Chap 2 Physical Exam Flashcards

1
Q

7 bones of the skull:

A

Two Frontal
Two Parietal
Two Temporal
One Occipital

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2
Q

Facial bones:

A
Frontal
Nasal
Zygomatic 
Ethmoid
Lacrimal
Sphenoid
Maxillary
Mandible
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3
Q

Major Facial Landmarks

A

Palpebral Fissures

Nasolabial Folds

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4
Q

Facial muscles are innervated by what cranial nerves?

A

CN V and CN VII

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5
Q

What forms the neck?

A

Cervical vertebrae

Ligaments

Sternocleidomastoid muscle

Trapezius muscle

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6
Q

Lymph nodes, ducts, various tissues, responsible for lymph fluid drainage and immune responses

A

Lymphatic system

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7
Q

How many posterior cervical lymph chains are there?

A

2

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8
Q

Two lateral lobes are butterfly shaped and are joined by an isthmus at their lower aspect

A

Thyroid

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9
Q

What mainly covers the thyroid lobes?

A

Sternocleidomastoid muscle

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10
Q

What history of present illness questions are good for a patient with a thyroid problem?

A
Temperature preference
Neck swelling
Skin & Hair Texture
Emotional Status
Eye Prominence
Menstrual and bowel patterns
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11
Q

Nodding synchronized with pulse would indicate?

A

Aortic insufficiency

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12
Q

Unilateral hearing/vision loss.

Patient’s head is tilted, favoring one side

A

Torticollis

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13
Q

Expression or appearance of the face from a clinical condition

A

Facies

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14
Q

Hair texture that indicates hypothyroidism

A

Coarse, dry, and brittle

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15
Q

Hair texture that indicates hyperthyroidism

A

Fine, silky

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16
Q

Stensen duct

A

Parotid duct, Maxillary Second Molar

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17
Q

Wharton duct

A

Submandibular duct, small papilla at the sides of the frenulum

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18
Q

Enlarged tender salivary gland would indicate:

A

Viral or Bacterial infection

Ductal stone

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19
Q

Discrete salivary gland would indicate:

A

Cyst or tumor

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20
Q

Percussion on the masseter muscle may produce a hyperactive masseteric reflex

A

Chvostek sign

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21
Q

Bruits over the eye and occiput with diplopia may suggest:

A

Cerebral Aneurysm

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22
Q

Bruits over the temporal artery are associated with:

A

Temporal arteritis

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23
Q

Trachea tugging sensation, synchronous with the pulse suggests:

(Cardarelli sign or Oliver sign)

A

Aortic aneurysm

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24
Q

Thyroid is approximately how big?

A

4cm

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25
Q

Right lobe of the thyroid is often what percent larger than the left?

A

25%

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26
Q

Coarse/Grittiness thyroid indicates:

A

Thyroiditis (Inflammatory process)

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27
Q

Hard/irregular thyroid nodules suggest:

A

Malignancy

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28
Q

Enlarged and tender thyroid may indicate:

A

Thyroiditis

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29
Q

Persistent, recurrent, and severe headaches may indicate:

A

Brain tumor or migraines

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30
Q

Webbing or short neck may indicate:

A

Chomosomal anomalies

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31
Q
  • Puffy, dulled yellowed skin
  • Coarse, sparse hair
  • Temporal loss of eyebrows
  • Periorbital edema
  • Prominent tongue
A

Myxedema

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32
Q
  • Fine, moist skin
  • Fine hair
  • Prominent eyes
  • Lid retraction
  • Staring/startled expression
A

Hyperthyroidism

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33
Q
  • Coarsened features
  • Broadened nasal alae
  • Prominence of zygomatic arches
A

Acromegaly

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34
Q
  • Sunken eyes, cheeks, temporal areas
  • Sharp nose
  • Dry, rough skin
  • Terminal stages of illness
A

Hippocratic facies

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35
Q
  • Butterfly rash
  • Malar surfaces and bridge of nose
  • Blush with swelling
  • Scaly, red maculopapular lesions
A

Lupus (SLE)

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36
Q
  • Freely movable cystic mass
  • High in neck
  • Midline
  • Duct at base of tongue
  • Remnant of fetal development
A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

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37
Q

Salivary glands most commonly have tumors

A

Parotid

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38
Q

Wry Neck

From birth trauma, tumors, trauma, cranial nerve palsy, muscle spasms, infection, drug ingestion

A

Torticollis

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39
Q

Skin and tissue disorder usually due to severe prolonged hypothyroidism

A

Myxedema

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40
Q

Autoimmune, antibodies to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor, leading to overactive thyroid

Characterized by diffuse thyroid enlargement (goiter)

A

Graves’ disease

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41
Q

Autoimmune antibodies against thyroid gland, often causing hypothyroidism

A

Hashimoto disease

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42
Q

Glands in the eyelid provide oils to tear film

A

Meibomian glands

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43
Q

Provides a skeleton for the eyelid

A

Tarsus

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44
Q

Thin and clear mucous membrane covering most of the anterior surface of the eye and eyelid

A

Conjunctiva

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45
Q

Conjunctiva that coats the inside of the eyelids

A

Palpebral

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46
Q

Conjunctiva that protects the anterior surface of the eye (except the cornea) and the surface of the eyelid in contact with the globe

A

Bulbar

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47
Q

Eye muscles

A

Superior, inferior, medial, lateral rectus

Superior and inferior obliques

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48
Q

What cranial nerve controls the levator palpebrae superior (which elevates and retracts the upper eyelid)?

A

CN III

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49
Q

What cranial nerve controls superior, inferior, medial rectus muscles and the inferior oblique muscles?

A

CN III

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50
Q

CN that controls the superior oblique muscle

A

CN IV

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51
Q

CN that controls the lateral rectus muscle

A

CN VI

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52
Q

Posterior outer layer of the eye

A

Sclera

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53
Q

Anterior outer layer of the eye

A

Cornea

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54
Q

Posterior middle layer (uvea) of the eye

A

Choroid

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55
Q

Anterior middle layer (uvea) of the eye

A

Ciliary body and iris

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56
Q

Inner layer of the eye

A

Retina

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57
Q

Posterior 5/6 of the globe, dense, avascular white portion of the eye

Supports the internal structure of the eye

A

Sclera

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58
Q

Anterior 1/6 of the glove and is continuous with the sclera

Optically clear, has rich sensory innervation, and is avascular

Major refractive power of the eye

A

Cornea

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59
Q

Composed by the iris, ciliary body, and choroids

A

Uvea

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60
Q

Produces aqueous humor (fluid that circulates between the lens and cornea)

Contains the muscles controlling accommodation

A

Ciliary body

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61
Q

Pigmented, richly vascular layer that supplies oxygen to the outer layer of the retina

A

Choroid

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62
Q

Biconcave, transparent, elastic structure that changes its thickness to focus images on retina (refraction)

A

Lens

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63
Q

Sensory network of the eye (transforms light impulses into electric impulses that are transmitted to the brain)

A

Retina

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64
Q

What allows for color perception and central vision

A

Macula/Fovea

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65
Q

Eye nerve origin

A

Optic disk

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66
Q

Risk factor for cataract formation, glaucoma, macular degeneration, thyroid eye disease

A

Cigarette Smoking

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67
Q

Distance for near visual acuity

A

35 cm, or 14 inches

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68
Q

Distance used for peripheral vision, confrontation test

A

1m (3 feet)

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69
Q

Irregularly shaped, yellow-tinted lesions suggestive of abnormality of lipid metabolism

A

Xanthelasma lesion

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70
Q

Eyelid tremors when the eye is closed could indicate:

A

Hyperthyroidism

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71
Q

Lids do not completely close

A

Lagophthalmos

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72
Q

If one superior eyelid covers more of the iris than the other, or extends over the pupil

A

Ptosis

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73
Q

Patient has ptosis.

What could be the cause?

A

Weakness of levator muscle

Paresis of a branch of CN III

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74
Q

Lid is turned away from the eye (may result in excessive tearing)

A

Ectropion

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75
Q

Lid is turned inward toward the globe (may cause irritation, increased risk of infection)

A

Entropion

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76
Q

Acute supportive inflammation (staphylococcal) of the follicle of an eyelash that forms an erythematous or yellow lump

A

Hordeolum (stye)

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77
Q

Crusting along the eyelashes caused by bacterial infection

Seborrhea, psoriasis, rosacea, or allergic response

A

Blepharitis

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78
Q

Firm eye palpation may indicate:

A

Severe glaucoma or tumor

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79
Q

Erythematous or cobblestone eye conjunctiva could indicate:

A

Allergies or infectious conjunctivitis

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80
Q

Bright red blood in a sharply defined area surrounded by healthy-appearing conjunctiva

A

Subconjunctiva hemorrhage

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81
Q

Abnormal growth of conjunctiva that extends over the cornea from the limbus

A

Pterygium

82
Q

What uses sensory fibers of CN V and motor fibers of CN VII?

A

Blinking

83
Q

Lipids deposited in the periphery of the cornea

A

Corneal arcus (arcus senilis)

84
Q

Pupillary constriction to less than 2 mm

A

Miosis

85
Q

Pupils fails to dilate in the dark (common with narcotics)

A

Miotic

86
Q

Pupillary dilation of more than 6mm and failure of the pupils to constrict with light

A

Mydriasis

87
Q

Inequality of pupillary size

A

Anisocoria

88
Q

Accommodation should be tested how far from patients’ nose?

A

10 cm

89
Q

Yellow or green sclera would indicate:

A

Liver or a hemolytic disease

90
Q

Dark or slate gray pigment of the sclera would indicate:

A

Senile Hyaline plaque

91
Q

What tests the balance of extraocular muscles?

A

Corneal light reflex

92
Q

Distance the light is shined from a corneal light reflex

A

30 cm

93
Q

Outward strabismic

A

Exotropic

94
Q

Inward strabismic

A

Esotropic

95
Q

Distance you want to start for an internal eye exam

A

30 cm (12 inches)

96
Q

Eye arterioles are smaller than venules at a ratio of:

A

3:5 to 2:3

97
Q

Retina converges to the optic nerve. No photoreceptors, “Blind Spot”

A

Optic disk

98
Q

Diameter of the optic disk

A

1.5mm

99
Q

What is 2-disc diameters temporal to the optic disc?

A

Macula (or Fovea)

100
Q

Fundoscopic exam:

  • Small discrete spots
  • Slightly more yellow than retina
  • Enlarge with time
  • Conditions affecting pigment layers of retina
  • Aging; precursor of senile macular degeneration
A

Drusen bodies

101
Q

Fundoscopic exam:

  • ill defined yellow spots
  • Infarction of retinal nerve layer
  • vascular disease from HTN or DM
A

Cotton wool spots

102
Q

Protrusion of the eye

Lids don’t reach iris

A

Exophthalmos

103
Q

Inflammation of superficial layers of sclera

A

Episcleritis

104
Q

Calcium deposition in superficial cornea

Horizontal grayish bands, dark areas

A

Band Keratopathy

105
Q

Disruption of corneal epithelium and stroma

Infection (bacterial/viral) or desiccation

Contact lens wearer

A

Coneal Ulcer

106
Q

Both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously

A

Strabismus

107
Q

Internal eye, pupil abnormality

Interruption of sympathetic nerve innervation to the eye

A

Horner syndrome

108
Q

Lens opacity

Usually from denaturation of lens protein (aging)

A

Cataracts

109
Q

Dot hemorrhage or micro-aneurysms

Hard exudates (bright yellow, superficial in retina)
Soft exudates (cotton-wool spots, dull gray spots)
A

Diabetic retinopathy

110
Q

Development of new vessels as a result of anoxic stimulation

  • Peripheral retina or optic nerve
  • Increased hemorrhage risk leads to blindness
A

Proliferative

111
Q

Creamy white appearance of retinal vessels

Seum triglycerides >2000mg/dL

Hyperlipidemic states

A

Lipemia Retinalis

112
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder in which the genetic defects cause cell death, predominately in the rod photoreceptors

Loss of night vision

Optic Atrophy “waxy pallor” narrowing of arterioles

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

113
Q

Disease of the optic nerve wherein the nerve cells die

Usually because of high IOP

Characteristic “cupping” of optic nerve

A

Glaucoma

114
Q

Inflammatory process involving both the choroid and the retina

White yellow lesion

Strippled with dark pigment later stage

Chorioretinal scar

A

Chorioretinitis

115
Q

Defective vision or blindness in 1/2 of the visual field

A

Hemianopia

116
Q

Loss of vision closest to the temples

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

117
Q

Loss of half of the field of view on the same side in both eyes

A

Homonymous hemianopia

118
Q

Secretes cerumen

A

Apocrine glands

119
Q

What does cerumen do?

A

Provides an acidic pH environment (inhibits growth of mocroorganisms)

120
Q

3 small connected bones of the middle ear

Malleus, incus, and stapes

A

Ossicles

121
Q

Membranous, curved cavity inside a bony labyrinth consisting of the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea

A

Inner ear

122
Q

Coiled structure containing the organ of Corti, transmits sound impulses to the CN VIII

A

Cochlea

123
Q

Contain the end organs for vestibular function

Equilibrium receptors here respond to movement and send signals to the cerebellum to maintain balance

A

Semicircular canals and vestibule

124
Q

Openings of the nose, surrounded by cartilaginous ala nasi and columella

A

Nares

125
Q

Part of the nose formed by the frontal and maxillary bones

A

Bridge

126
Q

Internal nose, formed by the hard and soft palate

A

Nasal floor

127
Q

Internal nose, formed by the frontal and sphenoid bone

A

Nasal roof

128
Q

Location of the receptors for smell

A

Olfactory epithelium

129
Q

Lies on the roof of the nose and houses the sensory endings of the olfactory nerve

A

Cribriform plate

130
Q

Convergence of small fragile arteries and veins, located on the anterior-superior portion of the septum

A

Kieselbach plexus

131
Q

Lymphatic nodules that lie on the posterior wall of the nasopharynx

A

Adenoids

132
Q

Parallel, curved bony structures covered by vascular mucous membrane

A

Turbinates

133
Q

Increases the nasal surface area to warm, humidify, and filter inspired air

A

Turbinates

134
Q

Inferior turbinate meatus drains the:

A

Nasolacrimal duct

135
Q

Middle turbinate meatus drains the:

A

Paranasal sinuses

136
Q

Superior turbinate meatus drains the:

A

Posterior ethmoid sinus

137
Q

Air-filled, paired extensions of the nasal cavities within the bones of the skull

A

Paranasal sinuses

138
Q

Sinuses that lie behind the frontal sinuses and near the superior portion of the nasal cavity

A

Ethmoid sinuses

139
Q

Deep sinuses in the skull behind the ethmoid sinuses

A

Sphenoid

140
Q

Dorsal surface of the tongue covered with thick mucous membrane supporting the:

A

Filiform papillae

141
Q

What is scattered throughout the filiform papillae of the tongue and has taste receptors?

A

Fungiform papillae

142
Q

Attached to the alveolar ridges (alveolar process) of the maxilla and mandible

A

Teeth

143
Q

Sudden hearing loss may indicate:

A

Vascular or autoimmune process

144
Q

Hearing loss in a few hours or days may indicate:

A

Viral infection

145
Q
  • Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin)
  • Chemotherapy (Cisplatin)
  • Antimalarial (Quinine)
  • Salicylates
  • Furosemide
A

Ototoxic medications

146
Q

Thickening along the upper ridge of the helix

A

Darwin tubercle

147
Q

Ear:

Results from blunt trauma and necrosis of the underlying cartilage

A

Cauliflower ear

148
Q

Small, whitish uric acid crystals along the peripheral margins of the auricles (may include gout)

A

Tophi

149
Q

Whisper hearing test:

Unable to correctly repeat what percentage of words indicates a hearing impairment

A

50%

150
Q

Helps assess unilateral hearing loss

A

Weber test

151
Q

Helps distinguish whether the patient hears better by air or bone conduction

A

Rinne test

152
Q

Bridge of tissue separating the nares

A

Columella

153
Q

Compared to buccal mucosa, nasal mucosa should be:

A

More pink

154
Q

Bluish gray or pale pink turbinates with a swollen boggy consistency may indicate:

A

Allergies

155
Q

Dry, cracked lips

A

Cheilitis

156
Q

Deep fissures at the corners of the mouth

A

Angular cheilitis

157
Q

Circumoral pallor may be associated with:

A

Scarlet fever due to a strep infection

158
Q

Round, oval, or irregular bluish gray macules on lips and or buccal mucosa

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

159
Q

Red spot on the opening of the Stensen duct, is associated with:

A

Parotitis (Mumps)

160
Q

White, round, or oval ulcerative lesions with a red halo

A

Aphthous ulcers

161
Q

Thick, white patch lesion that cannot be wiped away

Premalignant oral lesion

A

Leukoplakia

162
Q

Diffuse, filmy grayish surface with white streaks, wrinkles, or milky alteration

Normal variant, asymptomatic oral benign lesion

A

Leukoedema

163
Q

Teeth:

Yellow stained

A

Tabacco

164
Q

Teeth:

Brown stained

A

Coffee or tea

165
Q

Teeth:

Discolorations on the crown

A

Suspect caries

166
Q

Protrusion of the upper incisors

A

Overbite

167
Q

Protrusion of lower incisors or failure of the upper incisors to overlap with the lower incisors

A

Cross-bite

168
Q

Failure of back teeth to meet

A

Open Bite

169
Q

Superficial denuded circles or irregular areas exposing the tips of the papillae of the tongue

A

Geographic tongue

170
Q

Glossitis (smooth red tongue with slick appearance) may indciate:

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

171
Q

Hairy tongue, yellow-brown to black elongated papillae on the dorsum, usually follows what treatment?

A

Antibiotic therapy

172
Q

Ducts apparent on each side of the frenulum

A

Wharton

173
Q

Indicates sublingual salivary gland obstruction

A

Ranula (macocele)

174
Q

Non-midline nodule in the palate may indicate:

A

Tumor

175
Q

Bony protuberance at the midline of hard palate

A

Torus palatinus

176
Q

Deviation of the soft palate when the patient says “ah” may indicate:

A

Vagus nerve paralysis

Peritonsillar abscess

177
Q

Abnormal squamous epithelial tissue behind the tympanic membrane

A

Cholesteatoma

178
Q

Reduced transmission of sound to the middle ear

A

Conductive hearing loss

179
Q

Reduced transmission of sound in the inner ear

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

180
Q

Inner ear disorder characterized by episodes of hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, ear fullness

A

Meniere Disease

181
Q

Illusion of rotational movement by the patient, often due to a disorder of the inner ear

A

Vertigo

182
Q

Deep infection in the space between the palatine tonsil capsule and pharyngeal muscles

A

Peritonsillar abscess

183
Q

Life-threatening deep neck space infection that has the potential to occlude the airway; occurs in the potential space extending from the base of the skull to the posterior mediastinum between the posterior pharyngeal wall and prevertebral fascia

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

184
Q

Oral cancer occurs most often in what cells?

A

Squamous cell

185
Q

Chronic infection of the gums, bones, and other tissues that surround and support the teeth

A

Periodontal disease (periodontitis)

186
Q

Most common craniofacial congenital malformation

A

Oropharyngeal clefts (Cleft lip & palate)

187
Q

Eye staining:

Inspect the cornea with maginfcation under what color light source?

A

Cobalt blue

188
Q

What should you use when a plain fluorescein examination is non-diagnostic?

A

Slit lamp

189
Q

Anterior nose bleeds account for what percentage?

A

90%

190
Q

Primary source of blood for the posteroinferior septum

A

Sphenopalatine artery

191
Q

Uppermost part of the nasal septum is supplied by the:

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries

192
Q

Kiesselbach’s plexus is responsible for what percentage of nose bleeds?

A

95%

193
Q

Nosebleeds lasting more than how many minutes may need nasal packing?

A

10 minutes

194
Q

Nasal packing absorbable dressings

A

Gelfoam

Surgical

195
Q

How long do you apply the silver nitrate stick with gentle pressure for?

A

3-10 seconds

196
Q

Do not cauterize a nasal area greater than:

A

1 cm in diameter (4 dabs of the nitrate stick)

197
Q

Leave nasal packing in place for:

A

48 hours

198
Q

Gauze should be layered from nasal floor to turbinates.

Approximately how much gauze will be required?

A

4-5 feet

199
Q

Nasal packing fails to stop epistaxis in up to:

A

25% of cases

200
Q

What medications should you avoid post-nasal packing?

A

Aspirin and other NSAIDS

201
Q

Patients needing posterior packing or balloon device insertion generally require admission to an ICU and specialist consultation.

What percentage of these patients with require intubation?

A

40%