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Elsevier Review Questions > Chapter 1 - Bacteriology > Flashcards

Chapter 1 - Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Fermentation end-products are often used to aid the identification of bacteria. Fermentation results in:

A

Conversion of glucose to pyruvate

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2
Q

The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is called

A

Conjugation

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3
Q

End-products of aerobic respiration

A

Carbon dioxide and water

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4
Q

This mechanism involves cell-to-cell contact, a series of complex chemical signals between cells, and usually the formation of a BRIDGE or SEX PILUS

A

Conjugation

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5
Q

This mechanism involves the uptake of free DNA by a recipient cell

A

Transformation

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6
Q

This mechanism involves the acquisition of DNA through the action of a BACTERIOPHAGE.
> mediated by VIRUSES, by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell, RECOMBINATION

A

Transduction

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7
Q

A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to bacterial cell wall

A

Gram’s iodine

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8
Q

Bacteria considered as important pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of SOFT TISSUE ABSCESS

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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9
Q

3% to 5% CO2

A

Aerobes

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10
Q

5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N

A

Microaerophilic

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11
Q

85% N2, 10% H2, 5% CO2

A

Anaerobic

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12
Q

This medium is very selective for enteric pathogens and is differential for Salmonella and Shigella

A

Hektoen Enteric Agar

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13
Q

HEA: Yellow-orange colonies

A

Lactose fermenters (E. Coli)

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14
Q

HEA: colorless/green colonies with unchanged medium

A

Non-lactose fermenter (Shigella, Providencia)

If w/ Black colonies: h2s production (Salmonella)

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15
Q

Coagulase bound to the surface of the cell

A

Clumping factor

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16
Q

The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening tesr for the production of

A

Free coagulase

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17
Q

The Staphylococcus sp. that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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18
Q

Toxic Shocks syndrome toxin-1 is an important virulence factor in staphylococcal disease. This toxin is classified into which group of toxins

A

Enterotoxin

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19
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar is selective and differential for which organism

A

Staphylococcus

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20
Q

The toxins of this organism are preformed in contaminated food
> the organism doesnt need to grow in the host and therefore the action is very rapid

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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21
Q

Susceptible to bile and optochin, a-hemolytic, and major cause of bacterial meningitis, often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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22
Q

Susceptible to penicillin and bacitracin, B-hemolytic, PYR positive, major cause of bacterial pharyngitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic M protein

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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23
Q

Hippurate hydrolysis-positive, B-hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, producer of CAMP factor

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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24
Q

Appearance of a Green band of RBCs around a colony (conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin)

A

Alpha hemolysis

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25
Q

A pathogenic, gram-positive bacilli that grows well at Refrigerator temperature

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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26
Q

This organism grows on tellurite medium, grows as black colonies with brown halos in Tinsdale medium, and shows gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shapes

A

Corynebacterium diphteriae

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27
Q

Clinical disease that shows gray pseudomembrane covering the oropharynx

A

Diptheria

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28
Q

Gram-positive bacillus, catalase-negative, H2S producer, nonmotile, nonsporeformer that can be found in a skin lesion

A

Erysipelothrix spp.

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29
Q

CAMP test positive, H2S negative and esculin negative

A

Listeria spp.

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30
Q

CAMP test negative, H2S positive, Esculin positive

A

Erysipelothrix spp

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31
Q

This is used in decontaminating sputum samples for the successful isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)- NaOH mixture

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32
Q

This Mycoplasma organism is AFB positive but potentially noncultivable

A

Mycoplasma leprae

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33
Q

Mycoplasma tuberculosis complex consists of these 4 organisms:

A

1) M. tuberculosis
2) M. Bovis (in cattle)
3) M. bovis BCG (vaccine strain for the BCG vaccine)
4) M. africanum (in Western Africa and clinically similar to M. tuberculosis)

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34
Q

Runyon group that is slow growing, and produce a yellow-orange pigment when exposed to light

A

Runyon 1- Photocromogens

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35
Q

Runyon group that is slow growing, and produces a yellow-orange pigment in LIGHT or in DARK

A

Runyon 2- Scotochromogens

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36
Q

Runyon group that is slow growing, and do not produce pigment. Although some may produce very pale yellow, buff or tan pigment but do not intensify upon light exposure

A

Runyon 3- Nonchromogenic

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37
Q

Runyon group consisting of rapid growers

A

Runyon 4

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38
Q

The Tween 80 test involves Lipase that is able to hydrolyze _____ _____ _____ into ____ _____ and ______ _____

A

Polysorbate 80 ➡️ Oleic Acid + polyoxyethylated sorbitol

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39
Q

Ph Indicator of Tween 80 test

A

Phenol red

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40
Q

They are resistant to heat, cold, drying, most chemicals and boiling

A

Spores

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41
Q

The gram negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, citrate -positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative, and H2S-positive

A

Salmonella enteritidis

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42
Q

The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive,indole-negative, and H2S-positive (SIM: + - +)

A

Proteus mirabilis

43
Q

Profuse water diarrhea “rice water stools”, leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of what toxin?

A

Cholera toxin

44
Q

The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar is especially formulated for isolating which pathogen from stool cultures?

A

Vibrio spp.

45
Q

The majority of human infections with Campylobacter spp. are caused by?

A

Contamination of food, milk or water with animal feces

46
Q

In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to ___ and ____

A

ammonia + CO2

47
Q

A cytotoxin that causes inflammation and ulcerative lesions, destroys epithelial cells, and results in bloody, mucous-laden stools

A

Shiga Toxin

48
Q

One of the most common causes of food-borne, human bacterial gastroenteritis in the US.

A

Campylobacter jejuni

49
Q

This organism grows well on XLD agar and is a nonfermenting organism that produces H2S, resulting in black pigment

A

Salmonella enteritidis

50
Q

This organims appears as clear colonies on XLD agar

A

Shigella sonnei

51
Q

Both of these organisms are lactose fermenting and appear as yellow colonies on XLD agar

A

Serratia and Klebsiella

52
Q

Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysi\ne, ornithine, and arginine results in the formation of what end-products

A

amines

53
Q 
Identify the organism:
TSI reaction:
K/A
H2s - negative
Gas - not produced
A

Shigella spp.

54
Q

The best specimen for the isolation of bordetella pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal swabs

55
Q

Gram-stain morphology of Brucella spp.

A

Gram - negative coccobacilli

56
Q

this organism is seen on patients with pneumonia and this requires specialized medium for growth, 35*C, CO2, and extended incubation, hold for 2 weeks

A

Legionella pneumophila

57
Q

Whic medium provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.

A

Chocolate agar (has X and V factors required for growth of Haemophilus spp.)

58
Q

Growth around the only the X and V factor disks on the agar surface in FactorRequirement Test supports the identification of what species

A

Haemophilus

59
Q

One of the HACEK group of bacteria known to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. It is asaccharolytic, oxidase- positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey Agar and produces a BLEACH-LIKE odor. It is often assoc. with wounds of the mouth or teeth

A

Eikenella corrodens

60
Q

The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, maltose-positive, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of bacterial meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis

61
Q

The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of venereal disease

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

62
Q

Gram stained appearance of the genus Neisseria

A

Gram-negative diplococci

63
Q

The Hugh-Leifson oxidative fermentative (OF) test shows a pH shift in the open glucose tube and no pH in the closed tube. this indicates this organism is an:
Oxidizer or Nonoxidizer?

A

Oxidizer

64
Q

This is a critical test when attempting to identify nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli

A

Oxidase Test

65
Q

The oxidase test is designed to determine the presence of this enzyme. This enzyme is also a part of the energy transfer cascade of intermediate metabolism.

A

Cytochrome oxidase

66
Q

The blood culture of a patient with a central venous catheter yielded a gram- negative bacillus (NLF) growing on MacConkey agar, green-lavender or yellow pigment on chocolate agar and blood agar, oxidase (-), catalase (+), and esculin (+). This organism strongly oxidizes maltose but only weakly oxidizes glucose

A

Stenotrophomonas maltophila

67
Q

This organism is associated with Meliodosis

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

68
Q

Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophila and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by which test?

A

Oxidase test
Stenotrophomonas: Oxidase (-)
Burkholderia: Oxidase (+)

69
Q

The respiratory culture of a patient with cystic fibrosis yielded a gram-negative bacillus, Oxidase (+), Soluble green pigment on TSA slant, Motility (+)

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

70
Q

Which test group best differentiates Acinetobacter baumannii from Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Oxidase, Motility, Nitrate reduction

Pseudomonas: Oxidase (+), Motile
Acinetobacter: Oxidase (-), Nonmotiel

71
Q

Cystic tryptic Agar (CTA) sugar reactions are used to differentiate Neisseria spp. If Moraxella catarrhalis is tested in this system, the isolate will be

A

Glucose, Maltose, Lactose, and Sucrose NEGATIVE

72
Q

A soluble, bright green pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known as

A

Pyocyanin

73
Q

A small portion of a colony of a gram-negative bacilli was smeared onto a filter paper test system. One percent tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride was added. At 10 secs, a dark purple color developed. What does this test result exhibit?

A

Positive oxidase Test

74
Q

Characteristics of both Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma genera

A

They only have a cell membrane with no cell wall

75
Q

What organism causes Nongonococcal Urethritis (NGU)

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

76
Q

This is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Nucleic Acid amplification

77
Q

This is the most common rickettsial disease in US and characterized by abrupt onset of fever headache and muscle aches, rash beginning on hands and feet spreading toward the trunk. Diagnosis includes fluorescent antibody or PCR

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

78
Q

Which stage of venereal syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre that typically heals within 6 weeks?

A

Primary syphilis

79
Q

It is nontreponemal serologic test in which soluble antigen particles are coalesced to form larger particles that are visible as clumps when they are aggregated by antibody?

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test

80
Q

Lyme disease with signs of partial facial paralysis and painful joints is caused by which infectious agent

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

81
Q

A lesion in the groin area, lack of demonstable organism in the lesion by gramstained smear, and reactive in RPR test can be diagnosed as syphilis caused by?

A

Treponema pallidum

82
Q

Under anaerobic incubation conditions, it grew as smooth, white nonhemolytic colonies. This organism was not inhibited by colistin, kanamycin, or vancomycin, and hydrolyzed esculin.

A

Bacteroides fragilis

83
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile is best confirmed by what laboratory finding?

A

Presence of the toxin in stool

84
Q

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis on SBA and gram-stained morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of?

A

Clostridium perfringens

85
Q

The most common way to confirm that an anaerobic system has the correct gas mixture

A

Change in color of the methylene blue indicator.

86
Q

In a clinical specimen from neck, mouth or resp tract, the presence of sulfur granules strongly indicates the presence of which anaerobic bacterium?

A

Actinomyces spp.

87
Q

These are a common element between using the E test and agar disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) for antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

Both establish an antibiotic gradient in agar

88
Q

What clinical condition would most benefit from having quantitative (MIC) testing rather than quantitative (Sensitive, Intermediate, Resistant categories) data from the laboratory?

A

Bacterial meningitis (from CNS)

89
Q

The lowest concentration of an antibiotic in dilution series that inhibits growth

A

Minimium Inhibition Concentration

90
Q

The higher the MIC of the drug for that organism; The _____ is the zone of inhibition

A

The larger is the zone of inhibition

91
Q

Infection and/or inflammation of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract

A

Urethritis

92
Q

Strptococcus pneumoniae commonly associated with Otitis Media is positive with

A

Optochin

93
Q

Organism most often responsible for Impetigo

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

94
Q

How do staphylococci spread so easily when infecting the skin?

A

They produce Hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid in the intracellular ground substance that makes up connective tissue

95
Q

Routine culture media for use with a specimen of CSF should include whic sets of media?

A

5% SBA, Chocolate Agar Thioglycolate broth

96
Q

Clinical symptoms include fever, intense headache, stiff neck, sensitivity to light and low WBCs. This is diagnosed as meningitis. What tests hould be ordered next?

A

CSF Gram Stain and culture

97
Q

What cells are found in bacterial vaginosis?

A

Clue cells

98
Q

Which term is used to describe an increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis) in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures?

A

Aseptic meningitis

99
Q

The culture of which sample routinely uses quantitation or the counting of bacterial cells present to assist in the interpretation? This is done to aid the differentiation of true infection from contamination

A

Urine

100
Q

These practices are done to ensure that the test results are accurate.

A

Quality Control

101
Q

The overall process of ensuring the quality of the results reported by the laboratory and includes quality control, employee training, and certification.

A

Quality Assurance

102
Q

Substances known or reasonably expected to contain pathogens

A

Infectious substances

103
Q

An example of inappropriate specimen or condition that would warrant rejection for microbiology culture

A

A 24-hr urine sample for bacteriology culture

Elsevier Review Questions (2 decks)

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