ch2 Flashcards

pc hardware

1
Q
1. Which of the following are components you might find inside a
PC? (Select all correct answers.)
❍ A. CPU
❍ B. Motherboard
❍ C. Keyboard
❍ D. Printer
❍ E. RAM
❍ F. Cable modem
A

CPU
MOTHERBOARD
RAM

  1. Answers: A, B, and E. Common components inside a PC include the CPU,
    motherboard, and RAM, along with the power supply, adapter cards, and hard
    drives. Keyboards (and mice) are input devices that are located outside the PC.
    Printers (and displays) are output devices that are located outside the PC. A cable
    modem is an Internet communication device that is outside of the PC. Know the
    internal components of a PC!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
2. Which device stores data over the long term?
❍ A. CPU
❍ B. RAM
❍ C. Hard drive
❍ D. Video
A

Hard drive

  1. Answer: C. The hard drive stores data over the long term. The hard drive stores the
    OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning it won’t be erased when the computer
    is turned off. The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the
    RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card
    stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile
    and is cleared when the computer is turned off.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
3. You would normally plug speakers into what type of port?
❍ A. Parallel
❍ B. DVI
❍ C. 1/8-inch TRS
❍ D. 1/4-inch TRS
A

1/8 inch TRS

  1. Answer: C. 1/8” TRS jacks (also known as mini-jacks) are the most common for
    speaker connections. Speakers normally plug into a sound card or motherboard.
    Parallel ports are older connectors normally used for printers or scanners. DVI
    (Digital Visual Interface) is a type of video port. The larger 1/4” TRS connections
    are for instrument cables or full-size stereo connections

In electronics, a phone connector is a common family of connector typically used for analog signals, primarily audio. It is cylindrical in shape, typically with two, three or four contacts. Three-contact versions are known as TRS connectors, where T stands for “tip”, R stands for “ring” and S stands for “sleeve”. Similarly, two- and four-contact versions are called TS and TRRS connectors respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
4. To which type of expansion slot would you install an x16 card?
❍ A. PCI
❍ B. PCIe
❍ C. AGP
❍ D. PCI-X
A

PCIe

Not to be confused with PCI-X.

PCI Express

  1. Answer: B. PCI Express (PCIe) slots accept x1, x4, and x16 cards (pronounced “by
    sixteen”). PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are
    usually x16). PCI is an older expansion bus that can accept video cards but, unlike
    PCIe, they have no particular designation. AGP works with video cards, but the cards
    are normally numbered as 1x, 2x, 4x, and 8x (pronounced “eight x”). PCI-X is used
    mostly in servers, for example, with network adapters

Year created
2004

Created by

Intel·
Dell·
HP·
IBM

Supersedes

AGP·
PCI·
PCI-X

Width in bits
1–32

Number of devices
One device each on each endpoint of each connection. PCI Express switches can create multiple endpoints out of one endpoint to allow sharing one endpoint with multiple devices.

Speed

Per lane, in each direction:

v1. x: 250 MB/s (2.5 GT/s)
v2. x: 500 MB/s (5 GT/s)
v3. 0: 985 MB/s (8 GT/s)
v4. 0: 1969 MB/s (16 GT/s)

For a 16-lane slot, in each direction:

v1. x: 4 GB/s (2.5 GT/s)
v2. x: 8 GB/s (5 GT/s)
v3. 0: 15.75 GB/s (8 GT/s)
v4. 0: 31.51 GB/s (16 GT/s)

Style
Serial

Hotplugging interface
Yes, if ExpressCard, Mobile PCI Express Module or XQD card

External interface
Yes, with PCI Express External Cabling, such as Thunderbolt

PCI Express (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express), officially abbreviated as PCIe, is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. PCIe has numerous improvements over the older standards, including higher maximum system bus throughput, lower I/O pin count and smaller physical footprint, better performance scaling for bus devices, a more detailed error detection and reporting mechanism (Advanced Error Reporting, AER[1]), and native hot-plug functionality. More recent revisions of the PCIe standard provide hardware support for I/O virtualization.

The PCI Express electrical interface is also used in a variety of other standards, most notably in ExpressCard as a laptop expansion card interface, and in SATA Express as a computer storage interface.

Format specifications are maintained and developed by the PCI-SIG (PCI Special Interest Group), a group of more than 900 companies that also maintain the conventional PCI specifications. PCIe 3.0 is the latest standard for expansion cards that is in production and available on mainstream personal computers.[2][3]

Contents
[hide]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
5. What part of the computer checks all your components during
boot?
❍ A. CMOS
❍ B. POST
❍ C. BIOS
❍ D. EEPROM
A

POST

Power on self test

A power-on self-test (POST) is a process performed by firmware or software routines immediately after a computer or other digital electronic device is powered on.

.5. Answer: B. The POST (Power-On Self-Test) is part of the Basic Input Output System
(BIOS). It runs a self-check of the computer system during boot and stores many of
the parameters of the components within the CMOS. EEPROM is a type of ROM chip
on which the BIOS might reside. BIOS is known as firmware.

The results of tests run by the POST may be displayed on a panel that is part of the device, output to an external device, or stored for future retrieval by a diagnostic tool. Since a self-test might detect that the system’s usual human-readable display is non-functional, an indicator lamp or a speaker may be provided to show error codes as a sequence of flashes or beeps. In addition to running tests, the POST process may also set the initial state of the device from firmware.

In the case of a computer, the POST routines are part of a device’s pre-boot sequence and only once they complete successfully is the bootstrap loader code invoked to load an operating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Tim installs a new CPU in a computer. After a few hours, the
    processor starts to overheat. Which of the following might be
    the cause?
    ❍ A. The CPU is not locked down.
    ❍ B. The CPU is not properly seated.
    ❍ C. Thermal compound was not applied.
    ❍ D. The CPU is not compatible with the motherboard
A

Thermal compound was not applied

                6. Answer: C. Without the thermal compound applied, the processor might overheat after a few hours. If the CPU is not locked down, or is not properly seated, the PC will simply fail to boot. If the CPU is not compatible with the motherboard, either it will not fit the socket or the PC will not boot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. If you have a flat-panel monitor, what type of technology is most
    likely being used? (Select the best answer.)
    ❍ A. LCD
    ❍ B. CRT
    ❍ C. RGB
    ❍ D. DVI
A

LCD

  1. Answer: A. Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) is most commonly the type of technology
    that a flat-panel monitor uses, though there is also light-emitting diode (LED)-backlit
    LCD, Plasma, and Organic LED (OLED). Cathode ray tube (CRT) is an older type of
    tube technology resulting in a much bulkier monitor. RGB simply stands for red,
    green, blue (the three primary colors of a CRT monitor). DVI is short for Digital Visual
    Interface, a port you would find on a video card
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
8. Which of the following could cause the POST to fail? (Select all
correct answers.)
❍ A. CPU
❍ B. Power supply
❍ C. CD-ROM
❍ D. Memory
❍ E. Hard drive
A

CPU
Memory

  1. Answers: A and D. The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST
    to run (and to pass). The hard drive and CD-ROM might or might not be installed
    properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is
    defective, the system will simply not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
9. Which expansion bus uses lanes to transfer data?
❍ A. PCI
❍ B. PCI-X
❍ C. PCIe
❍ D. IDE
A

PCIe

  1. Answer: C. PCIe (PCI Express) uses serial lanes to send and receive data. That means
    one bit at a time per lane. PCI, PCI-X, and IDE are parallel technologies, which means
    8 bits at a time or multiples of 8. IDE stands for Integrated Device Electronics, the
    predecessor to SATA hard drive technology

Lane[edit]

A lane is composed of two differential signaling pairs, with one pair for receiving data and the other for transmitting. Thus, each lane is composed of four wires or signal traces. Conceptually, each lane is used as a full-duplex byte stream, transporting data packets in eight-bit “byte” format simultaneously in both directions between endpoints of a link.[7] Physical PCI Express slots may contain from one to 32 lanes, more precisely 1, 2, 4, 8, 12, 16 or 32 lanes.[6][5] Lane counts are written with an “×” prefix (for example, “×8” represents an eight-lane card or slot), with ×16 being the largest size in common use.[8]

Serial bus[edit]

The bonded serial bus architecture was chosen over the traditional parallel bus due to inherent limitations of the latter, including half-duplex operation, excess signal count, and inherently lower bandwidth due to timing skew. Timing skew results from separate electrical signals within a parallel interface traveling through conductors of different lengths, on potentially different printed circuit board (PCB) layers, and at possibly different signal velocities. Despite being transmitted simultaneously as a single word, signals on a parallel interface experience different travel times and arrive at their destinations at different moments. When the interface clock rate is increased to a point where its inverse (that is, its clock period) is shorter than the largest possible time between signal arrivals, the signals no longer arrive with sufficient coincidence to make recovery of the transmitted word possible. Since timing skew over a parallel bus can amount to a few nanoseconds, the resulting bandwidth limitation is in the range of hundreds of megahertz.

A serial interface does not exhibit timing skew because there is only one differential signal in each direction within each lane, and there is no external clock signal since clocking information is embedded within the serial signal itself. As such, typical bandwidth limitations on serial signals are in the multi-gigahertz range. PCI Express is one example of the general trend toward replacing parallel buses with serial interconnects; other examples include Serial ATA (SATA), USB, Serial Attached SCSI (SAS), FireWire (IEEE 1394), and RapidIO.

Multichannel serial design increases flexibility with its ability to allocate fewer lanes for slower devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of the following are 64-bit CPUs? (Select all correct
    answers.)
    ❍ A. Core i5
    ❍ B. Phenom II
    ❍ C. Pentium IV
    ❍ D. x64
A

Core i5
Phenom II

  1. Answers: A and B. Intel’s Core i5 and AMD’s Phenom II are both 64-bit CPUs. The
    Pentium IV is an older 32-bit CPU. x64 is the name given to 64-bit processor technology
    but is not an actual CPU.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
11. Which kind of socket incorporates “lands” to ensure connectivity
to a CPU?
❍ A. PGA
❍ B. Chipset
❍ C. LGA
❍ D. Copper
A

LGA

(Land Grid Array) A chip package with a very high density of contacts. LGAs differ from traditional chips with protruding pins that are inserted into a socket. An LGA chip has flat pads on the bottom of its package that touch contacts on the motherboard socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
12. How should you hold RAM when installing it?
❍ A. By the edges
❍ B. By the front and back
❍ C. With tweezers
❍ D. With an IC puller
A

By the edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
13. Which device should you use to protect against power outages?
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. UPS
❍ C. FedEx
❍ D. Surge protector
A

UPS

An uninterruptible power supply, also uninterruptible power source, UPS or battery/flywheel backup, is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source, typically mains power, fails. A UPS differs from an auxiliary or emergency power system or standby generator in that it will provide near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions, by supplying energy stored in batteries, supercapacitors, or flywheels. The on-battery runtime of most uninterruptible power sources is relatively short (only a few minutes) but sufficient to start a standby power source or properly shut down the protected equipment.

A UPS is typically used to protect hardware such as computers, data centers, telecommunication equipment or other electrical equipment where an unexpected power disruption could cause injuries, fatalities, serious business disruption or data loss. UPS units range in size from units designed to protect a single computer without a video monitor (around 200 volt-ampere rating) to large units powering entire data centers or buildings. The world’s largest UPS, the 46-megawatt Battery Electric Storage System (BESS), in Fairbanks, Alaska, powers the entire city and nearby rural communities during outages.[1]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
14. Which of the following uses a 24-pin main motherboard power
connector?
❍ A. ATX
❍ B. ATX 12V 1.3
❍ C. ATX 12V 2.0
❍ D. ATX 5V 2.0
A

ATX 12V 2.0

ATX (Advanced Technology eXtended) is a motherboard configuration specification developed by Intel in 1995 to improve on previous de facto standards like the AT design.

It was the first major change in desktop computer enclosure, motherboard and power supply design in many years, improving standardization and interchangeability of parts. The specification defines the key mechanical dimensions, mounting point, I/O panel, power and connector interfaces between a computer case, a motherboard and a power supply.

With the improvements it offered, including lower costs, ATX overtook the AT configuration completely as the default design for new systems within a few years.

ATX addressed many of the AT’s designs annoyances which had frustrated system builders.

Other standards for smaller boards (including microATX, FlexATX and mini-ITX) usually keep the basic rear layout but reduce the size of the board and the number of expansion slots. In 2003, Intel announced the BTX standard, intended as a replacement for ATX.

As of 2009, the ATX design remains a standard for do-it-yourselfers; BTX has however made inroads into pre-made systems. This[clarification needed] was designed to solve the problems in BAT and LPX motherboards.[citation needed]

The official specifications were released by Intel in 1995 and have been revised numerous times since. The most recent ATX motherboard specification is version 2.2.[1] The most recent ATX12V power supply unit specification is 2.31,[2] released in February 2008.

A full-size ATX board is 12 × 9.6 in (305 × 244 mm). This allows many ATX chassis to accept microATX boards as well

ATX12V 2.0[edit]

ATX-450PNF by FSP Group
The above conclusion was incorporated in ATX12V 2.0 (introduced in February 2003), which defined quite different power distribution from ATX12V 1.x:
Most power is now provided on 12 V rails. The standard specifies that two independent 12 V rails (12 V2 for the 4 pin connector and 12 V1 for everything else) with independent overcurrent protection are needed to meet the power requirements safely (some very high power PSUs have more than two rails, recommendations for such large PSUs are not given by the standard).
The power on 3.3 V and 5 V rails was significantly reduced.
The main ATX power connector was extended to 24 pins. The extra four pins provide one additional 3.3 V, 5 V and 12 V circuit.
The 6-pin AUX connector from ATX12V 1.x was removed because the extra 3.3 V and 5 V circuits which it provided are now incorporated in the 24-pin main connector.
The power supply is required to include a Serial ATA power cable.
Many other specification changes and additions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
15. What is the maximum data transfer rate of SATA revision 3.0?
❍ A. 1.5 Gb/s
❍ B. 150 MB/s
❍ C. 3.0 Gb/s
❍ D. 6.0 Gb/s
A

6.0 Gb/s

Transfer rate for
SATA III
also called SATA 3.0

Serial ATA (SATA) is a computer bus interface that connects host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. Serial ATA replaces the older AT Attachment standard (later referred to as Parallel ATA or PATA), offering several advantages over the older interface: reduced cable size and cost (seven conductors instead of 40 or 80), native hot swapping, faster data transfer through higher signalling rates, and more efficient transfer through an (optional) I/O queuing protocol.

SATA host adapters and devices communicate via a high-speed serial cable over two pairs of conductors. In contrast, parallel ATA (the redesignation for the legacy ATA specifications) used a 16-bit wide data bus with many additional support and control signals, all operating at much lower frequency. To ensure backward compatibility with legacy ATA software and applications, SATA uses the same basic ATA and ATAPI command-set as legacy ATA devices.

SATA has replaced parallel ATA in consumer desktop and laptop computers, and has largely replaced PATA in new embedded applications. SATA’s market share in the desktop PC market was 99% in 2008.[2] PATA remains widely used in industrial and embedded applications that use CompactFlash (CF) storage, which is designed around the legacy PATA standard, even though the new CFast standard is based on SATA.[3][4]

Serial ATA industry compatibility specifications originate from the Serial ATA International Organization (SATA-IO). The SATA-IO group collaboratively creates, reviews, ratifies, and publishes the interoperability specifications, the test cases and plugfests. As with many other industry compatibility standards, the SATA content ownership is transferred to other industry bodies: primarily the INCITS T13 subcommittee ATA, the INCITS T10 subcommittee (SCSI), a subgroup of T10 responsible for Serial Attached SCSI (SAS). The remainder of this article will try to use the terminology and specifications of SATA-IO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
16. A Compact Disc you use is rated at a speed of 48X. What does the
X refer to?
❍ A. 150 KB/s
❍ B. 1.32 MB/s
❍ C. 133 MB/s
❍ D. 4.5 MB/s
A

150 KB/S

150 kilobytes per second

Most optical drives today are combo CD/DVD drives that support DVDs and all the CD formats: CD audio, CD-ROM, CD-R and CD-RW. The speeds of the drives are rated by their CD-ROM and DVD transfer rates. The original CD-ROM drive (1x) transferred data at 150KB per second. By doubling the spindle RPMs, the data transfer rate increased to 300KB/sec (2x) and so on. See CD-ROM and DVD drives.

CD-ROM CD-ROM
X Rating Data Transfer Rate

  1x       150 Kilobytes/sec
  2x       300 Kilobytes/sec
  4x       600 Kilobytes/sec
      8x       1.2 Megabytes/sec
      10x      1.5 Megabytes/sec
      12x      1.8 Megabytes/sec
      20x      3.0 Megabytes/sec
      36x      5.4 Megabytes/sec
      40x      6.0 Megabytes/sec
      48x      7.2 Megabytes/sec
      50x      7.5 Megabytes/sec
      52x      7.8 Megabytes/sec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
17. Which type of adapter card accepts broadcast programming?
❍ A. FireWire card
❍ B. Video capture card
❍ C. Network interface card
❍ D. TV tuner
A

TV tuner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
18. Which of the following types of custom PCs requires an HDMI
output?
❍ A. HTPC
❍ B. Gaming PC
❍ C. Virtualization workstation
❍ D. CAD/CAM workstation
A

HTPC

(Home Theater PC) A personal computer that is used to store and play music and movies as well as display photos. Also called a “living room PC,” an HTPC is installed in the A/V cabinet and connects to a stereo or home theater system. The HTPC’s CD/DVD drive is used to play the media or rip titles to the hard drive.

With media player software, a quality sound card and quiet case, a standard PC can be turned into an HTPC. For example, the Media Center interface in Windows provides the so-called “10-foot user interface” for HTPC deployment. An HTPC’s CD/DVD drive often provides an economical alternative to stand-alone CD/DVD decks and digital media servers designed strictly for home theaters. However, high-end HTPCs can be significantly more costly than regular PCs. See digital media server, Windows Media Center, 10-foot user interface and home theater.

A Windows Media Center PC

Designed for A/V cabinets, CybertronPC makes a variety of Media Center PCs. This Core i7-based model has 2 terabytes of disk storage and an HDTV tuner card. (Image courtesy of Cybertron International, Inc., www.cybertronpc.com)

Software Solutions

The 10-foot user interfaces in the Zinc software (top) and Boxee software (bottom) turn a computer into a home theater PC. Zinc provides access to video content, while Boxee is an alternative to Windows Media Center. See video portal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
19. How many pins are inside a SATA data connector?
❍ A. 15
❍ B. 7
❍ C. 24
❍ D. 127
A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
20. Which of the following ports would you most likely connect a
printer to?
❍ A. USB
❍ B. LPT
❍ C. FireWire
❍ D. eSATA
A

USB

UNIVERSAL SERIAL BUS

(1) Short for “USB flash drive” or “USB port.” See USB drive and USB port.
(2) (Universal Serial Bus) The most widely used hardware interface for attaching peripherals to a computer. There are typically at least two USB ports on laptops and four on desktop computers, while USB “hubs” provide more connections (see below). After appearing in 1997, USB became the standard for connecting keyboards, mice, printers and hard drives, eventually replacing the PC’s serial and parallel ports and the Apple Desktop Bus on Macs (see serial port, parallel port and ADB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
21. What is the delay in the RAM’s response to a request from the
memory controller called?
❍ A. Latency
❍ B. Standard deviation
❍ C. Fetch interval
❍ D. Lag
A

Latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
22. What is the minimum number of hard drives necessary to
implement RAID 5?
❍ A. 2
❍ B. 5
❍ C. 3
❍ D. 4
A

3

RAID 5 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks Mode 5) A popular disk subsystem that increases safety by computing parity data and increasing speed by interleaving data across three or more drives (striping). RAID 5 is similar to RAID 3, except that RAID 5 parity is distributed among all drives, whereas RAID 3 uses separate parity drives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. A user’s time and date keeps resetting to January 1, 2000. What is
    the most likely cause?
    ❍ A. The BIOS needs to be updated.
    ❍ B. Windows needs to be updated.
    ❍ C. The Windows Date and Time Properties window needs
    to be modified.
    ❍ D. The lithium battery needs to be replaced
A

lithium battery needs to be replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
24. What type of adapter card is normally plugged into a PCIe x16
adapter card slot?
❍ A. Modem
❍ B. Video
❍ C. NIC
❍ D. Sound
A

Video

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
25. To prevent damage to a computer, the computer should be
connected to what?
❍ A. A power strip
❍ B. A power inverter
❍ C. An AC to DC converter
❍ D. A UPS
A

UPS

(Uninterruptible Power Supply) A device that provides battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level. Small UPS systems provide power for a few minutes; enough to power down the computer in an orderly manner, while larger systems have enough battery for several hours. In mission critical datacenters, UPS systems are used for just a few minutes until electrical generators take over.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. A computer has 1024 MB of RAM. It has 128 MB of shared video
    memory. How much RAM is available to the operating system?
    ❍ A. 512 MB
    ❍ B. 896 MB
    ❍ C. 448 MB
    ❍ D. 1024 MB
A

896 MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
27. Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep
several times and fail during boot?
❍ A. Sound card
❍ B. Power supply
❍ C. Hard drive
❍ D. RAM
A

RAM

(Random Access Memory) The main memory in a computer, smartphone or tablet. RAM is the temporary workspace where instructions are executed and data are processed. What makes RAM “random access” is its capability of reading and writing any single byte. This “byte addressability” differs from storage devices such as hard disks and flash memory chips, which read and write sectors containing multiple bytes. In addition, RAM is used as a temporary space for the software, while storage is permanent until deleted by the user. To learn how memory is used, see computer (look at the memory examples). Also see memory, memory module and future memory chips.

RAM Is DRAM or SRAM
The most common type of RAM is dynamic RAM (DRAM). When a computer data sheet states 4GB of memory or 4GB RAM, it refers to DRAM (see dynamic RAM). Higher-speed SRAM is also used as an internal staging area (see static RAM).

Memory Is Often Not RAM!
A smartphone or tablet’s specification of 16GB or 32GB of memory does not refer to RAM; rather it is the unit’s flash memory capacity for storing apps and data. The internal RAM is in the 256MB-3GB range but is not widely promoted to the general public, presumably to avoid confusion between RAM (temporary workspace) and flash memory (permanent storage). See storage vs. memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which of the following is the proper boot sequence of a PC?
    ❍ A. CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system
    ❍ B. Boot loader, operating system, CPU, RAM
    ❍ C. POST, CPU, boot loader, operating system
    ❍ D. CPU, RAM, boot loader, operating system
A

CPU,POST,boot loader,operating system

Boot loader calls operating system into memory

POST power on self test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Roger informs you that none of the three SCSI drives can be seen
    on his SCSI chain. What should you check?
    ❍ A. Whether the host adapter is terminated and that the
    disks have consecutive IDs of 1, 2, and 3
    ❍ B. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7 or 15, and
    whether all the disks are terminated and have consecutive
    IDs of 0, 1, and 2
    ❍ C. Whether the host adapter has an ID of 0, and whether
    the disks are terminated with the same ID
    ❍ D. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7, and whether
    both ends of the chain are terminated, and that each
    disk has a unique ID
A

D. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7, and whether both ends of the chain are terminated, and that each
disk has a unique ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
30. Which of the following has the fastest data throughput?
❍ A. CD-ROM
❍ B. Hard drive
❍ C. RAM
❍ D. USB
A

RAM

(Random Access Memory) The main memory in a computer, smartphone or tablet. RAM is the temporary workspace where instructions are executed and data are processed. What makes RAM “random access” is its capability of reading and writing any single byte. This “byte addressability” differs from storage devices such as hard disks and flash memory chips, which read and write sectors containing multiple bytes. In addition, RAM is used as a temporary space for the software, while storage is permanent until deleted by the user. To learn how memory is used, see computer (look at the memory examples). Also see memory, memory module and future memory chips.

RAM Is DRAM or SRAM
The most common type of RAM is dynamic RAM (DRAM). When a computer data sheet states 4GB of memory or 4GB RAM, it refers to DRAM (see dynamic RAM). Higher-speed SRAM is also used as an internal staging area (see static RAM).

Memory Is Often Not RAM!
A smartphone or tablet’s specification of 16GB or 32GB of memory does not refer to RAM; rather it is the unit’s flash memory capacity for storing apps and data. The internal RAM is in the 256MB-3GB range but is not widely promoted to the general public, presumably to avoid confusion between RAM (temporary workspace) and flash memory (permanent storage). See storage vs. memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
31. Which kind of form factor is commonly found in HTPCs?
❍ A. ATX
❍ B. Pico-ITX
❍ C. microATX
❍ D. Nano-ITX
A

micro-ATX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
32. Which of the following CPU cooling methods is the most
common?
❍ A. Heat sink
❍ B. Heat sink and fan
❍ C. Liquid cooling
❍ D. Liquid nitrogen
A

Heat sink and fan

Definition of:heat sink
A material that absorbs heat. Typically made of aluminum, heat sinks are widely used in amplifiers and other electronic devices that build up heat. Small heat sinks are the most economical method for cooling microprocessors and other chips. They are commonly found glued or clipped to the top or the side of the chip package. See heat pipe, CPU cooler and thermal grease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. You need to store 4 GB of data to an optical disc (without using
    compression). Which of the following will meet your requirements?
    (Select the two best answers.)
    ❍ A. CD-ROM
    ❍ B. DVD-RW
    ❍ C. CD-RW
    ❍ D. BD-R
A

BD-R
(Blu-ray Disc-Recordable) See Blu-ray

DVD-RW

(DVD-Read Write) A rewritable (re-recordable) DVD disc for both movies and data from the DVD Forum. Also called “DVD Dash RW” and “DVD Minus RW,” DVD-RW uses phase change recording. The media hold 4.7GB per side and can be rewritten 1,000 times. See DVD, DVD storage capacities, DVD drives, DVD+RW and optical disc.

In practice, the term “DVD” refers to all DVD formats. The phrase “rewrite the data on the DVD” really means “rewrite the data on the DVD-RW or DVD+RW.” See DVD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
34. Which of the following is not a video port?
❍ A. DVI
❍ B. HDMI
❍ C. Display Port
❍ D. CNR
A

CNR

Communications and Networking Riser (CNR) is a slot found on certain PC motherboards and used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment. A motherboard manufacturer can choose to provide audio, networking, or modem functionality in any combination on a CNR card. CNR slots were once commonly found on Pentium 4-class motherboards, but have since been phased out in favor of on-board or embedded components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. What does a CAD/CAM workstation require? (Select the two best
    answers.)
    ❍ A. Powerful CPU
    ❍ B. HDMI output
    ❍ C. Surround sound
    ❍ D. High-end video
A

Powerful CPU

High end video

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
36. You need to install the fastest hard drive possible. Which port
should you connect it to?
❍ A. USB
❍ B. SATA
❍ C. IDE
❍ D. eSATA
A

SATA

(Serial ATA) The standard hardware interface for connecting hard disks and CD/DVD drives to the computer. SATA was introduced in 2001, and nearly all computers use SATA drives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
37. What type of power connector is used for an x16 video card?
❍ A. Molex 4-pin
❍ B. Mini 4-pin
❍ C. PCIe 6-pin
❍ D. P1 24-pin
A

PCIe (6-pin)

PCI Express (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express), officially abbreviated as PCIe, is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. PCIe has numerous improvements over the older standards, including higher maximum system bus throughput, lower I/O pin count and smaller physical footprint, better performance scaling for bus devices, a more detailed error detection and reporting mechanism (Advanced Error Reporting, AER[1]), and native hot-plug functionality. More recent revisions of the PCIe standard provide hardware support for I/O virtualization.

The PCI Express electrical interface is also used in a variety of other standards, most notably in ExpressCard as a laptop expansion card interface, and in SATA Express as a computer storage interface.

Format specifications are maintained and developed by the PCI-SIG (PCI Special Interest Group), a group of more than 900 companies that also maintain the conventional PCI specifications. PCIe 3.0 is the latest standard for expansion cards that is in production and available on mainstream personal computers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
38. Which kind of current does a typical desktop PC draw from a wall
outlet?
❍ A. Direct current
❍ B. Neutral current
❍ C. Alternating current
❍ D. Draw current
A

Alternating current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Which of the following are output devices? (Select the three best
    answers.)
    ❍ A. Speakers
    ❍ B. Keyboard
    ❍ C. Mouse
    ❍ D. Printer
    ❍ E. Display
    ❍ F. Stylus
A

Speakers
Printer
Display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. A customer complains that he gets a headache when he’s viewing
    his display for more than an hour. What should you do?
    ❍ A. Raise the resolution to a higher setting
    ❍ B. Install an antiglare filter
    ❍ C. Dim the lights near the customer’s desk
    ❍ D. Upgrade the video connector from DVI to VGA
A

Install an antiglare filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
41. What does the b in 1000 Mbps stand for?
❍ A. Megabytes
❍ B. Bits
❍ C. Bytes
❍ D. Bandwidth
A

Bits

  1. Answer: B. The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits. 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per
    second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate
    bits when measuring network data transfer rates.
42
Q
42. The IP address 192.168.1.1 uses what addressing scheme?
❍ A. 64-bit
❍ B. 32-bit
❍ C. 128-bit
❍ D. 40-bit
A

32-bit

  1. Answer: B. There are 32 bits in a standard IPv4 address. In this case, the binary
    equivalent of the IP numbers would be 192 = 11000000, 168 = 10101000, 1 =
    00000001, and 1 = 00000001. If you count all the binary bits, you end up with 32 in
    total. Therefore, the address is a 32-bit dotted-decimal address. 64-bit is a term used
    with newer x64 CPUs. 128-bit is used by IPv6. 40-bit is a commonly used amount of
    bits in older encryption techniques

An Internet Protocol address (IP address) is a numerical label assigned to each device (e.g., computer, printer) participating in a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication.[1] An IP address serves two principal functions: host or network interface identification and location addressing. Its role has been characterized as follows: “A name indicates what we seek. An address indicates where it is. A route indicates how to get there.”[2]

The designers of the Internet Protocol defined an IP address as a 32-bit number[1] and this system, known as Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still in use today. However, due to the enormous growth of the Internet and the predicted depletion of available addresses, a new version of IP (IPv6), using 128 bits for the address, was developed in 1995.[3] IPv6 was standardized as RFC 2460 in 1998,[4] and its deployment has been ongoing since the mid-2000s.

IP addresses are binary numbers, but they are usually stored in text files and displayed in human-readable notations, such as 172.16.254.1 (for IPv4), and 2001:db8:0:1234:0:567:8:1 (for IPv6).

The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) manages the IP address space allocations globally and delegates five regional Internet registries (RIRs) to allocate IP address blocks to local Internet registries (Internet service providers) and other entities.

43
Q
43. When running cable through drop ceilings, what type of cable do
you need?
❍ A. PVC
❍ B. Category 5
❍ C. Strong cable
❍ D. Plenum
A

Plenun cable

  1. Answer: D. Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system
    cannot get to. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). The reason for
    this is that the PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the case of a fire.
    Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering which burns slower and gives off
    less toxic fumes.

Plenum cable /ˈplɛnəm/ is cable that is laid in the plenum spaces of buildings. In the United States, plastics used in the construction of plenum cable are regulated under the National Fire Protection Association standard NFPA 90A: Standard for the Installation of Air Conditioning and Ventilating Systems. All materials intended for use on wire and cables to be placed in plenum spaces are designed to meet rigorous fire safety test standards in accordance with NFPA 262 and outlined in NFPA 90A.

Plenum cable is jacketed with a fire-retardant plastic jacket of either a low-smoke polyvinyl chloride (PVC) or a fluorinated ethylene polymer (FEP). Polyolefin formulations, specifically based on polyethylene compounding had been developed by at least two companies in the early to mid-1990s; however, these were never commercialized, and development efforts continue in these yet-untapped product potentials. Development efforts on a non-halogen plenum compound were announced in 2007 citing new flame-retardant synergist packages that may provide an answer for an yet-underdeveloped plenum cable market outside the United States.

In 2006, significant concern developed over the potential toxicity of FEP and related fluorochemicals including the process aid perfluorooctanoic acid (PFOA) or C8 such that California has proposed some of these materials as potential human carcinogens. The NFPA Technical Committee on Air Conditioning, in response to public comment, has referred the issue of toxicity of cabling materials to the NFPA Committee on Toxicity for review before 2008.

In 2007, a development program specifically targeting the production of a non-halogen plenum cable compound was announced to specifically address lingering toxicity concerns presented by halogenated compounds for use in European and other global markets.

44
Q
44. The wireless protocol 802.11n has a maximum data transfer rate
of what?
❍ A. 11 Mbps
❍ B. 600 Mbps
❍ C. 480 Mbps
❍ D. 54 Mbps
A

600 Mbps

IEEE 802.11n-2009, commonly shortened to 802.11n, is a wireless networking standard that uses multiple antennas to increase data rates. It is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11-2007 wireless networking standard. Its purpose is to improve network throughput over the two previous standards—802.11a and 802.11g—with a significant increase in the maximum net data rate from 54 Mbit/s to 600 Mbit/s (slightly higher gross bit rate including for example error-correction codes, and slightly lower maximum throughput) with the use of four spatial streams at a channel width of 40 MHz.[1][2] 802.11n standardized support for multiple-input multiple-output and frame aggregation, and security improvements, among other features. It can be used in the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency bands.

802.11 is a set of IEEE standards that govern wireless networking transmission methods. They are commonly used today in their 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n and the newer 802.11ac versions to provide wireless connectivity in homes and businesses. Development of 802.11n began in 2002, seven years before publication. The 802.11n protocol is now Clause 20 of the published IEEE 802.11-2012 standard. Proposed enhancements to 802.11n are under development as part of IEEE 802.11ac.

45
Q
45. What device connects multiple computers together in a LAN?
❍ A. Modem
❍ B. Router
❍ C. Switch
❍ D. Firewall
A

Switch

What is a Network Switch?

To understand basic networking, you first need to answer the question, “What is a network switch?”

Most business networks today use switches to connect computers, printers and servers within a building or campus. A switch serves as a controller, enabling networked devices to talk to each other efficiently. Through information sharing and resource allocation, switches save businesses money and increase employee productivity.

Understand the different types of Ethernet switches and their capabilities.

What is a Network Switch: Unmanaged Switches

An unmanaged switch works right out of the box. It’s not designed to be configured, so you don’t have to worry about installing or setting it up correctly. Unmanaged switches have less network capacity than managed switches. You’ll usually find unmanaged switches in home networking equipment.

What is a Network Switch: Managed Switches

A managed network switch is configurable, offering greater flexibility and capacity than an unmanaged switch. You can monitor and adjust a managed switch locally or remotely, to give you greater network control.

What is a Network Switch versus a Router?

Switches create a network. Routers connect networks. A router links computers to the Internet, so users can share the connection. A router acts as a dispatcher, choosing the best path for information to travel so it’s received quickly.

What is a Network Switch to My Business?

Switches and routers are the building blocks for all business communications, from data to voice and video to wireless access. They can improve profitability by enabling your company to increase productivity, trim business expenses, and improve security and customer service.

46
Q
46. The IP address 192.168.1.1 should have what default subnet
mask?
❍ A. 255.255.0.0
❍ B. 255.255.255.0
❍ C. 255.0.0.0
❍ D. 255.255.255.255
A

255.255.255.0

Definition: 255.255.255.0 is the most common subnet mask used on computers connected to Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An incorrectly configured subnet mask (also called netmask) causes some types of network connection failures.
The subnet mask 255.255.255.0 is also written as a 32-bit binary number: 11111111 11111111 11111111 00000000 The ‘0’ digits of the mask span the IP range of the subnet, 8 bits or 255 addresses in this case.
In classless IP networks, the subnet representation is converted to a shorthand notation based on the number of ‘1’ digits in the mask. In this case, /24.

47
Q
47. What is the minimum category cable needed for a 1000BASE-T
network?
❍ A. Category 3
❍ B. Category 5
❍ C. Category 5e
❍ D. Category 6
A

Category 5e

  1. Answer: C. The minimum cable needed for 1000BASE-T networks is Category 5e.
    Of course, Cat 6 would also work, but it is not the minimum of the listed answers.
    1000BASE-T specifies the speed of the network (1000 Mbps), the type (baseband,
    single shared channel), and the cable to be used (T = twisted pair). Cat 3 is suitable
    for 10 Mbps networks. Cat 5 is suitable for 100 Mbps networks
    Category 5 vs. 5e[edit]

To support Gigabit Ethernet, a higher performance version of cat 5, enhanced cat 5 or cat 5e has been added to the standards. Cat 5e adds new performance requirements to permit higher speed network operation.[13][14]

The category 5e specification improves upon the category 5 specification by tightening some crosstalk specifications and introducing new crosstalk specifications that were not present in the original category 5 specification. The bandwidth of category 5 and 5e is the same – 100 MHz.

The differences between category 5 and category 5e are in their transmission performance. Category 5e components are most suitable for a high-speed Gigabit Ethernet. While category 5 components may function to some degree in a Gigabit Ethernet, they perform below standard during high-data transfer scenarios

Cable standard[edit]

The specification for category 5 cable was defined in ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-A, with clarification in TSB-95.[3] These documents specify performance characteristics and test requirements for frequencies up to 100 MHz. Cable types, connector types and cabling topologies are defined by TIA/EIA-568-B. Nearly always, 8P8C modular connectors, often referred to as RJ45, are used for connecting category 5 cable. The cable is terminated in either the T568A scheme or the T568B scheme. The two schemes work equally well and may be mixed in an installation so long as the same scheme is used on both ends of each cable.

Each of the four pairs in a cat 5 cable has differing precise number of twists per metre to minimize crosstalk between the pairs. Although cable assemblies containing 4 pairs are common, category 5 is not limited to 4 pairs. Backbone applications involve using up to 100 pairs.[4] This use of balanced lines helps preserve a high signal-to-noise ratio despite interference from both external sources and crosstalk from other pairs.

The cable is available in both stranded and solid conductor forms. The stranded form is more flexible and withstands more bending without breaking. Permanent wiring (for example, the wiring inside the wall that connects a wall socket to a central patch panel) is solid-core, while patch cables (for example, the movable cable that plugs into the wall socket on one end and a computer on the other) are stranded.

The specific category of cable in use can be identified by the printing on the side of the cable.[5]

Bending radius[edit]

Most Category 5 cables can be bent at any radius exceeding approximately four times the outside diameter of the cable.[6][7

48
Q
48. Which of these IP addresses can be routed across the Internet?
❍ A. 127.0.0.1
❍ B. 192.168.1.1
❍ C. 129.52.50.13
❍ D. 10.52.50.13
A

129.52.50.13

  1. Answer: C. The only public address (needed to get onto the Internet) is 129.52.50.13.
    All the others are private IPs, meant to be behind a firewall. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback
    IP address. 192.168.1.1 is a common Class C private IP address used by SOHO
    networking devices. 10.52.50.13 is a Class A private address
49
Q
49. Which port number does HTTP use?
❍ A. 21
❍ B. 25
❍ C. 80
❍ D. 110
A

port 80

Use in URLs[edit]

Port numbers can occasionally be seen in a web or other service uniform resource locator (URL). By default, HTTP uses port 80 and HTTPS uses port 443, but a URL like http://www.example.com:8080/path/ specifies that the web resource be served by the HTTP server on port 8080. The active transport layer protocol ports may be discovered on many operating systems (Windows, Unix-like, z/OS) with the command line netstat -a.

50
Q
50. What is the most commonly used network topology?
❍ A. Star
❍ B. Bus
❍ C. Ring
❍ D. Mesh
A

Star topology

Star network topology
Star topology
Star networks are one of the most common computer network topologies. In its simplest form, a star network consists of one central switch, hub or computer, which acts as a conduit to transmit messages. This consists of a central node, to which all other nodes are connected; this central node provides a common connection point for all nodes through a hub. In star topology, every node (computer workstation or any other peripheral) is connected to a central node called a hub or switch. The switch is the server and the peripherals are the clients.[1] Thus, the hub and leaf nodes, and the transmission lines between them, form a graph with the topology of a star. If the central node is passive, the originating node must be able to tolerate the reception of an echo of its own transmission, delayed by the two-way transmission time (i.e. to and from the central node) plus any delay generated in the central node. An active star network has an active central node that usually has the means to prevent echo-related problems.

The star topology reduces the damage caused by line failure by connecting all of the systems to a central node. When applied to a bus-based network, this central hub rebroadcasts all transmissions received from any peripheral node to all peripheral nodes on the network, sometimes including the originating node. All peripheral nodes may thus communicate with all others by transmitting to, and receiving from, the central node only. The failure of a transmission line linking any peripheral node to the central node will result in the isolation of that peripheral node from all others, but the rest of the systems will be unaffected.[2]

It is also designed with each node (file servers, workstations, and peripherals) connected directly to a central network hub, switch, or concentrator.

Data on a star network passes through the hub, switch, or concentrator before continuing to its destination. The hub, switch, or concentrator manages and controls all functions of the network. It also acts as a repeater for the data flow. This configuration is common with twisted pair cable. However, it can also be used with coaxial cable or optical fibre cable

51
Q
51. What is the meaning of full duplex?
❍ A. Transmitting and receiving data
❍ B. Transmitting and receiving data simultaneously
❍ C. Transmitting data only
❍ D. Receiving data only
A

Transmitting and receiving data simultaneously

  1. Answer: B. Full duplex means that a network interface card (NIC) can transmit and
    receive data at the same time. A 100 Mbps network running in full-duplex mode
    can transfer 200 Mbps, but this is because transmitting and receiving have been
    combined, not because speed has been increased. A NIC that can transmit or receive
    data, but not at the same time, is transmitting in half-duplex mode
52
Q
52. Which of the following types of cable have a copper medium?
(Select the three best answers.)
❍ A. Twisted pair
❍ B. Coaxial
❍ C. Fiber optic
❍ D. Cat 5e
❍ E. Multi-mode
A

Twisted pair
coaxial
Cat5e

  1. Answers: A, B, and D. Twisted pair, coaxial, and Category 5e cable are all examples
    of network cables with a copper medium. They all send electricity over copper wire.
    Multi-mode is a type of fiber-optic cable; it uses light to send data over a glass or
    plastic medium. Twisted pair is the most common type of cabling used in today’s
    networks.
53
Q
53. Which types of cable can protect from electromagnetic interference
(EMI)? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A. UTP
❍ B. STP
❍ C. Fiber Optic
❍ D. Cat 6
A

STP
Fiber Optic

  1. Answers: B and C. Shielded twisted pair (STP) and fiber optic can protect from EMI.
    However, unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cannot. Unless otherwise mentioned, Category
    6 cable is UTP. STP is shielded twisted-pair. Unlike UTP (unshielded twisted-pair), it
    provides an aluminum shield that protects from EMI. UTP and coaxial have no such
    protection. Fiber optic uses a different medium altogether, transmitting light rather
    than electricity; therefore, EMI cannot affect fiber-optic cables.

Examples of common industry abbreviations

Industry acronyms

ISO/IEC 11801 name

Cable screening

Pair shielding

UTP U/UTP none none
STP, ScTP, PiMF U/FTP none foil
FTP, STP, ScTP F/UTP foil none
STP, ScTP S/UTP braiding none
SFTP, S-FTP, STP SF/UTP braiding, foil none
FFTP F/FTP foil foil
SSTP, SFTP, STP PiMF S/FTP braiding foil

Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors of a single circuit are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources; for instance, electromagnetic radiation from unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cables, and crosstalk between neighboring pairs. It was invented by Alexander Graham Bell.

Contents
  [hide] 1 Explanation
2 History
3 Unshielded twisted pair (UTP)
4 Cable shielding
5 Most common twisted-pair cables
6 Solid core cable vs stranded cable
7 Advantages
8 Disadvantages
9 Minor twisted pair variants
10 See also
11 References
12 External links

Explanation[edit]

In balanced pair operation, the two wires carry equal and opposite signals and the destination detects the difference between the two. This is known as differential mode transmission. Noise sources introduce signals into the wires by coupling of electric or magnetic fields and tend to couple to both wires equally. The noise thus produces a common-mode signal which is canceled at the receiver when the difference signal is taken.

This method starts to fail when the noise source is close to the signal wires; the closer wire will couple with the noise more strongly and the common-mode rejection of the receiver will fail to eliminate it. This problem is especially apparent in telecommunication cables where pairs in the same cable lie next to each other for many miles. One pair can induce crosstalk in another and it is additive along the length of the cable. Twisting the pairs counters this effect as on each half twist the wire nearest to the noise-source is exchanged.

Providing the interfering source remains uniform, or nearly so, over the distance of a single twist, the induced noise will remain common-mode. Differential signaling also reduces electromagnetic radiation from the cable, along with the associated attenuation allowing for greater distance between exchanges.

The twist rate (also called pitch of the twist, usually defined in twists per meter) makes up part of the specification for a given type of cable. When nearby pairs have equal twist rates, the same conductors of the different pairs may repeatedly lie next to each other, partially undoing the benefits of differential mode. For this reason it is commonly specified that, at least for cables containing small numbers of pairs, the twist rates must differ.[1]

In contrast to ScTP (screened twisted pair), STP (shielded twisted pair), FTP (foiled twisted pair) and other shielded cabling variations, UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable is not surrounded by any shielding. It is the primary wire type for telephone usage and is very common for computer networking, especially as patch cables or temporary network connections due to the high flexibility of the cables.

History[edit]

Wire transposition on top of pole
The earliest telephones used telegraph lines, or open-wire single-wire earth return circuits. In the 1880s electric trams were installed in many cities, which induced noise into these circuits. Lawsuits being unavailing, the telephone companies converted to balanced circuits, which had the incidental benefit of reducing attenuation, hence increasing range.

As electrical power distribution became more commonplace, this measure proved inadequate. Two wires, strung on either side of cross bars on utility poles, shared the route with electrical power lines. Within a few years, the growing use of electricity again brought an increase of interference, so engineers devised a method called wire transposition, to cancel out the interference.

In wire transposition, the wires exchange position once every several poles. In this way, the two wires would receive similar EMI from power lines. This represented an early implementation of twisting, with a twist rate of about four twists per kilometre, or six per mile. Such open-wire balanced lines with periodic transpositions still survive today in some rural areas.

Twisted pair cables were invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1881.[2] By 1900, the entire American telephone line network was either twisted pair or open wire with transposition to guard against interference. Today, most of the millions of kilometres of twisted pairs in the world are outdoor landlines, owned by telephone companies, used for voice service, and only handled or even seen by telephone workers.

Unshielded twisted pair (UTP)[edit]

Unshielded twisted pair
UTP cables are found in many Ethernet networks and telephone systems. For indoor telephone applications, UTP is often grouped into sets of 25 pairs according to a standard 25-pair color code originally developed by AT&T Corporation. A typical subset of these colors (white/blue, blue/white, white/orange, orange/white) shows up in most UTP cables. The cables are typically made with copper wires measured at 22 or 24 American Wire Gauge (AWG),[3] with the colored insulation typically made from an insulator such as polyethylene or FEP and the total package covered in a polyethylene jacket.

For urban outdoor telephone cables containing hundreds or thousands of pairs, the cable is divided into smaller but identical bundles. Each bundle consists of twisted pairs that have different twist rates. The bundles are in turn twisted together to make up the cable. Pairs having the same twist rate within the cable can still experience some degree of crosstalk. Wire pairs are selected carefully to minimize crosstalk within a large cable.

Unshielded twisted pair cable with different twist rates
UTP cable is also the most common cable used in computer networking. Modern Ethernet, the most common data networking standard, can use UTP cables. Twisted pair cabling is often used in data networks for short and medium length connections because of its relatively lower costs compared to optical fiber and coaxial cable.

UTP is also finding increasing use in video applications, primarily in security cameras. Many cameras include a UTP output with screw terminals; UTP cable bandwidth has improved to match the baseband of television signals. As UTP is a balanced transmission line, a balun is needed to connect to unbalanced equipment, for example any using BNC connectors and designed for coaxial cable.

Cable shielding[edit]

Main article: Electromagnetic shielding

F/UTP cable

S/FTP cable

U/FTP, F/UTP and F/FTP are used in Cat.6a cables

S/UTP cable
Twisted pair cables are often shielded in an attempt to prevent electromagnetic interference. Shielding provides an electric conductive barrier to attenuate electromagnetic waves external to the shield and provides conduction path by which induced currents can be circulated and returned to the source, via ground reference connection.

This shielding can be applied to individual pairs or quads, or to the collection of pairs. Individual pairs are foiled, while overall cable may use braided screen, foil, or braiding with foil.

ISO/IEC 11801:2002 (Annex E) attempts to internationally standardise the various designations for shielded cables by using combinations of three letters - U for unshielded, S for braided shielding, and F for foiled shielding - to explicitly indicate the type of screen for overall cable protection and for individual pairs or quads, using a two-part abbreviation in the form of xx/xTP.

When shielding is applied to the collection of pairs, this is usually referred to as screening, however different vendors and authors use different terminology, employing “screening” and “shielding” interchangeably; for example, STP (shielded twisted pair) or ScTP (screened twisted pair) has been used to denote U/FTP, S/UTP, F/UTP, SF/UTP and S/FTP construction.[4]

Because the shielding is made of metal, it may also serve as a ground. Usually a shielded or a screened twisted pair cable has a special grounding wire added called a drain wire which is electrically connected to the shield or screen. The drain wire simplifies connection to ground at the connectors.

An early example of shielded twisted-pair is IBM STP-A, which was a two-pair 150 ohm S/FTP cable defined in 1985 by the IBM Cabling System specifications, and used with token ring or FDDI networks.[4][5]

Common shielded cable types used by Cat. 6a, Cat.7 and Cat.8 cables include:
Shielded twisted pair (U/FTP) Also pair in metal foil. Individual shielding with foil for each twisted pair or quad. This type of shielding protects cable from external EMI entering or exiting the cable and also protects neighboring pairs from crosstalk.Screened twisted pair (F/UTP, S/UTP and SF/UTP)Also foiled twisted pair for F/UTP. Overall foil, braided shield or braiding with foil across all of the pairs within the 100 Ohm twisted pair cable. This type of shielding protects EMI from entering or exiting the cable.Screened shielded twisted pair (F/FTP and S/FTP)Also fully shielded twisted pair, shielded screened twisted pair, screened foiled twisted pair, shielded foiled twisted pair. Individual shielding using foil between the twisted pair sets, and also an outer metal and/or foil shielding within the 100 Ohm twisted pair cable.[6] This type of shielding protects EMI from entering or exiting the cable and also protects neighboring pairs from crosstalk.
Examples of common industry abbreviations

Industry acronyms

ISO/IEC 11801 name

Cable screening

Pair shielding

UTP U/UTP none none
STP, ScTP, PiMF U/FTP none foil
FTP, STP, ScTP F/UTP foil none
STP, ScTP S/UTP braiding none
SFTP, S-FTP, STP SF/UTP braiding, foil none
FFTP F/FTP foil foil
SSTP, SFTP, STP PiMF S/FTP braiding foil

The code before the slash designates the shielding for the cable itself, while the code after the slash determines the shielding for the individual pairs:
U = unshieldedF = foil shieldingS = braided shielding (outer layer only)TP = twisted pairTQ = twisted pair, individual shielding in quads
Most common twisted-pair cables[edit]

See also: ISO/IEC 11801

Name Typical construction Bandwidth Applications Notes
Level 1 0.4 MHz Telephone and modem lines Not described in EIA/TIA recommendations. Unsuitable for modern systems.[7]
Level 2 4 MHz Older terminal systems, e.g. IBM 3270 Not described in EIA/TIA recommendations. Unsuitable for modern systems.[7]
Cat.3 UTP[8] 16 MHz[8] 10BASE-T and 100BASE-T4 Ethernet[8] Described in EIA/TIA-568. Unsuitable for speeds above 16 Mbit/s. Now mainly for telephone cables[8]
Cat.4 UTP[8] 20 MHz[8] 16 Mbit/s[8] Token Ring Not commonly used[8]
Cat.5 UTP[8] 100 MHz[8] 100BASE-TX & 1000BASE-T Ethernet[8] Common in most current LANs[8]
Cat.5e UTP[8] 100 MHz[8] 100BASE-TX & 1000BASE-T Ethernet[8] Enhanced Cat5. Same construction as Cat5, but with better testing standards.
Cat.6 UTP[8] 250 MHz[8] 10GBASE-T Ethernet Most commonly installed cable in Finland according to the 2002 standard. SFS-EN 50173-1
Cat.6a U/FTP, F/UTP 500 MHz 10GBASE-T Ethernet Adds cable shielding. ISO/IEC 11801:2002 Amendment 2.
Cat.7 F/FTP, S/FTP 600 MHz Telephone, CCTV, 1000BASE-TX in the same cable. 10GBASE-T Ethernet. Fully shielded cable. ISO/IEC 11801 2nd Ed.
Cat.7a F/FTP, S/FTP 1000 MHz Telephone, CATV, 1000BASE-TX in the same cable. 10GBASE-T Ethernet. Uses all four pairs. ISO/IEC 11801 2nd Ed. Am. 2.
Cat.8.1 U/FTP, F/UTP 1600-2000 MHz Telephone, CATV, 1000BASE-TX in the same cable. 40GBASE-T Ethernet. In development.
Cat.8.2 F/FTP, S/FTP 1600-2000 MHz Telephone, CATV, 1000BASE-TX in the same cable. 40GBASE-T Ethernet. In development.

Solid core cable vs stranded cable[edit]

A solid core cable uses one solid wire per conductor and in a four pair cable there would be a total of eight solid wires.[8] Stranded conductor uses multiple wires wrapped around each other in each conductor and in a four pair with seven strands per conductor cable, there would be a total of 56 wires (2 per pair x 4 pairs x 7 strands).[8]

Solid core cable is intended for permanently installed runs. It is less flexible than stranded cable and is more prone to failure if repeatedly flexed. Stranded cable is used for fly leads at patch panel and for connections from wall-ports to end devices, as it resists cracking of the conductors.

Connectors need to be designed differently for solid core than for stranded. Use of a connector with the wrong cable type is likely to lead to unreliable cabling. Plugs designed for solid and stranded core are readily available, and some vendors even offer plugs designed for use with both types. The punch-down blocks on patch-panel and wall port jacks are designed for use with solid core cable.

Advantages[edit]
It is a thin, flexible cable that is easy to string between walls.[citation needed]
More lines can be run through the same wiring ducts.[citation needed]
Electrical noise going into or coming from the cable can be prevented.[9]
Cross-talk is minimized.[9]

Disadvantages[edit]
Twisted pair’s susceptibility to electromagnetic interference greatly depends on the pair twisting schemes (usually patented by the manufacturers) staying intact during the installation. As a result, twisted pair cables usually have stringent requirements for maximum pulling tension as well as minimum bend radius. This relative fragility of twisted pair cables makes the installation practices an important part of ensuring the cable’s performance.[citation needed]
In video applications that send information across multiple parallel signal wires, twisted pair cabling can introduce signaling delays known as skew which cause subtle color defects and ghosting due to the image components not aligning correctly when recombined in the display device. The skew occurs because twisted pairs within the same cable often use a different number of twists per meter in order to prevent crosstalk between pairs with identical numbers of twists. The skew can be compensated by varying the length of pairs in the termination box, in order to introduce delay lines that take up the slack between shorter and longer pairs, though the precise lengths required are difficult to calculate and vary depending on the overall cable length.[citation needed]

Minor twisted pair variants[edit]
Loaded twisted pairA twisted pair that has intentionally added inductance, formerly common practice on telecommunication lines. The added inductors are known as load coils and reduce attenuation for voiceband frequencies but increase it on higher frequencies. Load coils cause distortion in voiceband on very long lines.[10] In this context a line without load coils is referred to as an unloaded line.Bonded twisted pairA twisted pair variant in which the pairs are individually bonded to increase robustness of the cable. Pioneered by Belden, it means the electrical specifications of the cable are maintained despite rough handling.Twisted ribbon cableA variant of standard ribbon cable in which adjacent pairs of conductors are bonded and twisted together. The twisted pairs are then lightly bonded to each other in a ribbon format. Periodically along the ribbon there are short sections with no twisting to enable connectors and PCB headers to be terminated using the usual ribbon cable IDC techniques

54
Q
54. What port do you connect a network patch cable to on the PC?
❍ A. USB
❍ B. RJ45
❍ C. RJ11
❍ D. Parallel
A

RJ45

  1. Answer: B. The RJ45 (Registered Jack) is the standard connector for network patch
    cables. RJ11 is for modem and other telephony connections. USB is for peripherals
    (such as a mouse or printer), and parallel is for printers and scanners, but it’s not
    used nearly as much as USB is.
    RJ45[edit]

The RJ45 connector is standardized as the IEC 60603-7 8P8C modular connector with eight conductors. The RJ45S, a similar standard jack once specified for modem or data interfaces, uses a mechanically-keyed variation of the 8P8C body with an extra tab that prevents it from mating with other connectors; the visual difference from the more-common 8P8C is subtle. The original RJ45S keyed 8P2C modular connector had pins 5 and 4 wired for tip and ring of a single telephone line, and pins 7 and 8 shorting a programming resistor,[7][8] but is obsolete today.

An installer may wire the jack to an arbitrary pinout, or use it as part of a standardized generic structured cabling system such as ISO/IEC 15018 or ISO/IEC 11801, using 8P8C patch panels for both phone and data wiring

55
Q
  1. You are configuring Bob’s computer to access the Internet. Which
    of the following is required? (Select all that apply.)
    ❍ A. DNS server address
    ❍ B. Gateway address
    ❍ C. E-mail server name
    ❍ D. DHCP server address
    ❍ E. Domain name
A

DNS server address
Gateway address

Domain naming service
The gateway address (or default gateway) is a router interface connected to the local network that sends packets out of the local network. The gateway has a physical and a logical address

The Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical distributed naming system for computers, services, or any resource connected to the Internet or a private network. It associates various information with domain names assigned to each of the participating entities. Most prominently, it translates domain names, which can be easily memorized by humans, to the numerical IP addresses needed for the purpose of computer services and devices worldwide. The Domain Name System is an essential component of the functionality of most Internet services.

The Domain Name System distributes the responsibility of assigning domain names and mapping those names to IP addresses by designating authoritative name servers for each domain. Authoritative name servers are assigned to be responsible for their supported domains, and may delegate authority over subdomains to other name servers. This mechanism provides distributed and fault tolerant service and was designed to avoid the need for a single central database.

The Domain Name System also specifies the technical functionality of this database service. It defines the DNS protocol, a detailed specification of the data structures and data communication exchanges used in DNS, as part of the Internet Protocol Suite.

The Internet maintains two principal namespaces, the domain name hierarchy[1] and the Internet Protocol (IP) address spaces.[2] The Domain Name System maintains the domain name hierarchy and provides translation services between it and the address spaces. Internet name servers and a communication protocol implement the Domain Name System.[3] A DNS name server is a server that stores the DNS records for a domain name, such as address (A or AAAA) records, name server (NS) records, and mail exchanger (MX) records (see also list of DNS record types); a DNS name server responds with answers to queries against its database.

56
Q
56. Which of the following translates a computer name into an IP
address?
❍ A. TCP
❍ B. UDP
❍ C. DNS
❍ D. FTP
A

DNS

Domain name system

57
Q
  1. One of your customers wants to access the Internet from many
    different locations in the United States. What is the best technology
    to enable her to do so?
    ❍ A. Infrared
    ❍ B. Cellular WAN
    ❍ C. Bluetooth
    ❍ D. 802.11n
A

Cellular WAN

Wide are network

58
Q
  1. You just configured the IP address 192.168.0.105 in Windows 7.
    When you press the tab key, Windows automatically configures
    the default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which of the following
    IP addresses is a suitable gateway address?
    ❍ A. 192.168.1.100
    ❍ B. 192.168.1.1
    ❍ C. 192.168.10.1
    ❍ D. 192.168.0.1
A

192.168.0.1

  1. Answer: D. 192.168.0.1 is the only suitable gateway address. Remember that the
    gateway address must be on the same network as the computer. In this case the
    network is 192.168.0, as defined by the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. As to the
    other answers: 192.168.1.100 is on the 192.168.1.0 network; so is 192.168.1.1.
    192.168.10.1 is on the 192.168.10.0 network. Don’t forget that a zero at the end
    of an IP address denotes the network number
59
Q
59. What is the name of a wireless network referred to as?
❍ A. SSID
❍ B. WPA
❍ C. DMZ
❍ D. DHCP
A

SSID

SSID is short for service set identifier.

SSID is a case sensitive, 32 alphanumeric character unique identifier attached to the header of packets sent over a wireless local-area network (WLAN) that acts as a password when a mobile device tries to connect to the basic service set (BSS) – a component of the IEEE 802.11 WLAN architecture.

The SSID differentiates one WLAN from another, so all access points and all devices attempting to connect to a specific WLAN must use the same SSID to enable effective roaming. As part of the association process, a wireless network interface card (NIC) must have the same SSID as the access point or it will not be permitted to join the BSS

60
Q
60. Which of the following connector types is used by fiber-optic
cabling?
❍ A. LC
❍ B. RJ45
❍ C. RG-6
❍ D. RJ11
A

LC

LC connectors are sometimes called “Little Connectors

Application[edit]

Optical fiber connectors are used to join optical fibers where a connect/disconnect capability is required. Due to the polishing and tuning procedures that may be incorporated into optical connector manufacturing, connectors are generally assembled onto optical fiber in a supplier’s manufacturing facility. However, the assembly and polishing operations involved can be performed in the field, for example, to make cross-connect jumpers to size.

Optical fiber connectors are used in telephone company central offices, at installations on customer premises, and in outside plant applications to connect equipment and cables, or to cross-connect cables.

Most optical fiber connectors are spring-loaded, so the fiber faces are pressed together when the connectors are mated. The resulting glass-to-glass or plastic-to-plastic contact eliminates signal losses that would be caused by an air gap between the joined fibers.

Every fiber connection has two values:
Attenuation or insertion loss
Reflection or return loss.

Measurements of these parameters are now defined in IEC standard 61753-1. The standard gives five grades for insertion loss from A (best) to D (worst), and M for multimode. The other parameter is return loss, with grades from 1 (best) to 5 (worst).

A variety of optical fiber connectors are available, but SC and LC connectors are the most common types of connectors on the market.[citation needed] Typical connectors are rated for 500–1,000 mating cycles.[2] The main differences among types of connectors are dimensions and methods of mechanical coupling. Generally, organizations will standardize on one kind of connector, depending on what equipment they commonly use. Different connectors are required for multimode, and for single-mode fibers.

In many data center applications, small (e.g., LC) and multi-fiber (e.g., MTP) connectors are replacing larger, older styles (e.g., SC), allowing more fiber ports per unit of rack space.

Features of good connector design:
Low insertion loss
High return loss (low amounts of reflection at the interface)
Ease of installation
Low cost
Reliability
Low environmental sensitivity
Ease of use

Outside plant applications may require connectors be located underground, or on outdoor walls or utility poles. In such settings, protective enclosures are often used, and fall into two broad categories: hermetic (sealed) and free-breathing. Hermetic cases prevent entry of moisture and air but, lacking ventilation, can become hot if exposed to sunlight or other sources of heat. Free-breathing enclosures, on the other hand, allow ventilation, but can also admit moisture, insects and airborne contaminants. Selection of the correct housing depends on the cable and connector type, the location, and environmental factors. Careful assembly is required to ensure good protection against the elements.

Depending on user requirements, housings for outside plant applications may be tested by the manufacturer under various environmental simulations, which could include physical shock and vibration, water spray, water immersion, dust, etc. to ensure the integrity of optical fiber connections and housing seals.

61
Q
61. Which protocol uses port 53?
❍ A. FTP
❍ B. SMTP
❍ C. DNS
❍ D. HTTP
A

DNS

Domain naming service

  1. Answer: C. The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol uses port 53 by default. FTP
    uses port 21. SMTP uses port 25. HTTP uses port 80
62
Q
62. Which of the following Internet services are wireless? (Select the
three best answers.)
❍ A. Cable Internet
❍ B. WiMAX
❍ C. Satellite
❍ D. DSL
❍ E. Cellular
❍ F. FIOS
A

WiMAX
Satellite
Cellular

63
Q
  1. Which of the following terms best describes two or more LANs
    connected together over a large geographic distance?
    ❍ A. PAN
    ❍ B. WAN
    ❍ C. WLAN
    ❍ D. MAN
A

WAN

Wide Area Network

64
Q
64. Which of the following devices allows wireless computers to connect
to the wireless network?
❍ A. WPA
❍ B. WAN
❍ C. WAP
❍ D. VoIP
A

WAP

Definition of:WAP(1) (Wireless Access Point) See access point.

(2) (Wired Access Point) See wired access point.
(3) (Wireless Application Protocol) A standard for providing cellphones, pagers and other handhelds with secure access to e-mail and text-based Web pages. Introduced in 1997 by Phone.com, Ericsson, Motorola and Nokia, WAP provides an environment for wireless applications that includes a wireless version of TCP/IP and a framework for telephony integration such as call control and phone book access. Supporting keypad and voice recognition, WAP is independent of the air interface and runs over all major wireless networks. It is also device independent and can be used in any mobile device.

WML, WMLScript and XHTML
WAP introduced the Wireless Markup Language (WML), a streamlined version of HTML, and WMLScript, a compact form of JavaScript that runs in limited memory. WML later evolved into mobile versions of XHTML, which, along with all WAP protocols, are governed by the Open Mobile Alliance, the successor to the WAP Forum (see OMA).

WAP and SMS = MMS
The multimedia messaging system (MMS) uses both the SMS text messaging and WAP protocols to transmit graphics, audio and video to cellphones (see MMS). See WTLS, XHTML, HDML, Openwave and i-Mode.

65
Q
65. What device connects to the network and has the sole purpose of
providing data to clients?
❍ A. NAS
❍ B. NAT
❍ C. NAC
❍ D. NaaS
A

NAS

Definition of:NAS(1) See network access server.
(2) (Network Attached Storage) A file server that connects to the network. A NAS device contains a slimmed-down operating system and file system and processes only I/O requests by supporting the popular file sharing protocols, primarily CIFS for Windows and NFS for Unix. It contains only the file sharing components of a server and cannot run applications like a general-purpose server.

Just Plug It In
Using traditional LAN protocols such as TCP/IP over Ethernet, the NAS enables more storage to be quickly added to the network by plugging it into a switch or router. As network transmission rates have increased from Ethernet to Fast Ethernet to Gigabit Ethernet, NAS devices have come up to speed parity with a server’s internal drives (see direct attached storage). See NAS gateway, SAN and NetApp Filer.

66
Q
  1. You are making your own networking patch cable. You need to
    attach an RJ45 plug to the end of a twisted-pair cable. Which tool
    should you use?
    ❍ A. Tone and probe kit
    ❍ B. Cable tester
    ❍ C. Crimper
    ❍ D. Multimeter
A

Crimper

67
Q
67. Which port is used by RDP?
❍ A. 80
❍ B. 110
❍ C. 443
❍ D. 3389
A

3389

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

Clients exist for most versions of Microsoft Windows (including Windows Mobile), Linux, Unix, OS X, iOS, Android, and other operating systems. RDP servers are built into Windows operating systems; an RDP server for Unix and OS X also exists. By default, the server listens on TCP port 3389[1] and UDP port 3389[citation needed].

Microsoft currently refers to their official RDP server software as Remote Desktop Connection, formerly “Terminal Services Client”.

The protocol is an extension of the ITU-T T.128 application sharing protocol

Definition of:RDP
(Remote Desktop Protocol) An input/output presentation protocol from Microsoft that governs the keyboard, mouse and screen formatting between clients and servers in a thin client environment. Based on the T.share protocol, RDP is used by Microsoft’s Terminal Services and Remote Desktop Services to provide thin client, centralized architecture for the datacenter. In addition to PCs, dedicated terminals are also available that run RDP. See thin client, Terminal Services and Remote Desktop Services.

68
Q
68. Which is the most common type of RAM architecture used by
laptops?
❍ A. DIMM
❍ B. RIMM
❍ C. SODIMM
❍ D. SDRAM
A

SODIMM

Definition of:SODIMM

(Small Outline-DIMM) A DIMM module with a thinner profile due to the use of TSOP chip packages. SODIMMs are commonly used in laptop computers. See memory module and TSOP.

69
Q
69. Which key on a laptop aids in switching to an external monitor?
❍ A. Fn
❍ B. Ctrl
❍ C. Alt
❍ D. Shift
A

Fn key

Definition of:Fn key

(FuNction key) A keyboard modifier key that works like a Shift key to activate a second function on a dual-purpose key. Commonly found on laptop keyboards, the Fn key is used to control hardware functions such as screen brightness and speaker volume. It may also be found on extra small keyboards for desktop computers, typically for Page Up and Page Down, which are combined with Up Arrow and Down Arrow. See function key and computer keyboard.

70
Q
70. You would most likely find this type of display on a laptop.
❍ A. CRT
❍ B. LCD
❍ C. OLED
❍ D. VGA
A

LCD

Definition of:LCD
(Liquid Crystal Display) A screen display technology developed in 1963 at the David Sarnoff Research Center in Princeton, NJ. The LCD technology is extraordinary. Sandwiched between polarizing filters and glass panels, liquid crystals are rod-shaped molecules that flow like liquid and bend light like crystal. The orientation of the filters and panels determines how light passes through the crystals. For more details, see LCD subpixels and LCD types.

Because it took such little power to move crystal molecules, LCD wristwatches began to flourish in the 1970s along with other monochrome displays. By the 1990s, color LCDs helped laptop sales boom, and in 2003, LCD computer monitors outsold CRTs for the first time, making LCD the predominant electronic display technology. Even today’s LED TVs are actually rebranded LCD TVs (see LED TV).
Major Categories - Passive and Active
Passive displays are widely used for low-cost, monochrome readouts on printers, appliances and industrial products. In contrast, active displays are the graphics-based color screens in TVs and computers

71
Q
71. What would you normally install into a Type II PCMCIA slot on a
laptop? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. Hard drive
❍ B. Modem
❍ C. NIC
❍ D. RAM
A

Modem
NIC

1) (Network Interface Card) See network adapter. See also InterNIC.
(2) (New Internet Computer) An earlier Linux-based computer from The New Internet Computer Company (NICC), Palo Alto, CA. The NIC was a pure Web appliance without disk drives, and the OS, Java Virtual Machine and browser all resided on a CD-ROM. An Internet storage service was required to save files, but bookmarks were saved in flash memory. For e-mail, a Web-based service was required. Co-founded in 2000 by Oracle magnate Larry Ellison, the NIC was a new incarnation of the network computer, but it never caught on. See network computer and Internet appliance.

72
Q
72. What is the most commonly used battery type in laptops?
❍ A. Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
❍ B. Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd)
❍ C. Nickel-metal hydride (NiMH)
❍ D. Fuel cell
A

Lithium-ion (Li-ion)

73
Q
73. What does adding more RAM to a laptop that uses shared video
memory do for that laptop?
❍ A. Nothing
❍ B. Improve video performance
❍ C.73. What does adding more RAM to a laptop that uses shared video
memory do for that laptop?
❍ A. Nothing
❍ B. Improve video performance
❍ C. Improve system performance
❍ D. Increase RAM speed
❍ D. Increase RAM speed
A

Improve system performance

74
Q
  1. A customer can barely hear sound from the speakers on her
    laptop. What should you do first?
    ❍ A. Install a new sound driver
    ❍ B. Tap the speakers
    ❍ C. Search for a volume wheel/key
    ❍ D. Reinstall Windows
A

Search for a volume wheel/key

75
Q
75. Which of the following are typical names for expansion busses on
laptops? (Select the two best answers.)
❍ A. ExpressCard
❍ B. SODIMM
❍ C. PC Card
❍ D. AGP
A

ExpressCard

PC Card

76
Q
  1. You use your laptop often. What is a simple, free way to keep your
    laptop running cool?
    ❍ A. Keep the laptop on a flat surface
    ❍ B. Put the laptop in the freezer when not in use
    ❍ C. Direct a fan at the laptop
    ❍ D. Keep the laptop turned off whenever possible
A

Keep the laptop on a flat surface

77
Q
  1. What are two important factors when purchasing a replacement
    laptop AC adapter? (Select the two best answers.)
    ❍ A. Current and voltage
    ❍ B. Connector size and shape
    ❍ C. Battery type
    ❍ D. Inverter type
A

Current and voltage

Connector size and shape

78
Q
  1. Eric uses an external monitor with his laptop. He tells you that his
    laptop will boot but the system won’t display anything on the
    external screen. Which of the following enables the display?
    ❍ A. Connect the laptop to another external monitor
    ❍ B. Press the Fn and Screen keys one or more times until
    the screen appears
    ❍ C. Press the Enter and Esc keys while the laptop is
    booting
    ❍ D. Press the Fn key while the laptop is booting
A

Press the Fn and Screen keys one or more times until

the screen appears

79
Q
79. Which type of printer uses a toner cartridge?
❍ A. Ink jet
❍ B. Laser
❍ C. Dot matrix
❍ D. Thermal
A

Laser

80
Q
80. Which of the following should not be connected to a UPS?
❍ A. PCs
❍ B. Monitors
❍ C. Laser printers
❍ D. Speakers
A

Laser printers

An uninterruptible power supply, also uninterruptible power source, UPS or battery/flywheel backup, is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source, typically mains power, fails. A UPS differs from an auxiliary or emergency power system or standby generator in that it will provide near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions, by supplying energy stored in batteries, supercapacitors, or flywheels. The on-battery runtime of most uninterruptible power sources is relatively short (only a few minutes) but sufficient to start a standby power source or properly shut down the protected equipment.

A UPS is typically used to protect hardware such as computers, data centers, telecommunication equipment or other electrical equipment where an unexpected power disruption could cause injuries, fatalities, serious business disruption or data loss. UPS units range in size from units designed to protect a single computer without a video monitor (around 200 volt-ampere rating) to large units powering entire data centers or buildings. The world’s largest UPS, the 46-megawatt Battery Electric Storage System (BESS), in Fairbanks, Alaska, powers the entire city and nearby rural communities during outages.[1]

81
Q
81. Which of the following is not a connector you might find on a
printer?
❍ A. RJ45
❍ B. USB
❍ C. PCIe
❍ D. Centronics
A

PCIe

PCI Express (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express), officially abbreviated as PCIe, is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. PCIe has numerous improvements over the older standards, including higher maximum system bus throughput, lower I/O pin count and smaller physical footprint, better performance scaling for bus devices, a more detailed error detection and reporting mechanism (Advanced Error Reporting, AER[1]), and native hot-plug functionality. More recent revisions of the PCIe standard provide hardware support for I/O virtualization.

The PCI Express electrical interface is also used in a variety of other standards, most notably in ExpressCard as a laptop expansion card interface, and in SATA Express as a computer storage interface.

Format specifications are maintained and developed by the PCI-SIG (PCI Special Interest Group), a group of more than 900 companies that also maintain the conventional PCI specifications. PCIe 3.0 is the latest standard for expansion cards that is in production and available on mainstream personal computers

82
Q
  1. Terri finishes installing a printer for a customer. What should she
    do next?
    ❍ A. Verify that the printer prints in Microsoft Word
    ❍ B. Print a test page
    ❍ C. Restart the spooler
    ❍ D. Set up a separator page
A

Print a test page

83
Q
83. Which of the following best describes printing in duplex?
❍ A. Printing on both sides of the paper
❍ B. Printer collation
❍ C. Full-duplex printer communication
❍ D. Printing to file
A

Printing on both sides of the paper

84
Q
84. Special paper is needed to print on what kind of printer?
❍ A. Dot matrix
❍ B. Thermal
❍ C. Laser
❍ D. Inkjet
A

Thermal

85
Q
85. Which environmental issue affects a thermal printer the most?
❍ A. Moisture
❍ B. ESD
❍ C. Dirt
❍ D. Heat
A

Heat

86
Q
86. What happens last in the laser printing process?
❍ A. Charging
❍ B. Exposing
❍ C. Developing
❍ D. Fusing
A

Fusing

Fusing[edit]

Melting toner onto paper using heat and pressure
The paper passes through rollers in the fuser assembly where heat of up to 200 °C (392 °F) and pressure bond the plastic powder to the paper.

One roller is usually a hollow tube (heat roller) and the other is a rubber backing roller (pressure roller). A radiant heat lamp is suspended in the center of the hollow tube, and its infrared energy uniformly heats the roller from the inside. For proper bonding of the toner, the fuser roller must be uniformly hot.

Some printers use a very thin flexible metal fuser roller, so there is less mass to be heated and the fuser can more quickly reach operating temperature. If paper moves through the fuser more slowly, there is more roller contact time for the toner to melt, and the fuser can operate at a lower temperature. Smaller, inexpensive laser printers typically print slowly, due to this energy-saving design, compared to large high speed printers where paper moves more rapidly through a high-temperature fuser with a very short contact time.

87
Q
87. This type of printer uses impact to transfer ink from a ribbon to
the paper.
❍ A. Laser
❍ B. Inkjet
❍ C. Dot matrix
❍ D. Thermal
A

Dot matrix

88
Q
  1. How can you take control of a network printer from a remote
    computer?
    ❍ A. Install the printer locally and access the Sharing tab
    ❍ B. Install the printer locally and access the spool settings
    ❍ C. Install the printer locally and access the Ports tab
    ❍ D. Connect to the printer via FTP
A

Install the printer locally and access the Ports tab

89
Q
  1. A color laser printer is producing images that seem to be tinted
    blue. What should you do?
    ❍ A. Clean the toner cartridge
    ❍ B. Calibrate the printer
    ❍ C. Change the fusing assembly
    ❍ D. Clean the primary corona
A

Calibrate the printer

90
Q
  1. What tool should you use to protect a computer from electrostatic
    discharge (ESD) while you are working inside it?
    ❍ A. Multimeter
    ❍ B. Crimper
    ❍ C. Antistatic wrist strap
    ❍ D. PSU tester
A

Antistatic wrist strap

91
Q
  1. While you are working at a customer site, a friend calls you on
    your cell phone. What should you do?
    ❍ A. Ignore the call for now.
    ❍ B. Go outside and take the call.
    ❍ C. Answer the phone as quietly as possible.
    ❍ D. Text your friend
A

Ignore the call for now

92
Q
92. You spill an unknown chemical on your hands. What should
you do?
❍ A. Call 911.
❍ B. Call the building supervisor.
❍ C. Consult the MSDS for the chemical.
❍ D. Ignore it.
A

Consult the MSDS for the chemical

material safety data sheet (MSDS), safety data sheet (SDS),[1] or product safety data sheet (PSDS) is an important component of product stewardship and occupational safety and health. It is intended to provide workers and emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner, and includes information such as physical data (melting point, boiling point, flash point, etc.), toxicity, health effects, first aid, reactivity, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill-handling procedures. MSDS formats can vary from source to source within a country depending on national requirements.

SDSs are a widely used system for cataloging information on chemicals, chemical compounds, and chemical mixtures. SDS information may include instructions for the safe use and potential hazards associated with a particular material or product. These data sheets can be found anywhere where chemicals are being used.

There is also a duty to properly label substances on the basis of physico-chemical, health and/or environmental risk. Labels can include hazard symbols such as the European Union standard black diagonal cross on an orange background, used to denote a harmful substance.

An SDS for a substance is not primarily intended for use by the general consumer, focusing instead on the hazards of working with the material in an occupational setting.

In some jurisdictions, the MSDS is required to state the chemical’s risks, safety, and effect on the environment.

It is important to use an MSDS specific to both country and supplier, as the same product (e.g. paints sold under identical brand names by the same company) can have different formulations in different countries. The formulation and hazard of a product using a generic name (e.g. sugar soap) may vary between manufacturers in the same country

93
Q
  1. You are running some cable from an office to a computer located
    in a warehouse. As you are working in the warehouse, a 55-gallon
    drum falls from a pallet and spills what smells like ammonia. What
    should you do first?
    ❍ A. Call 911.
    ❍ B. Call the building supervisor.
    ❍ C. Get out of the area.
    ❍ D. Save the computer
A

Get out of the area.

94
Q
  1. While you are upgrading a customer’s server hard drives, you
    notice looped network cables lying all over the server room floor.
    What should you do?
    ❍ A. Ignore the problem.
    ❍ B. Call the building supervisor.
    ❍ C. Tell the customer about safer alternatives.
    ❍ D. Notify the administrator
A

Tell the customer about safer alternatives

95
Q
  1. What should be done with a lithium-ion battery that won’t hold a
    charge any longer?
    ❍ A. Throw it in the trash.
    ❍ B. Return it to the battery manufacturer.
    ❍ C. Contact the local municipality and inquire as to their
    disposal methods.
    ❍ D. Open the battery and remove the deposits
A

Contact the local municipality and inquire as to their

disposal methods

96
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not assertive
    communication?
    ❍ A. “I certainly know how you feel—losing data is a
    terrible thing.”
    ❍ B. “Could you explain again exactly what you would like
    done?”
    ❍ C. “Do your employees always cause issues on
    computers like these?”
    ❍ D. “What can I do to help you?”
A

Do your employees always cause issues on

computers like these?”

97
Q
  1. A customer has a malfunctioning PC, and as you are about to
    begin repairing it, the customer proceeds to tell you about the
    problems with the server. What should you say to the customer?
    ❍ A. Wait until I finish with the PC.
    ❍ B. I’m sorry, but I don’t know how to fix servers!
    ❍ C. Is the server problem related to the PC problem?
    ❍ D. I have to call my supervisor
A

Is the server problem related to the PC problem?

98
Q
98. What could be described as the chronological paper trail of
evidence?
❍ A. First response
❍ B. Chain of custody
❍ C. Setting and meeting expectations
❍ D. Data preservation
A

Chain of custody

99
Q
  1. What should you not do when moving servers and server racks?
    ❍ A. Remove jewelry
    ❍ B. Move a 70-pound wire rack by yourself
    ❍ C. Disconnect power to the servers before moving them
    ❍ D. Bend at the knees and lift with your legs
A

Move a 70-pound wire rack by yourself

100
Q
  1. Active communication includes which of the following?
    ❍ A. Filtering out unnecessary information
    ❍ B. Declaring that the customer doesn’t know what he or
    she is doing
    ❍ C. Clarifying the customer’s statements
    ❍ D. Mouthing off
A

Clarifying the customer’s statements