Chap 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is true about confusion

A

Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in an older adult

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2
Q

Which of the following medications will help decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear

A

Diamond

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3
Q

The hallmark of an absence seizure

A

A blank stare

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4
Q

How often should the drug levels of a seizure medication be monitored when the seizure medication has controlled the seizure and the drug levels are adequate

A

Every 6 months

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5
Q

Which of the following persons fits the description of a patient with MS

A

A 25 year old female

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6
Q

Which of the following is a specific test to MS

A

There is no specific test for MS

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7
Q

Which drug for Alzheimer’s should be administered at the beginning at the time of diagnosis?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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8
Q

Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and Results from tears in the Middle meningeal artery

A

Epidural hematoma

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9
Q

Which cranial nerve in the cerebral vascular accident patient is Affected when the patient has difficulty chewing

A

CN V

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10
Q

Which statement best describes a carotid bruit

A

The higher the pitch of the bruit, the greater degree of stenosis.

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11
Q

Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache

A

A 45 year old male awakened at night

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12
Q

Inattention and sleep wake cycle disturbances are hallmark signs of

A

Delirium

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13
Q
13.	Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
a.
Purulent meningitis
b.
Chronic meningitis
c.
Aseptic meningitis
d.
Herpes meningitis
A

c.

Aseptic meningitis

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14
Q
14.	Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?
a.
MRI
b.
CT
c.
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d.
An initial lumbar puncture
A

a.

MRI

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15
Q
  1. What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
    a.
    A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
    b.
    A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
    c.
    A pain that is worse upon awakening
    d.
    A lesion on the exterior ear canal
A

b.

A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

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16
Q
  1. Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
    a.
    “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
    b.
    “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
    c.
    “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
    d.
    “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
A

a.

“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

17
Q
  1. Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
    a.
    “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
    b.
    “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
    c.
    “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
    d.
    “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
A

“The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”

18
Q
18.	Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
a.
Resting tremor
b.
Bradykinesia
c.
Rigidity
d.
Postural instability
A

Postural instability

19
Q
\_\_\_\_	19.	Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?
a.
Light sensitivity
b.
Pulsatile pain
c.
Sound sensitivity
d.
Experiencing an aura
A

Pulsation pain

20
Q

____ 20. Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?
a.
The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b.
There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c.
Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d.
The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

A

b.

There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.

21
Q
21.	Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?
a.
Greater than 25%
b.
Greater than 50%
c.
Greater than 75%
d.
Only for 100% occlusion
A

> 50%

22
Q
\_\_\_\_	22.	What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?
a.
Aspirin
b.
Ticlopidine
c.
Clopidogrel
d.
Aspirin and clopidogrel
A

Aspirin

23
Q
\_\_\_\_	23.	Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
a.
MRI
b.
CT
c.
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d.
EEG
A

EEG

24
Q
24.	Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?
a.
Sam-e
b.
Saint John’s Wort
c.
Melatonin
d.
Saw Palmetto
A

Saint Johns Wort

25
Q

____ 25. Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
a.
Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b.
Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c.
Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d.
Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean

A

Asking the patient about a news event from the current week

26
Q
\_\_\_\_	26.	About 90% of all headaches are?
a.
Tension
b.
Migraine
c.
Cluster
d.
Without pathological cause
A

Without pathological cause

27
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
    a.
    Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
    b.
    After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
    c.
    Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
    d.
    These persons may drive but never alone.
A

Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

28
Q
\_\_\_\_	28.	Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
a.
Glatiramer acetate
b.
Natalizumab
c.
Fingolimod
d.
Glucocorticoids
A

Natalizumab

29
Q
\_\_\_\_	29.	The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
a.
Parkinson’s disease
b.
Alzheimer’s disease
c.
A CVA
d.
Bell’s palsy
A

Parkinson’s disease

30
Q
30.	A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
a.
Spinothalamic dysfunction
b.
Ratcheting
c.
Cogwheeling
d.
Hand tremors
A

Cogwheeling

31
Q
\_\_\_\_	31.	Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?
a.
Guillain-Barré syndrome
b.
Parkinson’s disease
c.
Alzheimer’s disease
d.
Huntington’s disease

____

A

Parkinson’s disease

32
Q
32.	Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?
a.
Guillain-Barré syndrome
b.
Parkinson’s disease
c.
Alzheimer’s disease
d.
Delirium
A

Alzheimer’s disease

33
Q
33.	A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:
a.
SLUMS
b.
MoCA
c.
FAST
d.
MMSE
A

MMSE

34
Q
\_\_\_\_	34.	Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
a.
1 hour
b.
3 hours
c.
6 hours
d.
12 hours
A

3 hours

35
Q
\_\_\_\_	35.	When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
a.
Tension
b.
Migraine
c.
Cluster
d.
Stress
A

Cluster