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Network+ > Chap 2 - Network Implementations > Flashcards

Chap 2 - Network Implementations Flashcards

1
Q

2-3: A WAP enables computers equipped with wireless networki interface adapters to function in which of the following topologies?

Star
Ad hoc
Bus
Infrastructure

A

Infrastructure

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2
Q

Infrastructure Wifi

A

standard wifi setup with devices communicating to a router

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3
Q

Ad Hoc Wifi

A

wireless computers communicate directly with each other

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4
Q

2-4: Ralph has been hired by a company to redesign its LAN. Right now, it has a single 100 Mbps Ethernet LAN with 40 users and 2 shared servers, all connected thru 3 hubs. The users on the network must be able to share files with each other and also access the shared servers. The users are complaining that the network is too slow. Mgmt states that cost is a factor that must be considered. Which of the following upgrade scenarios should Ralph recommend in this situation?

  • Split the network kinto smaller segments with dedicated hubs as opposed to shared hubs
  • Split the network into two rounded LANs with 20 users each
  • Replace the hubs with switches to define separate collosion domains and filter unneccesary traffic from each segment
  • Replace the hubs with a layer 3 switch and define 2 VLANS with 20 users each
A

Replace the hubs with switches to define separate collosion domains and filter unneccesary traffic from each segment

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5
Q

2-5: WHich of the following devices can split a single network into two collision domains while maininting a single broadcast domain?

Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router
Repeater

A

Bridge

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6
Q

Bridge

A

A bridge is a device used in networking to connect two separate networks, allowing traffic to pass between them.

The primary function of a bridge is to filter and forward network frames based on the MAC addresses of the devices (nodes) on the network.

A bridge operates at Layer 2, the Data Link Layer

traditional wired bridges have largely been replaced by network switches due to their enhanced functionality and efficiency, wireless bridges are still utilized in modern networking to extend or connect separate wireless networks

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7
Q

2-7: Which of the following devices operate at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose all that apply)

Routers
Hubs
Repeaters
Switches

A

Hubs

Repeaters

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8
Q

2-11: Which of the following terms us used to describe the method by which a firewall examins the port numbers in transport layer protocol headers?

IP address filtering
Service-dependent filtering
Deep Packet Inspection (DPI)
Next-Generation Firewall (NGF)

A

Service-dependent filtering

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9
Q

2-12: Which of the following devices can also be described as a multiport repeater?

Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router

A

Hub

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10
Q

2-13: Which of the following bridging types has never been used on Ethernet LANs?

Store and Forward
Transparent
Source route
Multiport

A

Source route

was used on Token Ring

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11
Q

2-14: Which of the following physicla network devices can be implemented as software in a computer’s OS? (Choose all that apply)

Hub
Switch
Router
Firewall

A

Router
Firewall

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12
Q

2-17: Which of the following statements about hubs and switches are true? (Choose all that apply)

  • Hubs operate at the physical layer and switches operate at the network layer
  • All of the devices connected to a hub are part of a single collision domain, whereas each device connected to a switch has its own collision domain
  • There are switches available with network layer functionality, but there are no hubs with that capability
  • Switches create a separate broadcast domain for each connected device, whereas hubs create a single broadcast domamin for all connected devices
A
  • All of the devices connected to a hub are part of a single collision domain, whereas each device connected to a switch has its own collision domain
  • There are switches available with network layer functionality, but there are no hubs with that capability
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13
Q

2-18: Which of the following problems is STP intended to prevent? (Choose all that apply)

Broadcast storms
Late collisions
Bridging Loops
Crosstalk

A

Broadcast storms

Bridging Loops

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14
Q

2-19: Which of the following devices perform essentially the same function? (Choose two)

Hubs
Bridges
Switches
Routers

A

Bridges
Switches

Switches are basically multiport Bridges

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15
Q

5 functional levels in a distributed control system, e.g.: SCADA

A

FDPSup&PP

  • Field Level
  • Direct Control
  • Plant Supervisory
  • Production Control
  • Production Scheduling
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16
Q

SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

It is a type of industrial control system (ICS) that is used to control infrastructure and facility-based processes

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17
Q

2-21: Which of the following switch types immediately forwards frames after looking at only the destination address?

Cut-through
Source Router
Store-and-Forward
Destination

A

Cut-through

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18
Q

Switch types

A

Cut-through: fast because it only looks at the first six bytes (destination MAC address) when forwarding a frame

Store-and-Forward: take in the entire frame and verify its contents by performing a CRC calculation before forwarding it

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19
Q

2-24: SOHO networks typically use a multifunction connectivity device that can perform all but which one of the following functions?

DHCP
DNS
Switch
Router
Hub
NAT router
Access Point (AP)

A

Hub

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20
Q

2-25: Which of the following is the correct term for the process by which STP on a switch evaulates the paths through the network and places each port forwarding or blocking state?

Assimilation
Convergence
Tree-building
Listening

A

Convergence

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21
Q

Convergence

A

Convergence: to the state where all routers in a network have consistent and updated routing information, ensuring that every router has the same view of the network topology.

Also, process by switch STP populates its database with info about each port in a switch and designates the ports as forwarding or blocking

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22
Q

2-27: Which of the following is something that only a firewall capable of stateful packet inspection can do?

Filter traffic-based port numbers
Block traffic destined for specific IP addresses
Scan transport layer header fields for evidence of SYN floods
Block all TCP traffic from entering a network

A

Scan transport layer header fields for evidence of SYN floods

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23
Q

2-28: In Local Area networking, which of the following is not a type of bridge?

Store and Forward
Routing
Transparent
Multiport

A

Routing

Routers/Routing happens at Layer 3. Bridges are on Layer 2

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24
Q

2-29: Which of the following methods are typically used by IDSs to analyze incoming network traffic? (Choose all that apply)

Anomaly-based detection
Behavior-based detection
Signature-based detection
Statistic-based detection

A

Anomaly-based detection

Signature-based detection

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25
Q

2-31: Which of the following devices can you use to connect two multimode fiber optpic Ethernet networks running in buildings 2000 meters apart using a single-mode fiber optic cable segment running at the same speed, while maintaining a single collision domain?

Bridge
Switch
Router
Media Converter

A

Media Converter

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26
Q

2-33: Which of the following devices enables two computers to communicate when they are using different protocols at each layer of the OSI model?

A router
A switch
A hub
A gateway

A

A gateway

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27
Q

2-35: Which of the following statements are true about switches and routers? (Choose all that apply)

  • Routers operate at the network layer, whereas switches operate at the data link layer
  • All of the device connected to a switch are part of a single broadcast domain, whereas the networks connected to a router form separate broadcast domains
  • Routers can communicate with each other and share information but switches cannot
  • Switches forward packets based on their hardware address, whereas routers forward packets based on their IP Address
A
  • Routers operate at the network layer, whereas switches operate at the data link layer
  • All of the device connected to a switch are part of a single broadcast domain, whereas the networks connected to a router form separate broadcast domains
  • Switches forward packets based on their hardware address, whereas routers forward packets based on their IP Address
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28
Q

Do Routers Forward Broadcasts?

A

No

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29
Q

2-40: Which of the following explains why splitting a large switched Ethernet LAN into two LANs by adding a router can help alleviate traffic congestion and improve performance? (Choose all that apply)

Adding a router reduces the amount of broadcast traffic on each of the two LANs
Adding a router reduces the amount of unicast traffic on each of the two LANs
Adding a router diverts traffic to an alternate path thru the network
Adding a router prevents computers on one LAN from communicating with computers on another LAN

A

Adding a router reduces the amount of broadcast traffic on each of the two LANs

Adding a router reduces the amount of unicast traffic on each of the two LANs

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30
Q

2-41: A small business office currently has a 100Base-TX Ethernet network with a single 8-port hub. All of the hub ports are currently populated and the business owner wants to expand the network further. However, the hub does not have an uplink port. The owner has purchased a new hub, also with eight ports, which does have an uplink port, but he does not know how to connect them together. What must the owner do to install the new hub on the network?

  • Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to a standard port on the new hub
  • Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub
  • Purchase a crossover cable and use it to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub
  • Purchase a second hub with an uplink port to replace the old one and use a standard patch cable to connect the two uplink ports together
A

Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub

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31
Q

Uplink Port

A

A hub’s uplink port is a special port used to connect one hub to another hub, switch, or router without requiring a crossover cable.

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32
Q

Standard Patch Cable vs Crossover Cable

A

Standard Network Patch Cable (Straight-Through Cable):

  • wire arrangement is identical on both ends of the cable. This means that Pin 1 on one end connects to Pin 1 on the other end, Pin 2 to Pin 2, and so on.
  • This type of cable is used to connect a device to a switch, hub, or router.
  • It’s the most common type of Ethernet cable used for connecting different types of devices in a network, such as a computer to a network switch.

Network Crossover Cable:

  • has wires that “cross over” at one end. Typically, the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) pairs are swapped. For example, Pins 1 and 2 (transmitting pins on a standard Ethernet interface) on one end are connected to Pins 3 and 6 (receiving pins) on the other end, and vice versa.
  • Crossover cables are used to connect two similar devices directly, such as two computers without a switch or hub in between, or two switches to each other.
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33
Q

2-42: Which of the following task scan you perform to split a large switched LAN into multiple broadcast domains? (Choose all that apply)

Replace one or more switches with hubs
Install a firewall to filter broadcast traffic
Enable STP on the switches
Create VLANs in the switches
Install routers on the network

A

Create VLANs in the switches
Install routers on the network

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34
Q

2-43: Which of the following statements about bridges and switches is true?

  • Bridges and switches are network layer devices that use logical addressing to forward frames
  • Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that use MAC addresses to forward frames
  • Bridges and switches build their internal tables based on destination addresses and forward packets based on source address
  • Bridges and switches must support the network layer protocol implemented on the LAN
  • Each port on a bridge and a switch defines a separate broadcast domain
A

Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that use MAC addresses to forward frames

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35
Q

2-46: Which of the following is the primary reason why replacing hubs with switches on an Ethernet LAN improves its performance?

Switches forward packets faster than hubs
Switches do not forward broadcast transmissions
Switches reduce the number of collisions on the network
Switches read IP addresses of packets, not the hardware addresses

A

Switches reduce the number of collisions on the network

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36
Q

2-48: Which of the following terms are used to describe the device used to place calls on a VoIP installation? (Choose all that apply)

Terminal
Gateway
Endpoint
PBX

A

Terminal

Endpoint

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37
Q

VoIP PBX

A

Voice over IP Private branch exchange

device that switches calls between endpoints on the local IP network and provides access to external internet lines

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38
Q

Hubs

A
  • physical layer (Layer 1) devices
  • amplify and repeat signals out all ports, regardless of destination except where the data’s source port
  • physical connect systems in star topology
  • Typically provide an internal croosover circuit connection
  • Have uplink ports to extend the distance of a star network, forming a hierarchical star
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39
Q

2-51: Which of the following hub types are supported by the 100Base-TX physical layer specification? (Choose all that apply)

Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV

A

Class I:
* perform signal translation
* network can only have one per collision domain

Class II
* cannot peform signal translation
* network can only have two per collision domain

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40
Q

2-52: Which of the following statements about routers is not true?

  • Routers can connect two or more networks with dissimilar data link protocols and media
  • Routers can connect two or more networks with the same data link protocols and media
  • Routers store and maintain route information in a local text file
  • Servers with multiple network interfaces can be configured to function as software routers
  • Routers can learn and populate their routing tables thru static and dynamic routing
A

Routers store and maintain route information in a local text file

is false

Routers store route information in memory

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41
Q

2-53: The network admin for a small business is installing a computer to function as a firewall protecting their internetwork from Internet intrusion. At which of the following locations should the administrator install the firewall system?

Anywhere on the private internetwork as long as the internet is accessible
Between the internet access router and the ISPs network
At the ISPs network site
Between the internet access router and the rest of private internetwork

A

Between the internet access router and the rest of private internetwork

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42
Q

Internetwork

A

An internetwork, or inter-network, is a collection of individual networks, connected by intermediate networking devices, that functions as a single, large network.

The most well-known example of an internetwork is the Internet. Internetworking allows for the connection and communication between different network types and architectures through the use of routing technologies. It enables data packets to traverse from one network to another, making global communication possible.

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43
Q

Intranet

A

A private network that is contained within an enterprise or organization.

It uses web technologies (such as HTTP and web browsers) to provide a secure environment for the organization’s members to communicate, share information, collaborate, and access internal resources.

An intranet is typically protected from outside access by a network security system such as a firewall. It is designed for internal use and is not accessible to the public.

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44
Q

2-55: Proxy servers operate at which layer of the OSI reference model?

Data link
Network
Transport
Application

A

Application

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45
Q

2-57: Which of the following statements about conent filtering in firewalls is true?

Content filters examine the source IP address of packets to locate potential threats
Content filters enable switches to direct packets out thru the correct port
Content filters examine the data carried within packets for potentially objectionable materials
Content filters use frequently updated signatures to locate packets containing malware

A

Content filters examine the data carried within packets for potentially objectionable materials

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46
Q

2-60: Which of the following devices enable users on a private network to access the internet by substitiuting a registered IP address for their private addresses? (Choose all that apply)

NAT Router
RADIUS Server
Proxy Server
UTM appliance

A

NAT Router

Proxy Server

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47
Q

2-61: HVAC systems can use IoT to monitor which of the following? (Choose all that apply)

Temperature
Pressure
Humidity
Printers
Occupancy
Camera
Door locks

A

Temperature
Pressure
Humidity
Occupancy

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48
Q

2-62: A VPN Headend is an advance type of which of the following devices?

Switch
Router
Gateway
Bridge

A

Router

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49
Q

VPN headend

A
  • server(s) that manages connections, encryption, and the routing of VPN traffic
  • acts as the endpoint for VPN clients, handling the initiation, maintenance, and termination of VPN connections
  • responsible for the aggregation of multiple VPN connections
  • ensures that data transmitted over the VPN is secure and properly routed to its destination within a private network
  • Handles authentication of users, encryption of data, and the assignment of IP addresses to VPN clients.
  • It is considered an advanced type of router
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50
Q

2-64: Ralph, the admin of a 500-node private internetwork is devising a plan to connect the network to the Internet. The primary objective of the project is to provide allof the network users with access to the web and email services while keeping the client computers safe from unauthorized users on the Internet. The secondary objectives of the project are to avoid having to manually configure the IP addresses of each one of the client computers individually and to provide a means of monitoring and regulating the users’ access to the Internet. Ralph submits a proposal calling for the user of private IP addresses on the client computers and a series of proxy servers with public, registered, IP addresses, connected to the Internet using multiple T-1 lines. Which of the following statement about Ralph’s proposed Internet access solution is true?

  • The proposal failes to satisfy both the primary and the secondary objectives
  • The proposal satisfies the primary objective but neither of the secondary objectives
  • The proposal satisfies the primary objective and one of the secondary objectives
  • The proposal satisfies the primary objective and both of the secondary objectives
A

The proposal satisfies the primary objective and one of the secondary objectives

Proxy servers cannot assign IP addresses, and the proposal makes no mention of DHCP or any other TCP/IP addressing/assignment mechanism

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51
Q

2-65: Which of the following protocols can be used by wireless controllers to communicate with the APs on a WLAN? Choose all that apply

CAPWAP
LWAPP
LDAP
PPTP

A

CAPWAP

LWAPP

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52
Q

CAPWAP

A
  • CAPWAP, which stands for Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points, is a protocol that enables a central controller to manage a collection of wireless access points (WAPs).
  • CAPWAP separates the control and data traffic between access points and the controller.
  • The control plane, which carries administrative and management traffic, allows the controller to manage the access points, including their configuration, firmware updates, and network information.
  • The data plane, on the other hand, handles the actual user data traffic.
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53
Q

LWAPP

A
  • Lightweight Access Point Protocol
  • was used to control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once.
  • Was superseeded by CAPWAP
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54
Q

At which OSI model layers does a multilayer switch operate?

A

Layer 2: Data Link - operates like normal switch, creating individual collisiion domains and able to create VLANs

Layer 3: Network - provides routing capabilites by forwarding packets in between VLANs

Layer 4: Transport - (only some devices) distinguish between TCP and UDP traffic using port numbers to forward traffic

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55
Q

PPTP

A
  • PPTP, or Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol, is a method used for implementing virtual private networks (VPNs).
  • One of the oldest VPN protocols developed and has been widely used since its introduction in the late 1990s.
  • PPTP encapsulates network protocol data packets within an IP envelope, using a modified version of the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) protocol.
  • This encapsulation allows data packets to be transmitted over a public network (like the Internet) while maintaining privacy, thus creating a “tunnel” through which secure communication can occur between remote users and private networks.
  • Considered obselete
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56
Q

NLB

A

Network Load Balancing

group of servers all running the same application that distribute incoming traffic among themselves

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57
Q

2-69: A load balancer is a type of which of the following devices?

Switch
Router
Gateway
Firewall

A

Router

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58
Q

2-73: Which of the following statements about proxy servers and NAT servers are true? (Choose all that apply)

  • NAT servers and proxy servers can both provide internet access to clients running any application
  • NAT servers and proxy servers both use public IP addresses
  • NAT servers and proxy servers both access Internet servers and relay the responses to network clients
  • Both NAT and proxy server cache web data for later use
A
  • NAT servers and proxy servers both use public IP addresses
  • NAT servers and proxy servers both access Internet servers and relay the responses to network clients

Proxy Servers operate at Layer 7, Application, and can only provide internet access to specific applications.

NAT Servers operate at Layer 3, Network

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59
Q

RAS

A
  • Remote Access Service
  • a feature provided by many operating systems that allows users and administrators to connect to a network from a remote location.
  • This service enables access to network resources, applications, and data as if the user were physically connected to the network. RAS can use various communication protocols, including the Internet or direct dial-up connections via telephone lines.
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60
Q

2-76: Which of the following is not a function that is typically provided by a UTM (Unified Threat Management) appliance?

VPN
Network Firewall
Packet forwarding
Antivirus protection

A

Packet forwarding

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61
Q

2-77: Which of the following features enables an IDS to monitor all of the traffic on a switched network?

Stateful packet inspection
Port mirroring
Trunking
Service Dependent filtering

A

Port mirroring

62
Q

RIPv1

A

Routing Information Protocol
* a classful, distance-vector routing protocol
* uses hop count as its metric
* maximum of 15 hops
* lacks support for VLSM/CIDR

  • broadcasts routing updates every 30 seconds
  • does not include subnet masks in network advertisements
  • is not suitable for large or complex networks.
  • max number of routes in a broadcast packet: 25, more than 25 and another packet must be generated
63
Q

RIPv2

A

RIPv2 enhances RIPv1 by
* max number of routes in a broadcast packet: 25, more than 25 and another packet must be generated
* supporting CIDR/VLSM
* using multicast for updates
* offering route authentication and tagging.
* Distance vector protocol
* It retains the distance-vector mechanism and 15-hop limit, making it more suitable than RIPv1 for medium-sized networks
* Distance vector protocol

64
Q

OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First
* link-state routing protocol for IP networks
* VLSM/CIDR support, and authentication
* It uses cost as a routing metric and employs designated routers
* Uses Dijkstra’s algorithm

65
Q

EIGRP

A
  • Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
  • Distance Vector
  • Supports VLSM/CIDR for flexible IP addressing
  • hybrid: having qualities of both link state and distance vector
  • Protocol-independent, supporting multiple IP-based protocols
  • Offers MD5 authentication for secure routing information exchange
  • Rapid convergence with DUAL algorithm
  • Efficient bandwidth use via partial updates
  • Unique unequal-cost load balancing capability
  • Scalable for both small and large networks, primarily used on Cisco devices
66
Q

BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol
* Core internet routing protocol
* Path Vector mechanism for routing
* edge gateway protocol
* Operates across autonomous systems (ASes)
* Enables policy-based routing decisions
* Uses attributes (AS_PATH, NEXT_HOP) for route selection
* Essential for ISP and large network routing

67
Q

2-81: Which of the following statements about EIGRP is not true?

EIGRP does not support classless IPv4 addresses.
EIGRP is a hybrid routing protocol
EIGRP can only transmit incremental routing table updates
EIGRP shared routes within an autonomous system

A

EIGRP does not support classless IPv4 addresses.

68
Q

2-84: Which of the following statements about RIPv1 is true? (Choose all that apply)

  • RIPv1 broadcasts the entire contents of the routing table every 30 seconds
  • RIPv1 advertises the subnet mask along with the destination network
  • RIPv1 broadcasts only the elements in the routing table that have changed every 60 seconds
  • RIPv1 does not include the subnet mask in its network advertisements
A
  • RIPv1 broadcasts the entire contents of the routing table every 30 seconds
  • RIPv1 does not include the subnet mask in its network advertisements
69
Q

Traffic Shaping

A

means of prioritizing network traffic by means of delaying packets at the application layer

70
Q

CoS

A
  • Class of Service
  • type of QoS mechanism
  • operates at data link layer (layer 2)
  • adds a 3-bit Priority Code Point (PCP) value to the ethernet frame
71
Q

Diffserv

A

Differentiated Services

type of QoS mechanism, works by classifying traffic types using a 6-bit value in the DS (Differentiated Services) field of the IP header

72
Q

2-86: Which of the following statements about static routing are true? (Choose all of the above)

  • Static routes are manually configured routes that admins must add, modify or delete when a change in the network occurs
  • Static routes are automatically added to the routing table by routing protocols when a new network path becomes available
  • Static routes adapt to changes in the network infrastructure automatically
  • Static routes are an recommedned solution for large internetworks with redundant paths to each destination network
  • Static routes are an recommedned solution for small internetworks with a single path to each destination network
A
  • Static routes are manually configured routes that admins must add, modify or delete when a change in the network occurs
  • Static routes are an recommedned solution for small internetworks with a single path to each destination network
73
Q

2-88: Which of the following terms refers to a routing protocol that does not rely on hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes?

Interior gateway protocol
Edge gateway protocol
Distance vector protocol
Link state protocol

A

Link state protocol

74
Q

Link state protocol

A
  • Routing protocol for optimal data paths
  • Employs SPF algorithm for shortest path calculation
  • Examples include OSPF and IS-IS
  • Does not relay solely on hop count
  • Maintains complete network topology map
  • Uses LSAs for router-to-router information exchange
  • Rapid convergence due to immediate topology awareness
  • Scalable through network division into hierarchical areas
  • Efficient bandwidth usage with updates only on changes
75
Q

Distance vector protocol

A
  • Determines best path based on distance and direction.
  • Uses hop count as the primary metric for path selection.
  • Operates on “routing by rumor,” sharing tables with immediate neighbors.
  • Sends periodic updates, broadcasting the entire routing table to neighbors.
  • Implements route poisoning and a maximum hop count to prevent loops.
  • Examples include RIP (Routing Information Protocol).
  • Suitable for smaller networks, with slower convergence and less scalability compared to link-state protocols.
76
Q

Edge gateway protocol

A
  • Refers to protocols used by edge devices for network connectivity and security.
  • Commonly involves:
  • BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) for routing between autonomous systems.
  • IoT Protocols like MQTT and CoAP for connecting IoT devices.
  • VPN Protocols (IPsec, SSL/TLS) for secure remote access.
  • NAT Protocols for IP address translation at network boundaries.
  • Facilitates data flow, security, and connectivity between diverse networks or network segments.
77
Q

Interior gateway protocol

A
  • Routing protocol used within a single autonomous system (AS).
  • Types: Includes Distance Vector (e.g., RIP) and Link State (e.g., OSPF, IS-IS) protocols.
  • Function: Facilitates efficient routing and data packet exchange within an AS.
  • Features: Rapid convergence to adapt to network changes, with varying scalability and efficiency among different IGPs.
78
Q

AS

A
  • Autonomous System (AS): Collection of IP networks under a single administrative domain.
  • Unique ASN: Identified by an Autonomous System Number for routing.
  • Routing Policies: Defines its own policies for route selection and advertisement.
  • Uses BGP: Exchanges routing information with other ASes via Border Gateway Protocol.
  • Types: Includes Tier 1 (global reach without transit costs), Tier 2 (transits between ASes), and Tier 3 (end-user ISPs).
  • Internet Peering: ASes may peer with others to exchange traffic, improving performance.
  • Operational Autonomy: Manages internal routing and infrastructure independently.
79
Q

2-90: Which of the following routing protocols can you use on a TCP/IP internetwork with segments running at different speeds, making hop counts an inaccurate measure of route efficiency? (Choose all that apply)

EIGRP
RIP
OSPF
BGP

A

EIGRP

OSPF

80
Q

2-91: Which of the following statements are true about OSPF routing protocol? (Choose all that apply)

OSFP is an interior gateway protocol
OSFP is a link state protocol
OSFP does not support Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
OSFP shares routes within an AS

A

OSFP is an interior gateway protocol
OSFP is a link state protocol
OSFP shares routes within an AS

81
Q

2-92: Which is the term for the process by which dynamic routing protocols update other routers with routing table information?

Convergence
Distance vectoring
Redistribution
Dissemination

A

Convergence

82
Q

2-94: Which of the following types of routing protocols route datagrams between AS’s?

EGP
RIP
IGP
OSPF

A

EGP - Edge Gateway Protocol

83
Q

2-96: Which of the following command-line tools can you use to create and modify static routes on a Unix or Linux system? (Choose all that apply)

route
ifconfig
traceroute
ip

A

route

ip

84
Q

2-97: Routers that use OSPF routing protocol calculate the relative costs of routes thru the network by exchanging which of the following specifications for each interface with other routers?

Transmission speed
Data link layer protocol
Network medium
IP address

A

Transmission Speed

85
Q

2-98: Which of the following statements about BGP is not true?

BGP is an exterior gateway protocol
BGP is a link state routing protocol
BGP supports Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
BGP shares routes among AS’s

A

BGP is a link state routing protocol

86
Q

CIDR

A
  • CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing): Efficient IP address allocation and routing method.
  • Supports supernetting: Aggregates multiple IP addresses into fewer routing entries.
  • Uses Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) for flexible IP address allocation.
  • Notation: IP address followed by a slash and a prefix length (e.g., 192.0.2.0/24).
  • Enhances IP address utilization, reducing wastage.
  • Facilitates route aggregation, simplifying and shrinking routing tables.
  • Helps conserve IPv4 address space, extending its viability.
87
Q

VLSM

A
  • VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking): Technique for efficient IP address allocation.
  • Allows creation of subnets of different sizes to match specific network requirements.
  • Minimizes IP address wastage by tailoring subnet sizes to actual needs.
  • Supports hierarchical network structures, simplifying management and routing.
  • Used with CIDR for route aggregation and improved routing efficiency.
  • Requires support from routing protocols (e.g., OSPF, EIGRP, RIPv2) for full functionality.
88
Q

2-101: Which of the following routing protocols has both interior and exterior designations, based on whether it is used for routing within an AS or on the Internet?

RIP
OSPF
EIGRP
BGP

A

BGP

89
Q

2-102: Which of the following network layer protocols includes a Time to Live (TTL) field? (Choose all that apply)

IPv4
IPv6
ICMP
IGMP

A

IPv4
IPv6

90
Q

WAN Optimization

A

Collection of techniques to improve data transfer efficiency across a Wide Area Network.

  • Data Deduplication: Eliminates redundant data transmissions, reducing bandwidth usage.
  • Compression: Shrinks data size to speed up transfer rates.
  • Latency Optimization: Uses protocol spoofing and TCP optimization to minimize delays.
  • Caching: Stores frequently accessed data locally to avoid repeated WAN transfers.
  • Traffic Shaping: Prioritizes critical application traffic to ensure bandwidth availability.
91
Q

Flow Control

A

Technique for regulating a systems’s transmission speed

92
Q

Distributed Switching

A

a hierarchical switching architecture in which remote switches (sometimes related to a department/division, but not always) handle most of the network traffic, with a host switch used only for traffic between remote locations

93
Q

Are Full Duplex port connections subject to collisions?

A

No. Additionally, Full-Duplex connections do not define separate collision domains

94
Q

Half-Duplex

A

Half-duplex is a type of communication in which data transmission can occur in both directions, but not simultaneously.

In a half-duplex system, a device can either send or receive data at any given time, but not both.

95
Q

Full-Duplex

A

Full-duplex refers to a type of communication where data transmission can occur simultaneously in both directions. \

Unlike half-duplex, full-duplex allows for the sending and receiving of information at the same time between devices.

96
Q

2-106: Which of the following could be a valid MAC address for a network interface adapter?

10.124.25.43
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E
03:AE:16:3H:5B:11
fe80::89a5:9ed4:a9d0:9ed7

A

00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E

the rest are obviously wrong, except for the 4th anwser which is not hexidemical because it has an H in it

97
Q

2-108: Which of the following cable types can be used to connect an MDI port on a workstation to an Auto-MDI-X port on an Ethernet switch? (Choose all that apply)

A crossover UTP cable
A straight-thru UTP cable
A coaxial cable
A single-mode fibre optic cable
A multimode fibre optic cable

A

A crossover UTP cable
A straight-thru UTP cable

98
Q

Auto-MDI-X port

A

Auto-MDI-X, short for Automatic Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover

  • Ethernet port that can automatically detect and configure the appropriate MDI or MDIX mode to establish a connection
  • eliminates need for crossover cables
99
Q

MDI

A

Medium-Dependent Interface

Refers to the standard Ethernet port found on devices like routers, switches, and network cards

100
Q

NDP

A
  • Neighbor Discovery Protocol
  • network layer protocol (3)
  • defines the new ICMPv6 packet types which enable IPv6 systems to locate resources on the network, such as routers or DNS servers
  • Also can autoconfigure and detect duplicate IPv6 addresses
101
Q

2-109: Which of the following is a network layer protocol that uses ICMPv6 messages to locate routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network?

BGP
NDP
OSPF
PoE

A

NDP

102
Q

IEEE 802.1Q

A

standard defining a mechanism (called Ethernet trunking by some manufacturers) that identifies the VLAN to which a packet belongs by inserting an extra 32-bit field into its Ethernet frame

103
Q

IEEE 802.1AB

A
  • LLDP - Link Layer Discovery Protocol
  • Vendor-neutral protocol for advertising identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network
104
Q

IEEE 802.1P

A

defines a mechanims for implementing QoS by adding a 3-bit field into the Ethernet frame

105
Q

IEEE 802.1X

A
  • authentication method called Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC)
  • a security feature that controls access to the network at the port level
  • used to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to a network by enforcing authentication and authorization mechanisms before granting access
106
Q

IEEE 802.1AX

A
  • Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
  • mechanism for combining physical ports into a single logical channel
107
Q

2-111: Each of the following CSMA/CD events occurs on an Ethernet network when two stations transmit simutaneously, although not in the order listed. Which of the following events occurs immediately after the collision?

The two stations observe a random backoff interval
The two stations transmit a jam signal
The two stations stop transmitting
The two stations listen to see if the channel is idle
The two stations begin retransmitting their frames

A

The two stations stop transmitting

108
Q

CSMA/CD collision steps

A

CSJBRM

  • Collision Detection: Devices detect a collision by observing mismatched data on the network cable.
  • Stop Transmitting: both devices stop transmitting
  • Jam Signal: Transmitting devices send a jam signal to ensure all network devices recognize the collision.
  • Backoff Algorithm: Devices wait for a random period based on the exponential backoff algorithm to reduce collision chances.
  • Retry Transmission: Devices check if the network is idle before retrying to transmit their data.
  • Maximum Attempts: After a certain number of failed attempts (typically 15 or 16), the device stops trying and reports a failure.
109
Q

2-112: For CSMA/CD mechanism to function properly on an Ethernet network, host systems must be able to detect when a collisiion occurs, so they can react to it. Which of the following cabling errors can prevent the collision detection process from functioning properly?

Excessively long cable segments
Incorrect wiring pinouts
Too many systems on a network
An excessive number of collisions

A

Excessively long cable segments

110
Q

Late Collisions

A

Occur when two or more packets collide after one has finished transmitting. This is an abnormal occurence

111
Q

2-118: Which of the following about VLANs are true? (Choose all that apply)

  • All of the devices in a particular VLAN must be physicall connected to the same switch
  • A VLAN creates a limited broadcast domain on a switched network
  • You must have VLANs on a switched network for communication between computers on different cable segments to occur
  • A router is required for communication between VLANs
A
  • A VLAN creates a limited broadcast domain on a switched network
  • A router is required for communication between VLANs
112
Q

2-119: Which of the following elements can be used to identify the devices in a particualr VLAN? (Choose all that apply)

Hardware addresses
IP addresses
DNS names
Switch Port numbers

A

Hardware addresses

Switch Port numbers

Since Switches are Layer 2 devices, they cannot see IP addresses (layer 3) or DNS names (layer 7)

113
Q

2-120: Alice has a network that consists of three VLANs defined on all of the network’s switches: VLAN10 for Sales, VLAN20 for Marketing and VLAN30 for Accounting. Users are reporting that they cannot communicate with anyone outside of their own department/VLAN. What is the problem and what must Alice do?

  • The probelm is a faulty VLAN configuration on one of the switches. Alice needs to re-create the VLANs and configure each VLAN for routing
  • One of the VLANs is configured to filter all other VLAN traffic for security purposes. Alice needs to change the the filter on this VLAN
  • VLANs are limited to data link layer communication only. To allow communication between VLANs, Alice must add a router, or a layer 3 switch to the network and configure it to route traffic between the VLANs
  • The VLANs are using different data link layer protocols. VLANs must use the same data link layer protocol
A

VLANs are limited to data link layer communication only. To allow communication between VLANs, Alice must add a router, or a layer 3 switch to the network and configure it to route traffic between the VLANs

114
Q

2-123: Which of the following modifications occur when you configure the native VLAN on your network switches to use 802.11q tagging? (Choose all that apply)

Double tagged packets are prevented
BPDU guards are applied
Root guards are applied
Trunk traffic is routed, not switched

A

Double tagged packets are prevented
BPDU guards are applied

115
Q

BPDU

A
  • Bridge Protocol Data Unit
  • detect loops in network topologies
  • They are Layer 2 frames

It describes the attributes of a switch port, such as its MAC address, priority, and cost to reach, and enables switches to gather information about each other in the context of the spanning tree protocol (STP)

116
Q

IEEE 802.3X

A
  • defines the mechanism for flow control on full-duplex Ethernet links
  • issued in 1997
117
Q

2-125: Which of the following best explains how tagging the native VLAN traffic can improve in-band switch management security?

By renaming the default VLAN
By preventing double tagged packets
By encrypting in-band management traffic
By moving in-band management traffic off the native VLAN

A

By preventing double tagged packets

118
Q

Double-tagged packets

A

Double-tagged packets, or double tagging, is a network attack method where an unauthorized party inserts a second VLAN tag into a data packet to gain access to VLANs, potentially compromising network security.

119
Q

2-128: Port security on an Ethernet switch is implemented through the use of which of the following methods?

Blacklisted MAC addresses
Whitelisted MAC addresses
Port-by-port MAC address filtering
Spoofed MAC addresses

A

Port-by-port MAC address filtering

120
Q

2-129: Which of the following best explains why networks using VoIP often have separate voice and data VLANs?

To prevent voice and data packet conflicts
To encrypt voice traffic
To encrypt data traffic
To prioritize voice traffic

A

To prioritize voice traffic

121
Q

2-130: Which of the following protocols uses a form of flow control called the sliding window technique?

UDP
HTTP
TCP
DNS

A

TCP

122
Q

2-133: Which of the following features helps to protect network switches from attacks related to STP? (Choose all that apply)

BPDU guard
Root guard
DHCP snooping
Geofencing

A

BPDU guard
Root guard

123
Q

2-134: Which of the following IEEE standard calls for the use of the CSMA/CA for MAC addresses mechanism?

802.11ac
802.1X
802.3
All of the above

A

802.11ac

All wifi standards in 802.11 family use CSMA/CA for MAC addresses

124
Q

CSMA/CA

A
  • Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance
  • protocol used in wireless networks, particularly in 802.11 networks, to minimize the potential for collisions.
  • operates at the data link layer
  • designed to balance the efficient use of the shared channel with the need to avoid collisions
125
Q

2-136: Which of the following components are required for two computers to communicate using an IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN in an ad hoc topology?

A router connected to the internet
a WAP
An external antenna
None of the above

A

None of the above

For ad-hoc mode, all your need is a wireless NIC. This is a BULLSHIT question as an external antenna could be mistaken with a wireless NIC

126
Q

Wifi Standards and frequncies and speeds and ranges?

A
  • 802.11a: wifi2; 5 Ghz; 54 Mbps; released: 1999; range: 125 feet indoors (38 meters) and 390 feet outdoors (120 meters).
  • 802.11b; wifi1; 2.4Ghz; 11 Mbps; Released: 1999; range: 125 feet indoors (38 meters) and 460 feet outdoors (140 meters).
  • 802.11g; wifi3; 2.4 Ghz; 54 Mbps; released in 2003; range 125 feet indoors (38 meters) and 460 feet outdoors (140 meters), it provides reliable coverage.
  • 802.11n; wifi4; 2.4/5 Ghz; 600 mbps; released in 2013; range 230 feet indoors (70 meters) and 820 feet outdoors (250 meters)
  • 802.11ac (Wave 1); wifi5; 5 Ghz; 1.73 Gbps; 2013; range 125 feet indoors (38 meters) and 390 feet outdoors (120 meters)
  • 802.11ac (Wave 2); Wifi5; 5Ghz; 3.47 Gbps; 2016; range 125 feet indoors (38 meters) and 390 feet outdoors (120 meters)
  • 802.11ax; wifi6; 2.4/5 Ghz/6ghz; 14 Gbps; 2019; range 59-200 feet indoors (18-61 meters), and 390 feet outdoors (120 meters)
127
Q

2.4 Ghz

A
  • industrial, scientific and medical (ISM) band
  • 14 channels, 22 Mhz wide
  • shouldn’t do adajacent channels to avoid congestion
  • try to avoid same channel to avoid interference
  • channels used: 1, 6 and 11
  • this does not need licensing/monitoring by the FCC
  • microwave ovens can interfere, old wireless telephone handsets
128
Q

5 Ghz

A
  • unlicensed national information infrastructure band
  • Channels are 20 Mhz wide and do not overlap
  • 36, 40, 44, 48, 52, 56, 60, 64
  • Channel bonding: bond two channels together to get a 40 Mhz channel; 4 channels to a 80 Mhz, or all channels to 160 Mhz
  • Dynamic Frequency Selection - fancy term for radar avodance, switch channels when theres interference
129
Q

Channel Bonding

A
  • combines multiple channels
  • to increase bandwidth/throughput
  • problems: decrease available channels; could also have cross channel interference
  • highest possible is 160 Mhz using 20 Mhz bonded channels
130
Q

MU-MIMO

A

multi-user, multiple input, multiple output
* uses a single channel
* uses multiple antenna
* spread data across multiple antenna
* does not decrease channel availability

supported on:
* IEEE 802.11n
* IEEE 802.11ac
* IEEE 802.11ax

131
Q

2-138: Which of the following wifi standards is capable of supporting speeds of 54 Mbps and is also backwards compatible with IEEE 802.11b?

IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
Bluetooth
IEEE 802.11

A

IEEE 802.11g

132
Q

2-140: Which of the following is a cellular communication technology that is virtually obsolete in the US?

GSM
CDMA
TDMA
LTE

A

TDMA

133
Q

DSSS

A
  • Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
  • a modulation technique that spreads a signal over a wider frequency band
  • enhanced resistance to interference
  • improved security

used by 802.11b

134
Q

OFDM

A

Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing (OFDM)

a modulation technique that divides a signal into multiple sub-signals to transmit simultaneously, reducing interference and efficiently using bandwidth.

Used by everything 802.11 wifi standards

135
Q

2-142: When designing a wireless LAN installation, which of the following are valid rasons to install a unidirectional antenna in an AP, rather than an omnidirection one? (Choose all that apply)

  • The AP will be located against a wall
  • There are many interior walls between the AP and the most distant workstation
  • A unidirectional antenna can be focused to a specific signal pattern width
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

136
Q

2-143: How do wireless networking devices conforming to the IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standard achieve transmission speeds greater than 72.2 Mbps

  • By using DSSS modulation
  • By using mulitple antenna to transmit several data streams simultaneously
  • By using freqencies in the 5 Ghz range
  • By sacrificing transmission range for speed
A

By using mulitple antenna to transmit several data streams simultaneously

137
Q

2-144: Which of the following are possible reasons why the 5 Ghz frequency tends to perform better than the 2.4 Ghz frequency on a wireless LAN? (Choose all that apply)

  • The 5 Ghz frequency has more channels than the 2.4 Ghz Frequency
  • The 5 Ghz frequency supports longer ranges than the 2.4 Ghz freqency
  • The 5 Ghz frequency conflicts with fewer common household devices than the 2.4 Ghz frequency
  • The 5 Ghz frequency transmits at faster speeds than the 2.4 Ghz frequency
A
  • The 5 Ghz frequency has more channels than the 2.4 Ghz Frequency
  • The 5 Ghz frequency conflicts with fewer common household devices than the 2.4 Ghz frequency
  • The 5 Ghz frequency transmits at faster speeds than the 2.4 Ghz frequency
138
Q

2-148: On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wifi network running at 2.4 Ghz with multiple APs, the traditional best practice is to use channels 1, 6 and 11 with no two adjacent APs configured to use the same channel. Which of the following is the real reason why that is a good plan?

  • Channels 1, 6 and 11 are the only channels with freqencies that do not overlap
  • Channels 1, 6 and 11 have more bandwidth than the other channels
  • Channels 1, 6 and 11 have greater ranges than the other channels
  • Channels 1, 6 and 11 are the default settings on most routers
A

Channels 1, 6 and 11 are the only channels with freqencies that do not overlap

139
Q

2-155: What is the maximum number of transmit and receive antenna supported by the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards?

2
4
8
16

A

8

140
Q

2-157: Whichof the following IEEE wireless LAN standards define devies with a maximum aggregate channel width of 20 Mhz? (Choose all that apply)

802.11a
802.11g
802.11n
802.11ac

A

802.11a
802.11g

the others use bonded channels
802.11n: 2 channels for 40 Mhz
802.11ac: 8 channels for 160 Mhz

141
Q

Wifi Security Standards and things to remember

A

WEP: Wireless equivalent privacy
* weak static key
* between 64 and 128-bit
* same for all devices

WPA: wifi protected access
* weak
* uses TPIK (temporal key integrity protocol
* every frame gets a new key, aka per-packet encryption

WPA2: wifi protected access 2
* stronger encryption
* CCMP (Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) replaced TPIK
* added/switched to AES encryption
* 128-bit key

WPA3: wifi protected access 3
* uses SAE: simultaneous authenitcation of equals
* 128-bit for home, 192-bit for enterprise
* in enterprise setups, usually paired with a RADIUS server for AAA

WPS: Wifi protected setup
* very insecure
* push a button to put AP into association mode
* router has PIN, gives to device

142
Q

2-163: When WPA wireless security protocl was release to replace WEP, it include TKIP for encryption. Which of the following was not one of the improvements that WPA and TPIK provide over WEP?

TPIK enlarges the WEP encryption key
TPIK modifies the encryption key for every packet
WPA does not require a hardware upgrade for WEP devices
TPIK eliminates the use of Pre-Shared Keys (PSKs)

A

TPIK eliminates the use of Pre-Shared Keys (PSKs)

143
Q

2-165: upgrading a wifi network from WEP to WPA enables it to use TPIK for encryption which generates a unique key for each packet. Which of the following types of attacks does this capability prevent?

DoS attacks
Brute force attacks
Replay attacks
Deauthentication attacks

A

Replay attacks

144
Q

2-172: Which of the following wireless security protocols can enable network users to authenticate using smartcards?

WEP
WPA2
EAP
AES

A

EAP

145
Q

2-173: Which of the following forms of WPA and WPA2 protocols require a RADIUS server? (Choose all that apply)

WPA-Personal
WPA-PSK
WPA-Enterprise
WPA-802.11X

A

WPA-Enterprise
WPA-802.11X

146
Q

EAP

A

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

framework that provides flexible authentication in

  • wireless networks
  • point-to-point connections
  • provides various methods for secure user or device verification.
147
Q

2-174: Which of the following forms of WPA and WPA2 protocols call for the use of a Pre-Shared Key (PSK)?

WPA-Personal
WPA-Enterprise
WPA-EAP
WPA-802.11X

A

WPA-Personal

148
Q

2-181: WHich of the following wireless network security protocols provides open and shared key authentication options?

WPA
WEP
WPA2
EAP

A

WEP

149
Q

2-183: Which of the following is not a factor that weakens security of WEP used on early IEEE 802.11 Wireless LANs?

40-bit encryption keys
24-bit intialization vectors
Static shared secret
Open System Authentication

A

Open System Authentication

150
Q

2-187: Which of the following is the maximum theoretical download speed for a 5G celluar network?

42 Mbps
150 Mbps
1 Gbps
10 Gbps
100 Gbps

A

10 Gbps

151
Q

2-188: Which of the following statements about 5G cellular networks are true? (choose all apply)

5G networks can operate on three frequency bands
5G networks wiht the highest speeds also have a more limited range
4G devices can connect to 5G networks at reduced speeds
On a 5G network, the lower frequency bands provide the highest speeds

A

5G networks can operate on three frequency bands
5G networks wiht the highest speeds also have a more limited range

152
Q

2-192: On a network carrying both voice and data traffic, separate VLANs enable the voice traffic to be assigned a higher priority than the data traffic. Which of the following are methods for identifying the packets carrying voice traffic, so the switches can assign them to the voice VLAN? (Choose all that apply)

MAC addresses
VLAN tags
IP addresses
DNS Names

A

MAC addresses
VLAN tags

Network+ (10 decks)

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