CH.39 - Shock Flashcards

1
Q

Normal PaO2

A

80-100 mmHg

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2
Q

Normal PaCO2

A

35-45 mmHg

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3
Q

Normal Lactic Acid (arterial)

A

0.3-0.8 mmol/L

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4
Q

Hematocrit:

A

Females: 37-47%
Males: 42-52%

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5
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Females: 12-16 g/dL
Males: 14-18 g/dL

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6
Q

Lab changes expected w hypovolemic shock

A
  1. Decreased pH due to anaerobic metabolism.
  2. Decreased PaO2.
  3. Increased PaCO2.
  4. Increased lactic acid.
  5. increased H&H, if shock is due to dehydration or fluid shift.
  6. Decreased H&H if shock is due to hemorrhage.
  7. Increased potassium due to dehydration and acidosis.
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7
Q

Earliest manifestations of shock

A

Increased heart rate (tachycardia).

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8
Q

Early clinical signs of hypovolemic shock

A

Increased heart rate, narrowing pulse pressure, increased respiratory rate, decreased urine output, skin cool and clammy, slow capref, persistent thirst, restless, agitated, anxious, muscle weakness and pain due to lactic acid.

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9
Q

Ringer’s Lactate

A

Sodium, chloride, calcium, potassium, and lactate disolved in water.

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10
Q

IV Therapy products for hypovolemic shock

A

Crystalloid fluids: Normal saline or Ringer’s lactate. Colloid fluids: Whole blood and PRBCs including H&H - human plasma - if H&H normal. Plasma protein fractions (Plasmanate) and synthetic plasma expanders (hetastarch, Hespan) for early treatment before cause of hypovolemic shock is known.

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11
Q

SIRS

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (early sepsis). Pathophysiology: Increased release of proinflammatory cytokines by WBCs (capillary leak), vasodilation, pooling of blood, vascular damage, formation of microthrombi in capillaries, cellular hypoxia.

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12
Q

Severe Sepsis

A

Pathophysiology: Cell anoxia, cell death, release of metabolites, microthrombi consume platelets and clotting factors, triggers more proinflammatory cytokines organ failure. Clinical signs: Lower O2 Saturation, rapid respiratory rate, decreased or absent urine output, change in patient cognition or affect.

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13
Q

Lab Values associated with sepsis

A

Increasing serum lactate level, normal or low total WBC w/ left shift (decreased segs, increased bands)

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14
Q

SIRS Criteria

A
Temp greater than 100.4 F or 96.8 F.  
HR greater than 90 bpm
Resp rate greater than 20 BPM
PaCO2 less than 32 mmHg
Abnormal WBC Count:
Greater than 12,000/ mm3 or less than 4000/mm3, or greater than 10% bands.
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15
Q

Sepsis Criteria

A
Two or more SIRS criteria present plus:
Presence of any known infection and one of the following clinical manifestations:
Hypotension
Urine output less than expected
Positive fluid balance
Decreased capref
Hyperglycemia (greater than 120 mg/dL in the absence of known DM)
Unexplained change in mental status
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16
Q

The client who is exposed to invaders recovers rapidly after the invasion without damage to healthy body cells. How has the immune response protected the client?
A. Intact skin and mucous membranes
B. Self-tolerance
C. Inflammatory response against invading foreign proteins
D. Antibody-antigen interaction

A

B. SELF TOLERANCE

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17
Q

Which statement accurately explains otitis media?
A. The inflammatory response is triggered by the invasion of foreign proteins.
B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils destroys and eliminates foreign invaders.
C. It is caused by a left shift or increase in immature neutrophils.
D. Many immune system cells released into the blood have specific effects.

A

A. The inflammatory response is triggered by the invasion of foreign proteins.

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18
Q
A complete blood count with differential is performed in the client with chronic sinusitis. Which finding does the nurse expect?
A.  Segmented neutrophils, 62%
B.  Lymphocytes, 28%
C.  Bands, 5%
D.  Basophils, 4%
A

D. Basophils, 4%

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19
Q

The nurse is preparing the client for discharge on postoperative day 1after a modified radical mastectomy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s discharge plan?
A. “Please report any increased redness, swelling, warmth, pain, or lack of movement to your health care provider.”
B. “Do not allow anyone to take your blood pressure or draw blood on the side where you had your breast removed.”
C, “A referral has been made to the American Cancer Society’s Reach to Recovery program, and a volunteer will call you next week.”
D. “Avoid the prone and hunched-back positions, and ask your health care provider for any other needed activity restrictions.”

A

A. “Please report any increased redness, swelling, warmth, pain, or lack of movement to your health care provider.”

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20
Q

Because of a flu epidemic, the respiratory floor of a hospital does not have any open beds. Which client does the nurse determine is ready for discharge at the request of the discharge planner?
A. Older adult client with a history of congestive heart failure, oxygen saturation of 91%, and on O2 at 2 L, with white blood cell count (WBC) 15.5, segs 8.0, bands 5, lungs with slight crackles in bases, able to assist with activities of daily living (ADLs), and afebrile
B. Middle-aged client with history of multiple sclerosis, decreased ability to ambulate since hospitalization, lungs clear, white blood cell count (WBC) 9.5, segs 6.0, bands 1.0, oxygen saturation of 93% on room air, and afebrile
C. Young adult client with crackles in all lung lobes, with productive cough of copious amounts of thick yellow sputum, white blood cell count (WBC) 20.0, segs 7.0, bands 10.0, oxygen saturation of 95% on O2 at 2 L, and temperature of 100.4° F (38° C)
D. Older adult client with recent history of right hip replacement, with productive cough, white blood cell count (WBC) 3.4, segs 6.2, bands 5, lungs with crackles right mid-lobe posterior chest wall, oxygen saturation of 89% with O2 at 2 L, and afebrile

A

B. Middle-aged client with history of multiple sclerosis, decreased ability to ambulate since hospitalization, lungs clear, white blood cell count (WBC) 9.5, segs 6.0, bands 1.0, oxygen saturation of 93% on room air, and afebrile

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21
Q

Which statement best exemplifies the client’s protection from cancer provided by cell-mediated immunity (CMI) after exposure to asbestos?
A. Cytotoxic and cytolytic T-cells destroy cells that contain the major histocompatibility complex of a processed antigen.
B. Helper and inducer T-cells recognize self-cells versus non-self-cells and secrete lymphokines that can enhance the activity of white blood cells.
C. Suppressor T-cells prevent hypersensitivity when a client is exposed to non-self-cells or to proteins.
D. Balance elicits protection when helper or inducer T-cells outnumber suppressor T-cells by a ratio of 2:1.

A

D. Balance elicits protection when helper or inducer T-cells outnumber suppressor T-cells by a ratio of 2:1.

22
Q

Which postoperative kidney transplantation client does the nurse assess first for signs and symptoms of hyperacute rejection?
A. Older adult with Parkinson disease receiving a donation from an identical twin
B. Grand multipara female with a history of subsequent blood transfusions
C. Middle-aged man with a 20-pack-year history
D. Young adult with type 1 diabetes

A

B. Grand multipara female with a history of subsequent blood transfusions

23
Q

The nurse is teaching the client about cyclosporine (Sandimmune) therapy after a liver transplantation. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching?
A. “I will be on this medicine for the rest of my life.”
B. “I must undergo regular kidney function tests.”
C. “I must regularly monitor my blood sugar.”
D. “My gums may become swollen because of this drug.”

A

C. “I must regularly monitor my blood sugar.”

24
Q

Which of these home health nurses should the nurse manager assign to care for an 18-year-old client with a kidney transplant who has many questions about the prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune)?
A. An RN who has worked for the home health agency for 5 years in maternal-child health
B. An RN who has extensive critical care nursing experience and has worked in home health for a year
C. An RN who transferred to the home health agency after working for 10 years in an outpatient dialysis unit
D. An RN who worked for 5 years in an organ transplant unit and has recently been hired by the home health agency

A

D. An RN who worked for 5 years in an organ transplant unit and has recently been hired by the home health agency

25
Q

Which of these nursing activities can the nurse delegate to a home health aide?
A. Changing the dressing for a client with a low absolute neutrophil count
B. Assisting with bathing for a client with chronic rejection of a liver transplant
C. Teaching a client with bacterial pneumonia how to take the prescribed antibiotic
D. Assessing incisional tenderness for a client who had a recent kidney transplant

A

B. Assisting with bathing for a client with chronic rejection of a liver transplant

26
Q
The nurse is caring for postoperative clients at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which of these represents early symptoms of shock?
A.  Hypotension
B.  Bradypnea
C. Heart blocks
D.  Tachycardia
A

D. Tachycardia

27
Q

Which of these problems in the clients below best demonstrates highest risk for hypovolemic shock?
A. Client receiving a blood transfusion
B. Client with severe ascites
C. Client with myocardial infarction
D. Client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (SIADH)

A

B. Client with severe ascites

28
Q

The nurse is caring for a client in the refractory stage of cardiogenic shock. Which intervention should the nurse consider?
A. Admission to rehabilitation hospital for ambulatory retraining
B. Collaboration with home care agency for return to home
C, Discussion with family and provider regarding palliative care
D. Enrollment in a cardiac transplantation program

A

C, Discussion with family and provider regarding palliative care

29
Q

Situation: A client with septic shock has been started on dopamine (Intropin) at 12 mcg/kg/min. Which response indicates a positive outcome?
A. Hourly urine output 10 to 12 mL/hr
B. Blood pressure 90/60 and mean arterial pressure (MAP) 70
C. Blood glucose 245
D. Serum creatinine 3.6 mg/dL

A

B. Blood pressure 90/60 and mean arterial pressure (MAP)

30
Q

The nurse recognizes that the client with which problem is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock?
A. Esophageal varices
B. Kidney failure
C. Arthritis and daily acetaminophen use
D. Kidney stone

A

A. Esophageal varices

31
Q

When analyzing the client’s assessment data, the nurse recognizes that which client is at risk for hemorrhagic shock?
A. International normalized ratio (INR) 7.9
B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 12.5
C. Platelets 170,000
D. Hemoglobin 8.2 g

A

A. International normalized ratio (INR) 7.9

32
Q

How does the nurse recognize that a positive outcome has occurred when administering plasma protein fraction (Plasmanate)?
A. Urine output 20 to 30 mL/hr for the last 4 hours
B. Mean arterial pressure 70
C. Albumin level 3.5
D. Hemoglobin 7.6

A

B. Mean arterial pressure 70

33
Q
How does the nurse recognize that the client is in the early stage of septic shock?
A.  Pallor and cool skin
B.  Blood pressure 84/50
C.  Tachypnea and tachycardia
D.  Respiratory acidosis
A

C. Tachypnea and tachycardia

34
Q
Which problem places a person at highest risk for septic shock?
A.  Kidney failure
B.  Cirrhosis
C.  Lung cancer
D.  40% burn injury
A

D. 40% burn injury

35
Q
The nurse is caring for a group of clients at risk for sepsis. Which problem places the client at highest risk?
A.  Pernicious anemia
B.  Pericarditis
C.  Post-kidney transplant
D.  Client owns an iguana
A

C. Post-kidney transplant

36
Q

How does the nurse caring for the client with septic shock recognize that severe tissue hypoxia is present?
A. PaCO2 58 mm Hg
B. Lactate level 9.0 mmol/L
C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 64 seconds
D. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L

A

B. Lactate level 9.0 mmol/L

37
Q

The nursing assistant is concerned about the postoperative client with blood pressure (BP) of 90/60, heart rate of 80, and respirations of 22. What should the supervising nurse do?
A. Compare these vital signs with the last several readings
B. Request the surgeon to see the client
C. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids
D. Reassess vital signs using different equipment

A

A. Compare these vital signs with the last several readings

38
Q

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to the postoperative client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further education?
A. “I must call my doctor if I develop a fever.”
B. “I will call my provider if I have any pain.”
C. “If the incision site begins to bleed, I must immediately notify my doctor.”
D. “If the site becomes red and swollen, I will call my health care provider.”

A

B. “I will call my provider if I have any pain.”

39
Q

The client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of early shock. What is important for the nurse to do to support the psychosocial integrity of the client? Select all that apply.
A. Ask family members to stay with the client.
B. Call the physician.
C. Increase IV and oxygen rates.
D. Remain with the client.
E. Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her.

A

A. Ask family members to stay with the client.
D. Remain with the client.
E. Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her.

40
Q
Which laboratory result is most indicative of effective therapy for sepsis?
A.  Decreased hemoglobin
B.  Decreased segmented neutrophil count
C.  Increased numbers of monocytes
D.  Increased platelet count
A

B. Decreased segmented neutrophil count

41
Q
The client is admitted to the hospital with two of the systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS) variables: temperature of 95° F (35° C) and high white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle should be initiated?
A.  Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B.  Blood transfusion
C.  Cooling baths
D.  NPO status
A

A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics

42
Q

The nurse plans to administer an antibiotic to the client newly admitted with septic shock. What action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the antibiotic immediately.
B. Ensure that blood cultures were drawn.
C. Obtain signature for informed consent.
D. Take the client’s vital signs.

A

B. Ensure that blood cultures were drawn.

43
Q

VS: Temperature 97.9; pulse 122; blood pressure 86/48; respirations 24; urine output 20 mL for last 2 hours; skin cool and clammy

When caring for a client with hypovolemic shock, the nurse should question which order?
A.  Dopamine (Intropin) 12 mcg/kg/min
B.  Dobutamine (Dobutrex) 5 mcg/kg/min
C.  Plasmanate 1 unit
D.  Bumetamide (Bumex) 1 mg IV
A

D. Bumetamide (Bumex) 1 mg IV

44
Q

Which nurse should be assigned to care for an intubated client who has septic shock as the result of a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection?
A. The LPN/LVN who has 20 years of experience
B. The new RN who recently finished orienting and is working independently with moderately complex clients
C. The RN who will also be caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) 12 hours ago
D. The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care

A

D. The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care

45
Q
A postoperative client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hypovolemic shock. Which nursing action should the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?
A.  Obtain vital signs every 15 minutes.
B.  Measure hourly urine output.
C.  Check oxygen saturation.
D.  Assess level of alertness.
A

B. Measure hourly urine output.

46
Q

When caring for an obtunded client admitted with shock of unknown origin, which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain IV access, and hang prescribed fluid infusions.
B. Apply the automatic blood pressure cuff.
C. Assess level of consciousness and pupil reaction to light.
D. Check the airway and respiratory status.

A

D. Check the airway and respiratory status.

47
Q

CHART EXHIBIT
Physical Assessment Diagnostics
Pulse 140 and thready ABG respiratory acidosis
Blood pressure 60/40 Lactate level 7 mOsm/L
Respirations 40 and shallow

The following requests are given for a client with hemorrhagic shock. Which of these should the nurse carry out first?
A. Notify anesthesia for endotracheal intubation.
B. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now.
C. Give normal saline solution 250 mL/hr.
D. Type and cross for 4 units of packed red blood cells.

A

A. Notify anesthesia for endotracheal intubation.

48
Q

The nurse teaches the client and family that which clinical symptoms in the postoperative client indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated?
A. Localized erythema and edema
B. Low-grade fever and mild hypotension
C. Low oxygen saturation rate and decreased cognition
D. Reduced urinary output and an increased respiratory rate

A

B. Low-grade fever and mild hypotension

49
Q

Which clients are at immediate risk for hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.
Unrestrained in motor vehicle accident
Construction worker
Athlete
Surgical intensive care client
85-year-old with gastrointestinal virus

A

Unrestrained in MVA
Surgical ICU client
85-yo with GI virus

50
Q

The client recovering from an open reduction of the femur suddenly feels light-headed, with increased anxiety and agitation. Which key vital sign differentiates a pulmonary embolism from early sepsis?

a. Temperature
b. Pulse
c. Respiration
d. Blood pressure

A

a. Temperature