Chapter 1-5 Exam Flashcards
Consequences of ionization in human cells include
1. creation of unstable atoms.
2. production of free electrons.
3. creation of highly reactive free radicals capable of producing substances poisonous to the cell.
4. creation of new biologic molecules detrimental to the living cell.
5. injury to the cell that may manifest itself as abnormal function or loss of function.
1, 2, 3, 4, & 5
Which of the following is a form of radiation that is capable of creating electrically charged particles by removing orbital electrons from the atom of normal matter through which it passes?
a. Ionizing radiation
b. Nonionizing radiation
c. Subatomic radiation
d. Ultrasonic radiation
a. Ionizing Radiation
Regarding exposure to ionizing radiation, patients who are educated to understand the medical benefit of an imaging procedure are more likely to…
a. assume a small chance of biologic damage but not suppress any radiation phobia
they may have.
b. cancel their scheduled procedure because they are not willing to assume a small
chance of biologic damage.
c. suppress any radiation phobia but not risk a small chance of possible biologic
damage.
d. suppress any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small chance of possible
biologic damage.
D. Suppress any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small chance of possible biologic damage.
The millisievert (mSv) is equal to
a. 1/10 of a sievert.
b. 1/100 of a sievert.
c. 1/1000 of a sievert.
d. 1/10,000 of a sievert.
C. 1/1000 of a sievert
The advantages of the BERT method are
1. it does not imply radiation risk; it is simply a means for comparison.
2. it emphasizes that radiation is an innate part of our environment.
3. it provides an answer that is easy for the patient to comprehend.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, & 3
If a patient asks a radiographer a question about how much radiation he or she will receive from a specific x-ray procedure, the radiographer can
a. respond by using an estimation based on the comparison of radiation received
from the x-ray to natural background radiation received.
b. avoid the patient’s question by changing the subject.
c. tell the patient that it is unethical to discuss such concerns.
d. refuse to answer the question and recommend that he or she speak with the referring physician.
a. respond by using an estimation based on the comparison of radiation received
from the x-ray to natural background radiation received.
Why should the selection of technical exposure factors for all medical imaging procedures always follow ALARA?
a. So that referring physicians ordering imaging procedures do not have to accept responsibility for patient radiation safety.
b. So that radiographers and radiologists do not have to accept responsibility for patient radiation safety.
c. Because radiation-induced cancer does not appear to have a dose level below
which individuals would have no chance of developing this disease.
d. Because radiation-induced cancer does have a dose level at which individuals would have a chance of developing this disease.
C. Because radiation-induced cancer does not appear to have a dose level below which individuals would have no chance of developing this disease.
What are the cardinal principles of radiation protection?
Time
Distance
Shielding
In a hospital setting, which of the following professionals is expressly charged by the hospital administration with being directly responsible for the execution, enforcement, and maintenance of the ALARA program?
a. Assistant administrator of the facility
b. Chief of staff
c. Radiation Safety Officer
d. Student radiologic technologist
C. Radiation Safety Officer
Why is a question concerning the amount of radiation a patient will receive during a specific x-ray procedure difficult to answer?
1. Because the received dose is specified in a number of different units of measure
2. Because the scientific units for radiation dose are normally not comprehensible by a patient
3. Because the patient should not receive any information about radiation dose
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 & 2 only
X-rays are a form of which of the following kinds of radiation?
a. Environmental
b. Ionizing
c. Internal
d. Nonionizing
B. Ionizing
What unit is used to measure radiation exposure in the metric International System of Units?
a. Coulomb per kilogram
b. Milligray
c. Millisievert
d. Sievert
A. Coulomb per Kilogram
What organization was founded in 2007 that continues their pursuit to raise awareness of the need for dose reduction protocols by promoting pediatric-specified scan protocols to be used for both radiology and nonradiology users of CT?
a. U.S. Food and Drug Administration
b. Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging.
c. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists
d. The Joint Commission
B. Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging
Which of the following provides the basis for determining whether an imaging procedure or practice is justified?
a. ALARA concept
b. BERT method
c. Diagnostic efficacy
d. NEXT program
C. Diagnostic Efficacy
Which of the following is a method of explaining radiation to the public?
a. ALARA
b. BERT
c. ORP
d. NEXT
B. BERT
Radiology departments or individual radiologic technologists can “pledge” to image gently. The pledge includes which of the following?
1. Make the image gently message a priority in staff communications each year.
2. Review the protocol recommendations and, when necessary, implement adjustments to practice processes.
3. Communicate openly with parents.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, & 3
In a team approach to patient care, various participants
1. assume responsibility for their areas of expertise.
2. emphasize the importance of communication throughout the team
3. rotate as the person in charge of the team
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 & 2 only
Which of the following radiation quantities is intended to be the best overall measure of the biologic effects of ionizing radiation?
a. Exposure
b. Effective dose
c. Absorbed dose
d. There is no radiation quantity that is intended to be the best overall measure of the biologic effects of ionizing radiation.
B. Effective Dose
Typically, people are more willing to accept a risk if they perceive that the potential benefit to be obtained is
a. greater than the risk involved.
b. equal to the risk involved.
c. less than the risk involved.
d. typically, people are not willing to accept risk no matter how great the benefit may be.
A. Greater than the risk involved
Which of the following statements below is true?
a. It appears that no safe dose level exists for radiation-induced malignant disease.
b. The ALARA principle establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.
c. The BERT method establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.
d. The NEXT program and reference values establish a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.
A. It appears that no safe dose level exists for radiation-induced malignant disease.
The ALARA principle provides a method for comparing the amount of radiation used in various health care facilities in a particular area for specific imaging procedures. This information may be helpful to many
a. accrediting bodies.
b. advisory groups.
c. radiation standards organizations.
d. regulatory agencies.
D. Regulatory Agencies
The term as low as reasonable achievable (ALARA) is synonymous with the term
a. background equivalent radiation time (BERT).
b. equivalent dose (EqD).
c. diagnostic efficacy.
d. optimization for radiation protection (ORP).
D. optimization for radiation protection (ORP).
Diagnostic efficacy includes
1. determining if an imaging procedure is justified.
2. obtaining images with minimal radiation exposure.
3. adhering to radiation safety guidelines.
4. revealing the presence or absence of disease in a patient.
1, 2, 3, & 4
Which of the following are required by The Joint Commission for CT?
1. Annual education of staff in dose reduction techniques
2. Minimum qualifications for medical physicists
3. Documentation of CT radiation doses
4. Management of CT protocols to minimize radiation dose
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, & 4
Effective protective measures take into consideration
1. both human and environmental physical determinants.
2. technical elements.
3. procedural factors.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1,2,& 3
If ionizing radiation from natural sources grows larger because of accidental or deliberate human actions such as mining radioactive elements, the sources are termed
a. artificial sources.
b. enhanced natural sources.
c. extraterrestrial sources.
d. manmade sources.
B
Electromagnetic radiation travels or propagates through space in the form of a wave but can interact with matter as a particle of energy called a photon. This dual nature is referred to as
a. wave attenuation capability.
b. wave-particle interchange ability.
c. wave-particle duality.
d. wave-particle phenomena.
C
Which of the following statements concerning the 1979 nuclear reactor accident at TMI-2 is not true?
a. Many excess cancer deaths have been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident.
b. During the time of the accident, if persons living within a 100-mile radius of the nuclear power plant received an average radiation exposure of 15 microgray, and this dose is used as the population dose, then no more than two additional resulting cancer deaths can be predicted in the exposed inhabitants as a consequence of radiation exposure.
c. The average dose received by the exposed population living within a 50-mile radius of the TMI nuclear power station at the time of the accident was determined to be 0.08 mSv, which is well below the average annual background level.
d. No melt-through of the reactor vessel resulted during the accident.
A
Terrestrial radiation includes which of the following sources?
a. Long-lived radioactive elements such as uranium-238, radium-226, and
thorium-232 that are present in variable quantities in the crust of the earth
b. Radioactive fallout from nuclear weapons tests in which detonation occurred
above ground
c. The sun and beyond the solar system
d. Airport surveillance systems and electron microscopes
A
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) recommends that action be taken to reduce elevated levels of radon in homes to a concentration less than
a. 200 pCi/L.
b. 135 pCi/L.
c. 47 pCi/L.
d. 4 pCi/L.
D
Cosmic radiation occurs in which two forms?
a. Solar and manmade
b. Artificial and galactic
c. Natural background and artificial
d. Solar and galactic
D
As a result of technologic advances since the 1970s and strict regulations imposed within the United States by the FDA regarding
consumer products containing radioactive material, the radiation exposure of the general public from such produces may now be
considered
a. substantial.
b. moderate.
c. very slight.
d. negligible.
D
Through which of the following routes can radon enter houses?
1. Crawl spaces under living areas
2. Floor drains and sump pumps
3. Porous cement block foundations
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
D
Acute melting of the uranium dioxide fuel of a nuclear reactor core requires how great a temperature?
a. Less than 500° F
b. At least 1000° F
c. 2000° F
d. Greater than 5000° F
D
When exposed to high radon levels in the home, which of the following groups of people have the highest risk of developing lung
cancer?
a. Teenagers
b. Adults from 20 to 30 years of age
c. Nonsmokers
d. Smokers
D
Which of the following helps shield the global population from exposure to essentially all high-energy, bombarding cosmic rays?
a. Clouds
b. Fog
c. Atmosphere and magnetic field of the Earth
d. Smog
C
Which of the following is considered by the EPA to be the second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States?
a. Annual PA and lateral chest radiographic images
b. Cosmic ray exposure
c. Radon exposure
d. A fluoroscopic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract
C
Which of the following are forms of electromagnetic radiation?
1. Microwaves
2. Visible light
3. X-rays
4. Gamma rays
5. Ultraviolet radiation
ALL OF THEM
What is the most common unit of measure of equivalent dose?
a. Coulomb per kilogram
b. Milligray
c. Millisievert
d. Microsievert
C
In the electromagnetic spectrum, higher frequencies are associated with
a. longer wavelengths and lower energies.
b. longer wavelengths and higher energies.
c. shorter wavelengths and lower energies.
d. shorter wavelengths and higher energies.
D
Which of the following radiation quantities use the same unit of measure?
1. Effective dose and equivalent dose
2. Exposure and effective dose
3. Absorbed dose and equivalent dose
1 ONLY
A flight on a typical commercial airliner results in an equivalent dose rate of
a. 0.001 to 0.005 mSv/hr.
b. 0.005 to 0.01 mSv/hr.
c. 0.02 to 0.04 mSv/hr.
d. 0.05 to 0.09 mSv/hr.
B
The first decay product of radium is
a. cesium.
b. radon.
c. strontium.
d. x-ray.
B
When spread over the inhabitants of the United States, fallout from nuclear weapons tests and other environmental sources along
with other manmade radiations contributes
a. only a small portion of 0.1 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person.
b. a dose of approximately 1.5 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person.
c. a dose of approximately 3.2 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person.
d. a dose of approximately 6.3 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person.
A
What is the total average annual radiation equivalent dose for estimated levels of radiation exposure for humans?
a. 2.0 mSv
b. 3.2 mSv
c. 6.3 mSv
d. 9.6 mSv
C
The mass of an alpha particle is approximately
a. two times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a negative charge of minus 2.
b. four times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a positive charge twice that of an
electron.
c. six times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a negative charge of minus 1.
d. eight times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a positive charge four times that of
an electron.
B
What is the half-life of radon-220?
a. 54.5 seconds
b. 8 days
c. 2 years
d. 1622 years
A
Which of the following sources of radiation is manmade?
1. Atmospheric fallout from nuclear weapons testing
2. Cosmic radiation from the sun and beyond the solar system
3. Nuclear power plant accidents as a consequence of natural disasters
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
B
What is the latent period for most radiation-induced cancers?
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 15 years or more
D
Of the two sources of ionizing radiation listed below, which source remains fairly constant from year to year?
a. Manmade
b. Natural
B
Particles associated with electromagnetic radiation that have neither mass nor electric charge are
a. ions.
b. negatrons.
c. positrons.
d. x-ray photons.
D
Although coherent scattering is most likely to occur ____________, some of this unmodified scattering occurs throughout the
diagnostic range and may result in small amounts of radiographic fog.
a. at less than 10 keV
b. between 30 keV and 60 keV
c. between 60 keV and 90 keV
d. above 100 keV
A
Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter?
a. Compton scattering
b. Bremsstrahlung
c. Pair production
d. Photoelectric absorption
B
The symbol Z indicates
a. atomic number of an atom.
b. atomic weight of an atom.
c. fluorescent yield.
d. the number of vacancies in an atomic shell.
A
In photoelectric absorption to dislodge an inner-shell electron from its atomic orbit, the incoming x-ray photon must be able to
transfer a quantity of energy
a. less than the energy that holds the atom together.
b. 10 times as great as the energy that holds the atom together.
c. as large as or larger than the amount of energy that holds the electron in its orbit.
d. equal to or greater than 1.022 MeV, regardless of the energy that holds the
electron in its orbit.
C
Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons with matter involve a matter-antimatter annihilation reaction?
a. Compton scattering
b. Coherent scattering
c. Pair production
d. Photoelectric absorption
C
The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic
number of the irradiated atoms _________.
a. increases markedly; decreases
b. decreases markedly; increases
c. increases markedly; increases
d. stays the same; increases
C
Which of the following terms refers to the radiation that occurs when an electron spontaneously drops down from an outer shell of
an ionized atom to fill a vacancy in an inner shell of that atom?
a. Characteristic photon, or characteristic x-ray
b. Bremsstrahlung
c. Photoelectric radiation
d. Primary radiation
A
Fluorescent radiation is also known as
a. characteristic radiation.
b. coherent scattering.
c. Compton scattering.
d. unmodified scattering.
A
What is the effective atomic number of compact bone?
a. 5.9
b. 7.4
c. 7.6
d. 13.8
D
Which of the following is not another term for coherent scattering?
a. Characteristic
b. Classical
c. Elastic
d. Unmodified
A
Which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption?
a. Photoelectron and Compton-scattered electron
b. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon
c. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton-scattered electron
d. Photoelectron and characteristic photon
D
Which two interactions between x-radiation and matter may result in the production of small-angle scatter?
a. Photoelectric absorption and Compton scattering
b. Coherent scattering and Compton scattering
c. Photoelectric absorption and pair production
d. Coherent scattering and pair production
B
Which of the following particles is considered to be a form of antimatter?
a. Electron
b. Positron
c. X-ray photon
d. Scattered x-ray photon
B
Which of the following interactions results in the conversion of matter into energy?
a. Classical scattering
b. Photoelectric absorption
c. Modified scattering
d. Annihilation reaction
D
Compton scattering is synonymous with
a. coherent scattering.
b. incoherent scattering.
c. photoelectric absorption.
d. photodisintegration.
B
During the process of coherent scattering, an incident low-energy x-ray photon interacts with
a. a single inner-shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit.
b. a single outer-shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit.
c. an atom and may transfer its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the
atom to momentarily vibrate and radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic
waves.
d. a scattered photon of lesser energy, annihilating it.
C
What is the term for the number of x-rays emitted per inner-shell vacancy during the process of photoelectric absorption?
a. Characteristic absorption
b. Classical gain
c. Fluorescent yield
d. Modified pair production
C
Annihilation radiation is used in which of the following modalities?
a. Computed tomography
b. Digital mammography
c. Positron emission tomography
d. Computed radiography
C
The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is
a. 0.511 keV.
b. 1.022 keV.
c. 0.511 MeV.
d. 1.022 MeV.
D
If two anatomic structures have the same density and atomic number but one is twice as thick as the other, the thicker structure will
absorb
a. the same number of x-ray photons.
b. twice as many x-ray photons.
c. four times the number of x-ray photons.
d. eight times the number of x-ray photons.
B
Since the density of air is approximately _________________ than that of soft tissue, a given volume of air will interact with far
fewer x-ray photons than adjacent regions of soft tissue, thereby permitting more radiation to reach the image receptor.
a. 1000 times smaller
b. 1000 times larger
c. 100 times smaller
d. 100 times lager
A
When an inner electron is removed from an atom in a photoelectric interaction, thus causing an inner-shell vacancy, the energy
liberated when this vacancy is filled can be transferred to another electron of the atom, thereby ejecting that electron, instead of
emerging from the atom as characteristic radiation. What is this electron called?
a. Auger electron
b. Compton electron
c. Edison electron
d. Sievert electron
A
X-rays are carriers of
a. disease.
b. electrons.
c. fluorescent properties that make them visible.
d. manmade electromagnetic energy.
D
Who was the first American radiation worker to die from radiation-induced cancer in October of 1904?
a. Thomas A. Edison
b. Wilhelm C. Roentgen
c. Clarence Madison Dally
d. Marie Curie
C
Which of the following are early tissue reactions of ionizing radiation that were experienced by early radiation workers?
1. Diffuse redness of skin
2. Blood disorders
3. Organ atrophy
4. Intestinal disorders
a. 1, 2, and 3 only
b. 2, 3, and 4 only
c. 1, 2, and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
C
0.2 Gy equals
a. 2 mGy
b. 20 mGy
c. 200 mGy
d. 2000 mGy
C
The total kinetic energy released in a unit mass (kilogram) of air and expressed in metric units of joules per kilogram is
a. absorbed dose.
b. air kerma.
c. effective dose.
d. equivalent dose.
B
Which of the following is essentially the sum total of air kerma over the exposed area of the patient’s body surface?
a. Absorbed dose
b. Dose area product
c. Effective dose
d. Equivalent dose
B
The whole-body TEDE regulatory limit for exposed personnel is _____________ and ______________ for the general public.
a. 0.05 Sv; 0.001 Sv
b. 0.15 Sv; 0.015 Sv
c. 0.25 Sv; 0.025 Sv
d. 0.5 Sv; 0.1 Sv
A
As the intensity of x-ray exposure of the air volume increases, the number of electron-ion pairs produced
a. also increases.
b. decreases considerably.
c. decreases slightly.
d. remains the same.
A
What do radiation weighting factors take into consideration?
1. The overall risk of exposure to humans from ionizing radiation
2. Both the internal and external dose measurements
3. The fact that some types of radiation are more efficient at causing biologic damage than other types of radiation for a given dose.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
C
1 gray equals
a. 10 J/kg.
b. 100 J/kg.
c. 100 cGy.
d. 1000 cGy.
C
In the SI system, an energy absorption of 1 J/kg of matter in the irradiated object equals which of the following?
a. 10 Sv
b. 5 C/kg
c. 1 mSv
d. 1 Gy
D
Cataract formation, fibrosis, reduced fertility and sterility are classified as
a. early tissue reactions of ionizing radiation.
b. late tissue reactions of ionizing radiation.
c. hereditary effects of ionizing radiation.
d. stochastic effects of ionizing radiation.
B
Which of the following types of ionizing radiation produce virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed
doses?
a. X-rays, beta particles, and gamma rays
b. Alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays
c. X-rays, neutrons, and gamma rays
d. X-rays, alpha particles, and fast neutrons
A
What theory relates the ionization produced in a small cavity within an irradiated medium or object to the energy absorbed in that
medium as a result of its radiation exposure?
a. Air kerma
b. Bragg-Gray
c. Committed dose
d. Tissue kerma
B
If 400 people receive an average effective dose of 0.25 Sv, what is the collective effective dose?
a. 100 person-Sv
b. 200 person-Sv
c. 800 person-Sv
d. 1600 person-Sv
A
For x-ray and gamma ray photons with energies up to 3 million electron volts (MeV), which of the following radiation quantities
may be defined as the measure of the total electric charge of one sign, either all pluses or all minuses, per unit mass that these two
types of radiation generate in dry air at standard temperature and pressure (760 mm Hg or 1 atmosphere at sea level and 22° C)?
a. Absorbed dose
b. Equivalent dose
c. Exposure
d. Collective effective dose
C
Which of the following formulas is used to calculate effective dose?
1. EfD = (D × WR)1 + (D × WR)2 + (D × WR)3
2. EfD = D × WR × WT
3. EfD = D ÷ WR × WT
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
B
Alpha particles have a radiation weighting factor (WR) that is numerically equal to
a. 1.
b. 5.
c. 10.
d. 20.
D
Which of the following units of measure are not SI units?
1. Roentgens
2. Coulombs per kilogram, grays, sieverts
3. Rads and rems
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
D
How is dose area product usually specified?
a. In coulomb per kilogram
b. In ergs per gram
c. In subunits of millisievert
d. In units of mGy-cm2
D
What instrument can be calibrated to read air kerma?
a. Amp meter
b. Coulomb counter
c. Standard, or free-air, ionization chamber
d. Voltmeter
C
Which of the following is the SI unit of electric current?
a. Ampere
b. Coulomb per kilogram
c. Erg
d. Sievert
A
Beta particles are actually
a. gamma rays.
b. high-speed electrons.
c. protons.
d. x-rays.
B
Among physicians, cancer deaths attributed to x-ray exposure were reported as early as
a. 1910.
b. 1930.
c. 1937.
d. 1945.
A
In therapeutic radiology what SI units are now routinely used to specify absorbed dose?
a. Coulomb per kilogram and roentgen
b. Air kerma and microgray
c. Gray and centigray
d. Sievert and millisievert
C
Who discovered x-rays on November 8, 1895?
a. Thomas A. Edison
b. Clarence Madison Dally
c. Louis Harold Gray
d. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
D
Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter. Of what are
these filters made?
a. Aluminum, tin, and copper
b. Aluminum, tin, and lead
c. Zinc, copper, and barium
d. Zinc, copper, and lead
A
What is the maximum period of time that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) may be worn as a personnel device?
a. 1 hour
b. 1 week
c. 1 month
d. 3 months
D
What do optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters, thermoluminescent dosimeters, pocket ionization chambers, and digital
ionization dosimeters have in common?
a. These devices are all used for area monitoring.
b. These devices all use the same sensing material to detect ionizing radiation.
c. These devices are all used for personnel monitoring.
d. Each of these devices can only be used for personnel monitoring for a maximum
of 6 months.
C
Which of the following instruments is called a cutie pie?
a. Geiger-Muller survey meter
b. Ionization chamber-type survey meter
c. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
d. Proportional counter
B
Which of the following instruments generally has a check source of a weak, long-lived radioisotope located on one side of its
external surface to verify its constancy daily?
a. Pocket dosimeter
b. Proportional counter
c. Geiger-Muller survey meter
d. Ionization chamber-type survey meter
C
Which of the following devices contains an aluminum oxide detector?
a. Digital ionization dosimeter
b. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
c. Pocket ionization chamber
d. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
B
When the sensing crystals contained in the thermoluminescent dosimeter are irradiated, which of the following occurs?
a. The protons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy
and are excited to a higher energy level or bands.
b. The neutrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy
and are excited to a higher energy level or bands.
c. Some of the electrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule
absorb energy and are excited to higher energy levels or bands.
d. The electrons freed from the LiF molecule are trapped at a lower energy level or
bands.
C
Because of the OSL dosimeter’s sensitivity down to as low as 10 μSv for x-ray and gamma ray photons in the energy range 5 keV
to 40 MeV, it is an excellent and practical monitoring device for
a. employees working in high-radiation environments and for non-pregnant workers.
b. employees working in low-radiation environments and for pregnant workers.
c. members of the general public not occupationally employed.
d. Pregnant employees working in high-radiation environments.
B
The effective atomic number (Zeff) of lithium fluoride (LiF) is equal to
a. 5.9.
b. 6.4.
c. 7.0.
d. 8.2.
D
Which of the following are advantages of the personnel digital ionization dosimeter?
1. Instant access to reports
2. No waiting time for mailing dosimeters
3. Lightweight and durable
4. Can be dropped or scratched with little chance of harm to the device
a. 1, 2, and 3 only
b. 1, 2, and 4 only
c. 2, 3, and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D
Which of the following personnel dosimeters resembles an ordinary fountain pen externally?
a. Personnel digital ionization dosimeter
b. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
c. Pocket ionization chamber
d. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
C
Of the following, which are disadvantages of using pocket ionization chambers as personnel dosimeters?
1. They can discharge if they are subjected to mechanical shock.
2. Because these devices provide no permanent legal record of exposure, health care facilities that use this method to record
personnel exposure must delegate someone to keep such a record.
3. If not read each day, the dosimeter may give an inaccurate reading because the electric charge tends to escape.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
D
Which component(s) of the Geiger-Muller survey meter alerts the operator to the presence of ionizing radiation?
a. The shield covering the probe’s sensitivity chamber
b. An audio amplifier and speaker
c. The metal that encloses the counter’s gas-filled tube
d. The meter scale
B
Which of the following is not a requirement that radiation survey instruments must meet?
a. They must all be equally sensitive in the detection of ionizing radiation.
b. They should be able to detect all common types of ionizing radiation.
c. They should be calibrated annually to ensure accurate operation.
d. They should interact with ionizing radiation similarly to the way human tissue
reacts.
A
Medical physicists use ionization chambers connected to electrometers to perform the annual standard measurements required by
state, federal, and health care accreditation organizations for radiographic and fluoroscopic devices. These annual measurements
include
1. x-ray output in Gy or mGy.
2. fluoroscopic radiation entrance rates in mSv/min.
3. kVp setting accuracy.
4. exposure time exactness.
5. half-value layers, or beam quality
a. 1, 2, and 3 only
b. 1, 3, and 4 only
c. 2, 3, and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
D
When changing employment, what must a radiation worker convey to his/her new employer?
a. A list of all fluoroscopic procedures performed daily
b. A list of all radiographic procedures performed daily
c. Data pertinent to accumulated permanent equivalent dose to be placed on file
d. A report of all procedures performed when “on call” after regular hours
C
The digital ionization dosimeter provides an instant read-out of dose information when connected to a computer via a connector
such as a (an)
a. universal serial bus (USB).
b. charge-coupled device.
c. electrometer.
d. ionization chamber.
A
The front of the white paper packet of the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter
a. may be color coded to facilitate correct usage and placement of the dosimeter on
the body of occupationally exposed personnel.
b. must not have any type of printing on it.
c. must be radiopaque.
d. must never be exposed to ionizing radiation.
A
Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter. These
filters are respectively made of
1. aluminum.
2. copper.
3. molybdenum.
4. rhenium tungsten.
5. tin.
a. 1, 2, and 3 only
b. 1, 2, and 4 only
c. 1, 2, and 5 only
C
An ionization chamber connected to an electrometer is a device that can measure
a. electromagnetic force.
b. tiny electric currents with high precision and accuracy.
c. potential difference.
d. Voltage in an x-ray machine circuit
B
Which of the following personnel monitoring devices can be used to provide an immediate exposure readout for a radiation
worker?
1. Personnel digital ionization dosimeter
2. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter without an in-house reader
3. Pocket ionization chamber
4. Thermoluminesence dosimeter
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 2 and 4 only
B
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the optically stimulated dosimeter?
a. Exposure not determinable on the day of occurrence without an in-house reader
b. Mechanical shock can cause false high reading.
c. No permanent, legal record of exposure
d. Not cost-effective for large numbers of personnel
A
Whenever the letter “M” appears under the current monitoring period or in the cumulative columns of a personnel monitoring
report, it signifies that a (an)
a. mistake has been made in recording the equivalent dose.
b. equivalent dose higher than the minimum measurable radiation quantity was
recorded during that time.
c. equivalent dose below the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded
during that time.
d. maximal equivalent dose has been exceeded during that time.
C
The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter is “read out” by using a (an)
a. densitometer.
b. ionization chamber.
c. thermoluminescent analyzer.
d. laser light at selected frequencies.
D
