account for all confounding variables?
    C) Will the research study be published in a notable journal?
    D) Was the study approved and conducted in an ethical fashion?
A

C) Will the research study be published in a notable journal?

Ans: C
Page: 24
Type: General Knowledge

66
Q
  1. You are dispatched to a residence at 3:00 AM for a 39-year-old man with signs of a common cold. When caring for this patient, you should:
    A) educate the patient and tactfully discuss why a cold is not an emergency.
    B) realize that this clearly is not a call to which you should have been dispatched.
    C) advise the patient that this is not an emergency and obtain a signed refusal.
    D) tell the patient to schedule an appointment with his physician the next day.
A

A) educate the patient and tactfully discuss why a cold is not an emergency.

Ans: A
Page: 10
Type: Critical Thinking

67
Q
  1. A patient has requested to be transported to a specific hospital; however, the hospital does not have the proper resources to meet the patient’s needs. You should:
    A) determine if there is a more appropriate medical facility within a reasonable distance.
    B) advise the patient that his or her hospital of choice is a poorly equipped medical facility.
    C) remember that the hospital can always transfer the patient to a more appropriate facility.
    D) contact medical control and request permission to transport the patient to his or her choice hospital.
A

A) determine if there is a more appropriate medical facility within a reasonable distance.

Ans: A
Page: 10
Type: Critical Thinking

68
Q
  1. While you and your partner are en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you should expect the emergency medical dispatcher to:
    A) obtain your permission to give simple medical directions to the caller.
    B) instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene.
    C) advise you of the patient’s medical history so you can be better prepared.
    D) tell the caller to place the patient in the recovery position and then reassess.
A

B) instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene.

Ans: B
Page: 11
Type: Critical Thinking

69
Q
  1. Upon arriving at the scene of a motorcycle crash, you are approached by an EMR. What is the MOST important information the EMR should provide to you?
    A) The patient’s vital signs and the presence of any underlying medical conditions
    B) How the crash occurred and approximately when he or she first arrived at the scene
    C) His or her perception of the criticality of the patient’s condition and suspicion for internal bleeding
    D) Initial scene and patient assessment findings and any basic care that was provided to the patient
A

D) Initial scene and patient assessment findings and any basic care that was provided to the patient

Ans: D
Page: 11
Type: Critical Thinking

70
Q 
70.  You and your team are attempting to resuscitate a 50-year-old woman in a traumatic cardiac arrest. Your team consists of two EMTs and an AEMT. Which of the following tasks would be MOST appropriate to assign to the AEMT?
A)  Chest compressions
B)  IV therapy and fluid boluses
C)  Cardiac drug administration
D)  Emotional support for the family
A

B) IV therapy and fluid boluses

Ans: B
Page: 12
Type: Critical Thinking

71
Q
  1. You are moving from one state to another and plan to continue your career in EMS. The state to which you are moving will MOST likely require that you:
    A) become a registered paramedic with the National Registry of EMTs.
    B) obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.
    C) show proof that you have worked as a paramedic for at least 10 years.
    D) repeat an entire paramedic training program and take a state examination.
A

B) obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.

Ans: B
Page: 9-10
Type: Critical Thinking

72
Q
  1. Before you are able to clean your uniform after taking care of a patient at a major motor vehicle crash, your unit, which is the only one available, is dispatched to a residence for a patient with chest pain. Though not bloody, your uniform is noticeably dirty and you are still sweating from the previous call. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is MOST correct?
    A) You should maintain a professional attitude and care for the patient to the best of your ability.
    B) The patient will likely be offended by your appearance, but you should not be concerned with this.
    C) Assess the patient and provide needed care after explaining to the patient why your uniform is dirty.
    D) It would be wise to remain in the ambulance as your partner performs a primary patient assessment.
A

A) You should maintain a professional attitude and care for the patient to the best of your ability.

Ans: A
Page: 15
Type: Critical Thinking

73
Q 
73.  While caring for an elderly man with abdominal pain, you are very open with the patient and answer his questions honestly. These actions will MOST likely show the patient that you:
A)  have integrity.
B)  are competent.
C)  are empathetic.
D)  are self-motivated.
A

A) have integrity.

Ans: A
Page: 16
Type: Critical Thinking

74
Q
  1. Prior to transporting a 66-year-old woman with chest pain to the hospital, she expresses the need to retrieve her bible and say a prayer. You should:
    A) advise the patient that a minister will talk with her at the hospital.
    B) tactfully explain to the patient that her condition will not allow it.
    C) leave the room if your religious beliefs are not consistent with hers.
    D) be respectful of the patient’s wishes and give her the time she needs.
A

D) be respectful of the patient’s wishes and give her the time she needs.

Ans: D
Page: 16
Type: Critical Thinking

75
Q
  1. You arrive at a convenience store to find a middle-aged male in cardiac arrest. Your protocols provide for standing orders in this type of scenario. This means that you should:
    A) contact medical control before providing advanced-level care.
    B) perform certain interventions prior to contacting medical control.
    C) begin CPR and then contact medical control for further direction.
    D) pronounce the patient dead if there is no response after 10 minutes
A

B) perform certain interventions prior to contacting medical control.

Ans: B
Page: 19
Type: Critical Thinking

P1 Final (10 decks)

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