Chapter 1 Challenges Flashcards

Questions

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1
Q

Which of the following determines the scope of medical assistants?

A: State medical boards
B: Individual companies
C: Physician the MA works under
D: Credentialing organizations

A

A

While the provider the MA works under and the organization who employs them may place stricter scope regulations on the AM, all individual and company policies must comply with state regulations

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2
Q

Why might a MA pursue further certification?

A

Obtaining additional certifications, such as CET and CBCS, will increase the scope of work for an MA and can lead to better job opportunities.

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3
Q

Which of the following professions may have a scope that includes managing patient care independently? (Select all that apply)

A: Medical Providers
B: Physician Assistants
C: Nurse Practitioners
D: Osteopathic Providers

A

A & D

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4
Q

Match the allied health profession with the correct role description

Profession Description
A: Medical Lab Techs 1: Assist
patients in
regaining mobility
B: Occupational 2: Using Imaging
Therapists equipment
C: Physical 3. Assist patients
Therapists who have disabilities
D: Radiology 4. Perform
Techs diagnostic testing
on specimens

A

A:4
B:3
C:1
D:2

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5
Q

Which of the following describes the process for obtaining a medical license from one state based on the requirements being met in another state?
A: Reciprocity
B: Examination
C: Endorsement
D: Graduation

A

A

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6
Q

What are the advantages of being certified as a MA, even if it is not legally required in the state?

A

Advantages of certification include increased initial job placement, higher wages, and career advancement opportunities. when employers hire a certified MA, they know they are already equipped with the foundational knowledge and experience to effectively manage their job responsibilities.

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7
Q

What are the primary benefits of mobile health units?

A

Mobile health units bring health care to the communities that most need it and may otherwise lack access to the services provided. They have been particularly helpful during the covid-19 pandemic, as they can bring testing and vaccines to many communities and make these services as easy as possible to access and use.

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8
Q

Which of the following patients is receiving inpatient care?
A: A patient completes diagnostic testing at a hospital and returns home following the test.
B: A patient visits their primary care provider for a physical exam.
C: A patient goes to a hospice facility for end-of-life care.
D: A patient receives physical therapy in their home following hospitalization

A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following visits may be appropriate for telehealth?
A: Follow up on medication adjustments
B: Physical Examination
C: Patient Education
D: Review of lab results
E: New Pain Symptoms

A

A, C, and D

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10
Q

Describe the medical assistant’s role in patient portals

A

The MA is often responsible for assisting patients with enrolling in the portal. This includes having necessary paperwork completed, providing enrollment instructions, and reviewing how to use the portal to effectively interact with their health care team. The MA may also be responsible for uploading or updating data in the portal

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11
Q

Which of the following specialists would a patient most likely see as a follow up for a heart attack?
A: Cardiologist
B: Urologist
C: Radiologist
D: Hematologist

A

A

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12
Q

Match the specialist with the correct focus area.

Specialist Focus Area
A: Dermatologist 1: Hormonal
Conditions
B: Endocrinologist 2: Mental Health
C: Otolaryngologist 3: Skin
D: Psychiatrist 4: Ear, Nose and
Throat

A

A:3
B:1
C:4
D:2

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13
Q

When & why may a patient benefit from going to urgent care rather than an emergency department?

A

Urgent care costs less, as a shorter wait time, and is often conveniently located. Most have flexible hours and offer walk in appointments. They are appropriate to use for non-life threatening acute injuries and illnesses.

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14
Q

Which of the following medications classifications would be prescribed to treat high blood pressure in a patient?
A: Bronchodilator
B: Antihypertensive
C: Contraceptive
D: Antihistamine

A

B

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14
Q

Match the schedule of drugs to the correct definition:

Schedule:
A: Schedule 1
B: Schedule 2
C: Schedule 3
D: Schedule 4
E: Schedule 5

Definition:
1: Substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics, usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes.
2: Includes substances that have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence.
3: Includes substances that have a low potential for abuse and dependence
4: Substances that have a high potential for abuse, are considered dangerous, and can leave to psychological and physical dependance
5: Includes substances that have a high potential for abuse and currently no approved medical use in the united states

A

A:5
B:4
C:2
D:3
E:1

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14
Q

Which of the following ancillary services helps patients compensate for the loss of function due to injury, illness, or disease?
A: Occupational Therapy
B: Physical Therapy
C: Urgent Care
D: Laboratory Services

A

A

15
Q

Which of the following medication classifications is amoxicillin under?
A: Antidepressant
B: Antihypertensive
C: Antidiarrheal
D: Antibiotic

A

D

16
Q

Which of the following schedules of medication can include refills on prescriptions?
A: Schedule 1
B: Schedule 2
C: Schedule 4
D: Schedule 5
E: Schedule 6

A

C, D, E

17
Q

A patient has a prescription for medication to treat a bacterial infection. When taking this medication, the patient experiences nausea. Which of the following describes nausea caused by the antibiotic?
A: Adverse Reaction
B: Side Effect
C: Allergic Reaction
D: Contraindication

A

B

18
Q

What are the differences between side effects and adverse reactions?

A

A side effect is an unintended, undesirable action on the body caused by a medication, which is known and expected , as well as relatively harmless to the patient. Side effects may lead a patient to decline a medication but are not cause to avoid prescribing or recommending the medication. An adverse reaction is an unintended, harmful action of the medication, which may be unexpected and can cause death or long-term damage to the patient. Patients with known adverse reactions to medication should not be prescribed that medication

19
Q

Which of the following measurement systems are most commonly used in prescription doses?
A: Metric
B: Apothecary
C: Standard
D: Household

A

A

20
Q

Why is it important for MA’s to understand how to convert metric measurements to standard measurements?

A

Many at-home medications are prescribed or directed in metric doses. These medications typically come with measurement cups that indicate metric measurements, but patients may misplace these cups and call the clinic for advice on measuring the accurate dosage using standard measurements.

21
Q

Match the medication form to the correct route of administration:

Form:
A: Aerosol
B: Elixir
C: Foam
D: Injectable Liquid
E: Drops
F: Patches

Route:
1: Vaginal
2: Nasal, otic, ophthalmic
3: IV
4: Oral
5: Inhalation
6: Topical

A

A:5
B:4
C: 1
D: 3
E: 2
F: 6

22
Q

Which of the following strategies are recommended for avoiding medication errors due to similar-sounding names?
A: Store all medications in alphabetical order
B: use “tall man” letters
C: Use abbreviations for medication names
D: Crate labels with indications for use
E: Alter computer selection screens to avoid look-alike medication names appearing consecutively

A

B, D, and E

23
Q

Match the route with the correct location

Route:
A: Intradermal
B: Intramuscular
C: Subcutaneous

Location:
1: Abdomen
2: Forearm
3: Deltoid

A

A:2
B:3
C:1

24
Q

Which of the four action of pharmacokinetics affects the ability of a patient who is pregnant to take medications and why?

A

Distribution is the transportation fo the medication throughout the body. Because many medications can easily cross the placental barrier during distribution, the medications can reach the fetus, which may be dangerous

25
Q

Which of the following actions of pharmacokinetics changes active forms of the medication into harmless metabolites?
A: Absorption
B: Metabolism
C: Distribution
D: Excretion

A

B

26
Q

Which of the following are included in the original or fundamental rights of medication administration?

A: Right patient
B: Right medication
C: Right Dose
D: Right Time
E: Right route
F: Right technique
G: Right Documentation
H: Right assessments
I: Right reason
J: Right to know

A

A, B, C, D, and E

27
Q

Where should a MA look for reliable information on medications when needed?

A

MA’s can find reliable, medically approved medication information through validated books and internet sources, approved phone apps and package insets

28
Q

Match the nutrients with the correct description:

Nutrient -
A: Water
B: Protein
C: Carbohydrates
D: Fats
E: Vitamins
F: Minerals

Description -
1: Large, complex molecules the body makes from amino acids
2: Inorganic substances the body needs in small quantities for building and maintaining body structures
3: Highly concentrated energy sources
4: Makes up 50% to 80% of the body
5: Organic compounds that combine carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen into sugar molecules
6: Organic substances the body needs for various cellular functions

A

A: 4
B: 1
C: 5
D: 3
E: 6
F: 2

29
Q

Which of the following aspects of food labels gives necessary context to all other information found on the label?
A: Serving Size
B: Grams of fat
C. Amount of sodium
D: Percentage of the daily recommended value

A

A

30
Q

Which of the following vitamins is known to improve night vision?
A: Vitamin A
B: Vitamin B12
C: Vitamin C
D: Vitamin D

A

A

31
Q

Match the supplement with the intended benefit.

Supplement -
A: St. John’s Wort
B: Black Cohosh
C: Willow Bark
D: Gingko Biloba

Intended Benefit -
1: Improved memory
2: Treatment for depression
3. Relief of menopause symptoms
4: Pain Relief

A

A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 1

32
Q

The CDC’s recommendation for food distribution for those with diabetes are based on a dinner plate of what size?
A: 5 inches
B: 7 inches
C: 9 inches
D: 12 inches

A

c

33
Q

Patients in which of the following stages of chronic kidney disease should monitor their phosphorus and potassium levels?
A: Stage 1
B: Stage 2
C: stage 3
D: stage 4
E : stage 5

A

D and E

34
Q

Which of the following foods would be the safest option for a person who has celiac disease?
A: Whole-grain bread
B: Malt Vinegar
C: Quinoa
D: Beer

A

c

35
Q

Match the eating disorder with the correct definition.

Eating Disorder -
A: Anorexia Nervosa
B: Binge Eating
C: Bulimia Nervosa

Definition -
1: binging and purging
2: refusal to eat
3: chronic overeating

A

A:2
B:3
C:1

36
Q
A