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Network+ > Chap 1 - Network Fundamentals - Part 2 > Flashcards

Chap 1 - Network Fundamentals - Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

1-159: To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D

A

Class B

Class A: 1 to 126 - Many hosts per network.
Class B: 128 to 191 - Many hosts per network.
Class C: 192 to 223 - Many networks with fewer hosts per network.
Class D: 224 to 239 - Multicasting.

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2
Q

Class A octet range

A

1 to 126

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3
Q

Class B octet range

A

128 to 191

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4
Q

Class C octet range

A

192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

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5
Q

Class D octet range

A

224 to 239

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6
Q

CIDR

A
  • Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
  • method used to create smaller network segments or subnets from a single block of IP addresses
  • essential for efficient use of IP address space and network management.

CIDR allows for more flexible allocation of IP addresses compared to the traditional class-based system by using variable-length subnet masking, which enables the division of an IP address space into subnets of different sizes.

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7
Q

VLSM

A

Variable Length Subnet Masking

echnique that allows the subdivision of an IP network into smaller, variably sized subnets, providing more efficient use of IP addresses.

Unlike traditional fixed-length subnetting, which divides an IP address space into subnets of equal size, VLSM enables the creation of subnets with different sizes, tailored to the specific number of hosts required in each subnet.

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8
Q

EUI-64

A

technique to create IPv6 link local address from MAC address

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9
Q

1-161: Ralph has been instructed to use the network address of 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers?

255.248.0.0
255.252.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0

A

How to get this?

  1. /14 = 14 bits for network
  2. so this is 18 bits for host, or 32 bits total
  3. converted to binary and displayed as an IP address:
    11111111.11111100.00000000.00000000
  4. or converted to decimal: 255.252.0.0
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10
Q

1-162: Ed has been hired to design a company’s network. The company has an assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Ed’s client wants the network to be configured with 10 subnets, each with 14 hosts. Is this configuration possible with the given address, and if so, how many subnets and hosts can Ed create on the network?

Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet
No, this will not work. A Class C address cannot be subnetted to create 8 subnets
No, this will not work. Although there are sufficient bits available to create 10 subnets, there are not enough bits left over for Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet
Yes, this will work. Ed can create 10 subnet bits with 14 hosts per subnet. By using 3 subnet bits, he can create 10 subnets, which leave 5 bits to create up to 30 hosts per subnet

A

How to get this?
1. Class C has 24 network bits and 8 host bits, remember Class C is 255.255.255.0, or 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
2. Ed must subdivide the 8 host bits into subnet and hosts
3. 14 hosts + 2 extra (network and Broadcast) = 16. 2^4 = 16, so 4 host bits, leaves 4 bits for network, or a maximum of 16 subnets

Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet

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11
Q

1-163: What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-bit subnet identifier?

256
1022
1024
16382
16384

A

16384

2^14 = 16384

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12
Q

1-164: Alice has been asked to design her company’s IPv4 addressing scheme. The company has been assigned a Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for the subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for the network?

3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, subnet mask: 255.255.255.240
4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, subnet mask: 255.255.255.248
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, subnet mask: 255.255.255.224
53 subnet bits, 3 host bits, subnet mask: 255.255.255.192

A

how to get it?
1. 28 hosts + 2 (network and broadcast)
2. 2^5 = 32, which is enough for 30 hosts
3. 5 bits for hosts, 3 bits for subnet, 8 bits total available on a Class C network
4. 11100000, or 224
5. answer is: 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, subnet mask: 255.255.255.224

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13
Q

1-165: A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hex MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter’s IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-64 value?

FE80::001F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0
FE80::FFFE:021F:9EFC:7AD0
FE80::FF00:1F9E:FC7A:D0FE
FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

A

How to do this?
1. MAC address is 6-bytes, split into 2, 3-byte addresses, in this case:
001F9E FC7AD0
2. add the value FFFE in between to get:
001F9E FFFE FC7AD0
3. 7th bit in first byte has to change from 0 to 1 to indicate this is local created
so you get 00000010, which is 02 in hex
4. add FE80::/10 to get: FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

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14
Q

1-166: The default mask for a IPv4 Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask?

10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192
9 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128
10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0
11 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

A

How to get this?
1. 55 hosts is 55 + 2 (network and Broadcast)
2. 57 hosts, fits in 2^6= 64, or 6 bits for host
3. so 10 bits for subnet, becayse Class B is 16 bits total
4. 11111111.11000000 is the subnet and host bits in binary
5. convert to decimal: 255.192 or

10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

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15
Q

1-167: What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of the network with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20?

142
144
4094
4096

A

How to get it?
1. /20 network has 20 bits for network, and 12 left for host, as its 32 bits total
2. 2^12 = 4096, 12 for hosts. However you need to subtract 2, for the network and broadcast
3. 4096 - 2 = 4094

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16
Q

1-168: Ralph has a IPv4 Class B netywork with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create and how many hosts can he create per subnet?

64 subnets and 2046 hosts
32 subnets and 2046 hosts
30 subnets and 1022 hosts
62 subnets and 1022 hosts

A

how to get this?
1. convert Class B subnet into binary, only need to worry about ending 16-bits cause its class B, so 248.0 comes ot: 11111000.00000000
2. this gives us 5 bits for subnet, 11 bits for host
3. 2^5 = 32
4. 2^11 = 2048 - 2 for network and broadcast
5. so the answer is:

32 subnets and 2046 hosts

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17
Q

1-170: If you have an IPv4 address of 192.168.1.32/27, what is the valid range of host addresses you can use for your workstations?

192.16.1.33 thru 192.168.1.63
192.16.1.33 thru 192.168.1.62
192.16.1.34 thru 192.168.1.62
192.16.1.34 thru 192.168.1.63

A

How to get this?
1. /27 network means 27 bits for subnet and 5 for hosts (32-27 = 5)
2. valid range of host bits is then 00001 (1) thru 11110 (30)
3. range starts as one on top of address, so 192.168.1.32 + 1 = 192.168.1.33
4. range finishs as 30 after the address, so 192.168.1.32 + 30 = 192.168.1.62
5. so:

192.16.1.33 thru 192.168.1.62

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18
Q

1-171: Alice has been assigned the IPv4 network address of 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have available to her?

510
512
1022
1024

A

How to get this?
1. /22 means 22 subnet or network bits
2. so 10 host bits
3. the formula is 2^host bits - 2 (for network and broadcast addresses)
4. so 2^10 = 1024 - 2

1022

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19
Q

What IPv4 network class is used for multicast?

A

Class D

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20
Q

1-174: Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network?

192.167.9.46
172.16.255.255
10.1.0.253
225.87.34.1

A

10.1.0.253

Why?
* 192.167.9.46 - valid range is 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
* 172.16.255.255 - wildcard.255.255 is a brodcast address
* 225.87.34.1 - obviously outside of private range

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21
Q

1-177: Which of the following IPv4 addresses is available for use on a network device?

1.0.0.1
127.98.127.0
234.9.76.32
240.65.8.124

A

1.0.0.1

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22
Q

1-178: Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address?

Link local
Global Unicast
Site local
Anycast

A

Link local

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23
Q

127.0.0.1 in IPv6 and name

A

127.0.0.1 is called the loopback address in both IPv4 andIPv6

in IPv6 its ::1

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24
Q

1-179: When two workstations access the internet using the same Port Address Translation (PAT) router, which of the following does the router assign to each workstation? (Choose all that apply)

A unique port number
A common public IPv4 address
A common port number
A unique public IPv4 address

A

A unique port number

A common public IPv4 address

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25
Q

PAT

A
  • Port Address Translation (PAT)
  • specific type of Network Address Translation (NAT)
  • allows multiple devices on a local network to be mapped to a single public IP address but with a different port number for each session
  • most common form of NAT used to handle the “one-to-many” connection, enabling numerous internal hosts to share a single external IP address.

Two workstations accessing the internet via the same PAT router have:
* A unique port number
* A common public IPv4 address

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26
Q

1-180: Which of the following is the IPv6 equvialent of APIPA?

EUI-64
SLAAC
DHCPv6
APIPAv6

A

SLAAC

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27
Q

SLAAC

A

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration

means by which IPv6 systems self-generate link local addresses with the prefix - fe80::/64

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28
Q

What are the ports for:

  • FTP
  • TFTP (trivial FTP)
  • SSH
  • Telnet
  • SMTP
  • DNS
  • DHCP
  • HTTP
  • POP3
  • NetBios/NetBT
  • IMAP
  • SNMP
  • LDAP
  • HTTPS
  • SMB/CIFS
  • RDP
A
  • FTP - 20/21
  • SSH - 22
  • Telnet - 23
  • SMTP - 25
  • DNS - 53
  • DHCP - 67/68
  • TFTP - 69
  • HTTP - 80 (also sometimes 8080)
  • POP3 - 110
  • NetBios/NetBT - 137/139
  • IMAP - 143
  • SNMP - 161/162 (UDP)
  • LDAP - 389
  • HTTPS - 443
  • SMB/CIFS - 445 (Common Internet File System, CIFS, is a dialect of SMB)
  • RDP - 3389
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29
Q

1-181: Which of the following are mechanims by which IPv6 traffic can be transmitted on an IPv4 network thru the use of tunneling? (Choose all that apply)

Teredo
IPsec
ICMPv6
6to4

A

Teredo

6to4

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30
Q

Teredo

A

Teredo is a tunneling protocol designed to grant IPv6 connectivity to nodes that are on IPv4 Internet but without any native connection to an IPv6 network. Teredo works by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packets.

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31
Q

6to4

A

6to4 is an IPv6 tunneling protocol that allows for the transmission of IPv6 packets over an IPv4 network without the need for a tunnel broker. It is typically used to connect two routers directly and generally requires a public IPv4 address to function

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32
Q

1-182: Which of the following best describes why IPv6 hosts exchange ICMPv6 Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement messages with routers?

To obtain the prefix needed to generate a link-local address
To learn the IPv6 address of the nearest router
To perform address conflict detection for its link-local address
To encapsulate IPv4 pakcets and transmit them over the router

A

To obtain the prefix needed to generate a link-local address

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33
Q

1-183: Which of the following are examples of Virtual IP (VIP) addresses? (Choose all that apply)

An IP address assigned to a host workstation by a DHCP server
A public IP address subsituted for a host’s own private IP address by a NAT router
An IP address assigned to a host workstation by APIPA
An IP address assigned to a virtual NIC

A

A public IP address subsituted for a host’s own private IP address by a NAT router

An IP address assigned to a virtual NIC

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34
Q

1-184: Which of the following is the best description of a subinterface?

  • A logical network interface created from a physical network interface
  • One of the ports on a physical network interface adapter with multiple ports
  • A physical network interface conected to a subnet
  • One of the IP addresses associated with a network interface that has multiple IP addresses
A

A logical network interface created from a physical network interface

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35
Q

1-186: Which of the following server applications uses two well-known port numbers during a typical transaction?

NTP
SNMP
HTTP
FTP

A

FTP uses port 21 to establish a connection and port 20 to send data

also, bullshit question as SNMP uses 161/162, though 162 is UDP and only used for SNMP traps, aka where an agent (the device being managed) can alert the SNMP manager (the system managing the device) to a significant event or change in status.

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36
Q

1-188: Which of the following components does the port number in transport layer protocol header identify?

A transport layer protocol
An application
A gateway
A proxy server

A

An application

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37
Q

1-189: Which of the following organizations is responsible for assiging the well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers?

IEEE
IANA
IETF
ISO

A

IANA

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38
Q

IEEE

A

Institute for Electronic and Eletrical Engineers

publishes ethernet standards, among other things

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39
Q

IANA

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

Assigns values for well known port numbers

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40
Q

IETF

A

Internet Engineering Task Force

develops standards for internet technologies

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41
Q

ISO

A

International Standards Organization

developed the OSI model

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42
Q

MSS

A

Maximum Segment Size

field in TCP option subheader to specify the size of the largest segment a system can control

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43
Q

Socket

A

combination of IPv4 address and port, such as:

192.168.1.47:25

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44
Q

OUI

A

Organizationally Unique Identifier

identifies the manufacturer of network hardware

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45
Q

1-194: Which of the following protocols generate messgaes that are carried directly within IPv4 datagrams, with no intervening transport layer protocol? (Choose all that apply)

ICMP
IGMP
SMTP
SNMP

A

ICMP
IGMP

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46
Q

datagram

A
  • connectionless transfer unit used within the UDP (User Datagram Protocol) framework
  • designed for quick transfers over a packet-switched network.

This approach allows for the transmission of packets without establishing a dedicated end-to-end connection, making the process efficient for scenarios where speed and simplicity are more critical than reliability and order.

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47
Q

Advanced Ports to Know

  • SMTP over TLS
  • POP3 over TLS
  • IMAPS (IMAP over SSL)
  • SQL ports
  • Unix Logging Systems aka syslog
  • LDAP over SSL
A
  • SMTP over TLS: 587
  • POP3 over TLS: 995
  • IMAPS: 993
  • SQL: 1433 (SQL Server), 1521 (SQLnet), 3306 (MySQL)
  • syslog: 514
  • LDAP over SSL: 636
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48
Q

1-201: Which of the following protocols use(s) the term datagram to describe the data transfer unit it creates? (Choose all that apply)

Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP

A

IP

UDP

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49
Q

What term does TCP use to describe the data transfer unit it creates?

A

segment

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50
Q

What term does Ethernet use to describe the data transfer unit it creates?

A

frame

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51
Q

Ephemereal client ports range

A

49152 - 65535

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52
Q

Well known TCP and UDP ports range

A

1 -1023

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53
Q

Registered port numbers range

A

1024-49151

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54
Q

1-208: Which of the following statements about UDP are true? (Choose all that apply)

UDP does not use packet sequencing and acknowledgements
UDP uses packet sequencing and acknowledgements
UDP is a connection orientated protocol
UDP is a connection-less protocol
UDP has an 8-byte header
UDP has an 20-byte header

A

UDP does not use packet sequencing and acknowledgements

UDP is a connection-less protocol

UDP has an 8-byte header

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55
Q

1-215: Which of the following protocols is limited to use on the local subnet only?

ARP
DHCP
DNS
SMTP

A

ARP

56
Q

1-217: What is the difference when you specify the HTTPS:// prefix in a URL instead of HTTP://? (Choose all that apply)

The connection between the web browser and server is encrypted
The browser uses a different port number to connect to the server
The connection uses SSL or TLS instead of HTTP
The browser uses a different IP address to connect to the server

A

The connection between the web browser and server is encrypted

The browser uses a different port number to connect to the server

57
Q

ESP

A

Encapsulating Security Protocol

provides encryption services in IPsec

58
Q

AH

A

Authentication Header

provides digital integrity services for IPsec, in the form of a digital signature

59
Q

MSCHAP

A
  • more detailed version of the Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) developed by Microsoft
  • The current version, MS-CHAPv2, remains the most common authentication method for dial-up connections
  • MS-CHAPv2 is known for offering more security compared to its predecessors, PAP and CHAP

It was created to address some of the undefined issues in the standard CHAP, particularly for the rising dial-up connections to the Internet in the 1990s.

60
Q

IPSec

A

Internet Protocol Security

  • Used in VPNs
  • operates at the Network (3) layer of the OSI model
  • can operate in two modes: Transport mode and Tunnel mode.
  • Suite that authenticates and encrypts packets of data to provide secure communication between two computers over an Internet Protocol network.
61
Q

1-220: Which of the following are the protocols that IPsec uses to secure network traffic? (Choose all that apply)

SSH
AH
ESP
SSL

A

AH

ESP

62
Q

1-227: In which of the following DNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query? (Choose all that apply)

  • A client’s DNS client sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution
  • A client’s DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution
  • A client’s DNS server sends a request to the com top-level domain server to find the authoritative server for the www.adatum.com domain
  • A client’s DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its ISP’s DNS server for resolution
  • A client’s DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www
A
  • A client’s DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution
  • A client’s DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its ISP’s DNS server for resolution
63
Q

1-229: Which of the following protocols are responsible for assigning IP addresses to hosts? (Choose all that apply)

DHCP
ARP
DNS
FTP
BOOTP

A

DHCP

BOOTP

64
Q

BOOTP

A

BOOTP, or Bootstrap Protocol

An early protocol that was designed to provide dynamic IP addressing and support diskless booting of computers. It was a predecessor to DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), which has generally replaced BOOTP for dynamic IP address assignment in modern networks. However, BOOTP is still significant for its role in the initial development of network-based IP address assignment and network booting processes

65
Q

1-230: Which of the following DNS resource records is used only for reverse name resolution?

MX
AAAA
CNAME
PTR

A

PTR

66
Q

PTR

A
  • Pointer Records contain host names and IP addresses,
  • used for reverse name resolution: resolving IP addresses into hostnames
67
Q

Reverse Name Resolution

A

resolves IP addresses into hostnames

68
Q

2-231: Which of the following features is supported by DHCP but not by BOOTP or RARP?

Dynamic address allocation
Relay agents
Manual address allocation
Automation address allocation

A

Dynamic address allocation

DCHP can dynamically assign out IP addresses as well as reclaim them.

BOOTP and RARP can assign out IP addresses automatically or manually, but cannot reclaim them

69
Q

RARP

A

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

RARP is typically used for network devices to determine their IP address using their MAC address, especially in environments where devices do not have a way to store this information, like diskless workstations.

70
Q

Relay agents

A
  • short: A DHCP relay agent is a host or router that forwards DHCP packets between clients and servers
  • Longer: Relay agents, specifically DHCP relay agents, play a crucial role in managing DHCP traffic across network segments.
  • A DHCP relay agent, or simply a DHCP relay, enables a router to forward DHCP broadcast messages from clients to a DHCP server, even if they are not on the same LAN. It does this by using User Datagram Protocol (UDP) forwarding to send these broadcasts as unicast messages directly to the DHCP server.
71
Q

2-232: Which of the following message types are exchanged by DHCP clients and servers during a successful IP address allocation transaction? (Choose all that apply)

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPINFORM
DHCPPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPNAK
DHCPRENEW
DHCPRELEASE

A
  • DHCPDISCOVER
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPPACK
  • DHCPREQUEST
72
Q

What messages are used in the DHCP allocation transaction and what do they do?

A
  • DHCPDISCOVER - broadcast to locate servers
  • DHCPOFFER - server responds with addresses of server
  • DHCPREQUEST - message to one server accepting the offered address
  • DHCPPACK - server reply that it has acknowledged request
73
Q

1-233: Which of the following message types are exchanged by DNCP clients and servers during a successful IP address lease renewal transaction? (Choose all that apply)

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPINFORM
DHCPPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPNAK
DHCPRENEW
DHCPRELEASE

A

DHCPPACK
DHCPREQUEST

74
Q

1-234: Which of the following is not a protocl used to allocate IP address assignments to clients on a network?

ARP
RARP
BOOTP
DHCP

A

RARP

75
Q

1-236: What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers?

Requestor
Forwarder
Authority
Resolver

A

Resolver

This is a terribly written question….
* Requestor: any system requesting DNS information
* Resolver: also called a recursive resolver, receives DNS queries from web browsers and other applications.
* Forwarder: server on a network used to forward DNS queries for external DNS names to DNS servers outside of that network
* Authority: A start of authority record is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System containing administrative information about the zone

76
Q

DNS Resolver

A
  • also called a recursive resolver
  • a server designed to receive DNS queries from web browsers and other applications.
  • The resolver receives a hostname - for example, www.example.com - and is responsible for tracking down the IP address for that hostname.
77
Q

DNS Forwarder

A

A DNS forwarder is a Domain Name System (DNS) server on a network used to forward DNS queries for external DNS names to DNS servers outside of that network. If possible, add a DNS forwarder to your configuration. This should be a host “near” your site, preferably one provided by your Internet provider.

78
Q

DNS Authority

A
  • The DNS ‘start of authority’ (SOA) record
  • stores the email address of the administrator
  • when the domain was last updated
  • how long the server should wait between refreshes.
  • and more
79
Q

DNS Requestor

A

Generic term for any system issuing DNS requests

80
Q

What is an Iterative name resolution query?

A

An iterative name resolution query refers to the process where a DNS server queries each name server in the hierarchy, starting from the root server, to find the authoritative name server that can provide the requested record.

81
Q

1-235: Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query?

  • The DNS server responsd immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache, or failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name
  • The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache, or failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers
  • The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cachem or failing that, by forwarding the name resolution request to another DNS server in a recursive query
  • The DNS server responds immediately if it is the authoritiative server for the domain in which the requested name is located. Otherwise, it returns an error message stating thatr it could not resolve the requested name
A

The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache, or failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers

82
Q

WINS Server

A

Windows Internet Name Service

provides NetBIOS name resolution

83
Q

1-238: Which IP address allocation method is not supported by DHCP?

Manual
Dynamic
Stable
Automatic

A

Stable

84
Q

1-239: ON a DHCP server, what is the name of the element you create to specify which IP addresses the server should assign to clients?

Range
Scope
Pool
Subnet

A

Scope

85
Q

1-240: Why is it necessary to use a relay agent to enable a DHCP server to assign an IP address to clients on other networks? (Choose all that apply)

Because DHCP requires a separate license for each subnet
Because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting DHCP servers on other networks directly
Because DHCP must use TCP to communicate with clients
Because the DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions

A

Because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting DHCP servers on other networks directly

Because the DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions

86
Q

SRV record

A

Service Record

Identify the designated servers for a particular application

87
Q

SOA Record

A

Start of Authority

indicates the delegation of a domain’s adminstrative control from its parent domain

88
Q

1-248: Which of the following technologies enables the IP addresses assigned to clients by a DHCP server to be automatically added to the DNS namespace?

Reverse Name Resolution
Dynamic DNS
Automatic Allocation
HOSTS

A

Dynamic DNS

89
Q

Dynamic DNS

A

DDNS allows DNS servers to automatically update the IP addresses of computers in their forward lookup zones. This is primarily achieved through communication with the local DHCP server.

90
Q

1-249: Which of the following is a tool that integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other?

HOSTS
DHCPv6
IPAM
APIPA

A

IPAM

IPAM (IP Address Management) is the administration of DNS and DHCP, which are the network services that assign and resolve IP addresses to machines in a TCP/IP network

91
Q

IPAM

A

IP Address Management

systemn for planning, managing and monitoring the IP address space for an entire enterprise network. IPAM provides links between the DHCP and DNS servers so that each is aware of the naming and addressing changes made by the other

92
Q

1-250: Which of the following is the term used to describe the logical distance of an NTP server from the time source to which it is sychronized?

Layer
Path
Iteration
Stratum

A

Stratum

93
Q

Stratum

A

In the context of Network Time Protocol (NTP), “stratum” refers to levels in the hierarchy of time sources used to synchronize the clock of a computer system.

  • Stratum 0 devices are highly accurate timekeeping devices, such as atomic clocks or GPS satellites, that provide the reference time.
  • Servers that are directly connected to stratum 0 devices are designated as stratum 1 servers. These servers synchronize their time to within a few milliseconds of stratum 0 time and act as primary time sources for other devices.
  • The hierarchy extends further with stratum 2 servers, which synchronize their time with stratum 1 servers and are slightly less accurately synchronized
94
Q

1-255: Ralphs is concerned that the IP address scope of available leases on his DHCP server is nearly exhausted. What happens to DHCP clients when there are no IP addresses left in the scope for assignment?

Clients are assigned a 0.0.0.0 address
Clients self-assign an APIPA address
Client DHCP requests are forwarded to another DHCP server
Clients are forced to share IP addresses

A

Clients self-assign an APIPA address

95
Q

1-257: DHCP clients use broadcast messages to contact a DHCP server on the local subnet. Which of the following are mechanisms by which DHCP broadcast messages can be forwarded to a DHCP server on another subnet when there is none on the local subnet? (Choose all that apply)

DHCP Relay
UDP forwarding
Zone transfer
IP helper

A

DHCP Relay

UDP forwarding

IP helper

96
Q

UDP forwarding

A
  • a feature used in Cisco IOS software
  • forwards broadcast and multicast packets received for a specific IP address.
97
Q

Zone transfer

A
  • DNS zone replication mechanism
  • transaction between two DNS servers in which one server requests a copy of the other server’s entire zone database, to update its own
98
Q

IP helper

A
  • IP helper refers to an IP helper address
  • also known as the UDP helper address
  • An IP helper address specifies an IP address on another subnet to which a router will forward all UDP broadcasts

It is most often used to enable a single DHCP server to serve multiple subnets. Additionally, it facilitates the forwarding of broadcasts for various protocols such as TFTP, Time Service, TACACS, DNS, NetBIOS, and others

99
Q

1-259: Which of the following SAN protocols are capable of sharing a network medium with standard LAN traffic? (Choose all that apply)

iSCSI
Fibre Channel
FCoE
InfiniBand

A

iSCSI

FCoE

100
Q

iSCSI

A
  • Internet Small Computer System Interface
  • a protocol that allows the SCSI command set to be transported over a TCP/IP network.
  • enables a client to communicate with an iSCSI-based storage system
  • popular in Storage Area Network (SAN) systems
101
Q

Fibre Channel

A
  • high-speed data transfer protocol providing in-order, lossless delivery of raw block data
  • primarily used to connect computer data storage to servers in storage area networks (SAN) in commercial data centers.
  • defines a unique 5-layer protocol that does not correspond to the OSI model
  • Requires a dedicated network medium and does not support LAN traffic
  • Highest possible data transfer rate is 128 Gbps
102
Q

FCoE

A
  • Fibre Channel over Ethernet
  • technology that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks
  • Allows for the integration of Fibre Channel SAN (Storage Area Network) traffic with Ethernet traffic, leveraging the Ethernet infrastructure while maintaining the Fibre Channel protocol for storage communications
103
Q

InfiniBand

A
  • high-end storage infrastructure tech
  • provides data transfer rates of up to 2.5 Gbps and scalable support for up to 64,000 devices.
  • used in high peformance computing environments to replace older bus technologies connecting CPUs to storage arrays.
  • Requires a dedicated network medium
  • does not support LAN traffic
104
Q

iSNS

A

Internet Storage Name Service

  • short: enables automated discovery and management of iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP storage network
  • long: *It is a protocol used to facilitate the discovery, management, and configuration of iSCSI and Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) devices on a TCP/IP network. iSNS provides a centralized repository of storage network information and enables automated discovery of storage resources, thereby simplifying the management of large storage network
105
Q

1-262: What is the highest possible data transfer rate on a SAN using Fibre Channel?

8 Gbps
16 Gbps
32 Gbps
128 Gbps
256 Gbps

A

128 Gbps

106
Q

1-264: Which of the following statements about the differences between NAS and SAN are true? (Choose all that apply)

NAS provides file level access, whereas SAN provides block level storage access
NAS devices typically contain integrated iSCSI targets
SAN devices have an OS, whereas NAS do not
NAS devices typically provide a filesystem, whereas SAN devices do not

A

NAS provides file level access, whereas SAN provides block level storage access

NAS devices typically provide a filesystem, whereas SAN devices do not

107
Q

1-265: Which of the following statements specify the advantages of of FCoE over the original Fibre Channel standard? (Choose all that apply)

FCoE is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel
FCoE can share a network with standard IP traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot
FCoE is routable over IP networks, whereas Fibre Channel is not
FCoE uses standard Ethernet networking hardware

A
  • FCoE is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel
  • FCoE can share a network with standard IP traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot
  • FCoE uses standard Ethernet networking hardware
108
Q

1-266: Which of the following are application layer protocols that NAS devices use to serve shared files to clients on the network? (Choose all that apply)

CIFS
NFS
RDMA
HTTP

A

CIFS

NFS

HTTP

109
Q

CIFS

A

Common Internet File System

flavor/earlier version of SMB

110
Q

NFS

A

Network File System

NFS is a distributed file system protocol that allows a user on a client computer to access files over a network in a manner similar to how local storage is accessed

111
Q

RDMA

A

Remote Direct Memory Access

technology that enables the direct memory access from the memory of one computer into that of another without involving either one’s operating system. This allows high-throughput, low-latency networking, which is especially useful in massively parallel computer clusters.

112
Q

1-267: Which of the following is not one of the advantages of iSCSI over Fibre Channel? (Choose all that apply)

iSCSI is routable, whereas Fibre Channel is not
iSCSI is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel
iSCSI includes its own internal flow control mechanism, whereas Fibre Channel does not
iSCSI can share the same network as standard LAN traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot

A

iSCSI includes its own internal flow control mechanism, whereas Fibre Channel does not

113
Q

iSCSI Initiator

A

client making the request for data to an iSCSI target

114
Q

iSCSI target

A

iSCSI storage device receiving the data request from an iSCSI initator

115
Q

1-270: Which of the following protocols are included in an iSCSI packet? (Choose all that apply)

Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
None of the Above

A

Ethernet
IP
TCP

116
Q

1-271: Which of the following protocols are included in an Fibre Channel packet? (Choose all that apply)

Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
None of the Above

A

None of the Above

117
Q

1-273: Which of the following protocols are included in an FCoE packet?

Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
None of the Above

A

Ethernet

118
Q

1-274: Which of the following protocols uses jumbo frames to increase performance levels on SANs?

Ethernet
IP
Fibre Channel
iSCSI

A

Ethernet

119
Q

Three tiers (aka three tiered architecture) of datacenter architecture

A

Core: provides high speed transport between switches
Distribtution: contains redundant switch connections
Access: contains servers

120
Q

1-275: Which of the following is not the name of one of the layers in the three-tier datacenter architecture?

Core
Intermediate
Distribution
Access

A

Intermediate

121
Q

1-276: Which of the following is not a reason why the leaf and spine datacenter topology is superior to the standard three tier topology?

The leaf and spine arrangement uses a full mesh switching topology
In a leaf and spine topology, all data flows require the same number of hops
The leaf and spine topology is les expensive to implement than the three tier topology
The leaf and spine topology uses software-defined networking to direct traffic, rather than blocking ports using the spanning tree protocol

A

The leaf and spine topology is les expensive to implement than the three tier topology

122
Q

Data center east-west traffic

A

data flow within the data center

123
Q

Data center north-south traffic

A

data flow between devices inside and outside of the data center

124
Q

Leaf and Spine topology

A
  • data center network topology
  • consists of two switching layers: a spine and leaf
  • leaf layer: access switches that aggregate traffic from servers and connect directly into the spine or network core
  • Spine switches: interconnect all leaf switches in a full-mesh topology
125
Q

1-278: Top-of-rack switches most commonly form which layer of the data center topology?

Leaf
Backbone
Spine
Core

A

Leaf

126
Q

1-279: Which of the following layers in an SDN architecture consists of hardware devices?

Application
Control
Infrastructure
Core

A

Infrastructure

127
Q

5 planes of SDN architecture

A

FOCMA
Forwarding
Operational
Control
Management
Application

128
Q

Which RFC defines SDN architecture?

A

RFC 7426

129
Q

1-281: Ralph is designing the datacenter for his company’s new brand office. He is considering various options, including building a new data center at the branch office facility, using a colocated datacenter, and creating a virtual data center using a public cloud provider. Which of the following statements about the differences between these options are true? (Choose all that apply)

  • A colocated data center would be less expensive to implement than a branch office or public cloud data center
  • In a branch office or colocated data center, Ralph’s company would own the hardware
  • In all three data center options, the administrators in Ralph’s company would be responsible for setting up and managing hardware
  • In a branch office or colocated data center, Ralph’s company would be responsible for all utility costs, including heating, cooling, and power
  • A public cloud data center would have greater physical security than the other two options
  • A public cloud data center is easier to expand than a colocated branch office data center
A
  • In a branch office or colocated data center, Ralph’s company would own the hardware
  • A public cloud data center is easier to expand than a colocated branch office data center
130
Q

1-284: When you contract with a provider to obtain email services for your company using their servers in the public cloud, which of the following series models are you using?

IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
DaaS
All of the above

A

SaaS

131
Q

1-286: In which of the following cloud models can a single organization function as both the provider and the consumer of all cloud services?

Public cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Ad hoc cloud

A

Private cloud

132
Q

Cloud bursting

A

common term for offloading excess traffic from private to public cloud resources when necessary to maintain satsifactory performance levels

133
Q

1-291: Which of the following are valid advantages and disadvantages of multitenancy in a public cloud data center? (Choose all that apply)

Multitenancy presents a potential security risk because other tenants are utilizing the same hardware
Multitenancy reduces the cost of utilities and other overhead
Multitenancy introduces the possibility of competition for bandwidth with other tenants
Multitenancy separates tenants by assign each one its own VM

A

Multitenancy presents a potential security risk because other tenants are utilizing the same hardware

Multitenancy reduces the cost of utilities and other overhead

Multitenancy introduces the possibility of competition for bandwidth with other tenants

134
Q

1-292: Which of the following is not one of the advantages of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) deployment for cloud based VMs?

IaC provides rapid deployment of VM configurations
IaC provides consistency in VM configurations
IaC provides cost savings by automating the VM configuration process
IaC provides increased security by encrypting the VM configuration
IaC provides provides elasticity and scalbility by simplyfing the VM deployment process

A

IaC provides increased security by encrypting the VM configuration

135
Q

IaC

A

Infrastructure as Code

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is an automation philosophy that focuses on defining the infrastructure needed by an application or service in configuration files or scripts. This approach allows for the easy creation of identical copies of the necessary infrastructure.

136
Q

1-293: Ralph is designing a hybrid deployment for a corporate client that will require a connecion between the client’s private network and a public cloud provider. The client is concerned about this connection becoming a speed bottleneck at times of heavy user traffic. Which of the following options can Ralph offer the client that will best address this potential problem?

Use a different ISP for the cloud connection
Use a VPN for the cloud connection
Use a cloud direct connection for the hybrid link
Use a leased line connection to the ISP

A

Use a cloud direct connection for the hybrid link

Network+ (10 decks)

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