CH17: The Conduct of Monetary Policy Flashcards

1
Q

1) The most common definition that monetary policymakers use for price stability is
A) low and stable deflation.
B) an inflation rate of zero percent.
C) high and stable inflation.
D) low and stable inflation.

A

D) low and stable inflation.

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2
Q

Inflation results in
A) ease of planning for the future.
B) ease of comparing prices over time.
C) lower nominal interest rates.
D) difficulty interpreting relative price movements.

A

D) difficulty interpreting relative price movements.
Inflation refers to the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and subsequently, purchasing power is falling.

A) Inflation makes planning for the future more difficult, not easier, because it decreases the value of money over time. This uncertainty can make it challenging to plan long-term investments or savings.

B) Inflation complicates the comparison of prices over time. A product’s price may increase over time due to inflation, not necessarily because the product itself has become more valuable.

C) Inflation often leads to higher nominal interest rates, not lower. When inflation is high, lenders demand higher interest rates as compensation for the decrease in purchasing power repaid in the future.

D) Inflation can indeed make interpreting relative price movements more difficult. If all prices are rising, it can be hard to tell if the price of a specific product is increasing due to higher demand or just general inflation. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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3
Q

Economists believe that countries recently suffering hyperinflation have experienced
A) reduced growth.
B) increased growth.
C) reduced prices.
D) lower interest rates.

A

A) reduced growth.
Hyperinflation is an extremely high and typically accelerating inflation. It quickly erodes the real value of the local currency, as the prices of all goods increase. This creates a situation where the general price level within an economy increases rapidly and substantially, and such increases are often exponential.

A) Hyperinflation often leads to reduced economic growth. The rapid increase in prices makes the use of money as a medium of exchange unreliable. This can lead to a decrease in its demand, which in turn slows down economic activities and hence growth.

B) Hyperinflation does not lead to increased growth. On the contrary, it often leads to a contraction in economic activities.

C) Hyperinflation leads to an increase in prices, not a reduction. The term ‘hyperinflation’ itself refers to a situation where prices are increasing at an extremely high rate.

D) Hyperinflation does not lead to lower interest rates. In fact, to combat inflation, central banks often raise interest rates to decrease the money supply and stabilize the economy.

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4
Q

A nominal variable, such as the inflation rate or the money supply, which ties down the price level to achieve price stability is called ________ anchor.
A) a nominal
B) a real
C) an operating
D) an intermediate

A

A) a nominal

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5
Q

A central feature of monetary policy strategies in all countries is the use of a nominal variable that monetary policymakers use as an intermediate target to achieve an ultimate goal such as price stability. Such a variable is called a nominal _______
A) anchor.
B) benchmark.
C) tether.
D) guideline.

A

A) anchor.

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6
Q

A nominal anchor promotes price stability by
A) outlawing inflation.
B) stabilizing interest rates.
C) keeping inflation expectations low.
D) keeping economic growth low.

A

C) keeping inflation expectations low.

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7
Q

Monetary policy is considered time-inconsistent because
A) of the lag times associated with the implementation of monetary policy and its effect on the economy.
B) policymakers are tempted to pursue discretionary policy that is more contractionary in the short run.
C) policymakers are tempted to pursue discretionary policy that is more expansionary in the short run.
D) of the lag times associated with the recognition of a potential economic problem and the implementation of monetary policy.

A

C) policymakers are tempted to pursue discretionary policy that is more expansionary in the short run.

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8
Q

The time-inconsistency problem with monetary policy tells us that, if policymakers use discretionary policy, there is a higher probability that the ________ will be higher, compared to policy makers following a behavior rule.
A) inflation rate
B) unemployment rate
C) interest rate
D) foreign exchange rate

A

A) inflation rate

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9
Q

The theory that monetary policy conducted on a discretionary, day-by-day basis leads to poor long-run outcomes is referred to as the
A) adverse selection problem.
B) moral hazard problem.
C) time-inconsistency problem.
D) nominal-anchor problem.

A

C) time-inconsistency problem.

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10
Q

The ________ problem of discretionary policy arises because economic behavior is influenced by what firms and people expect the monetary authorities to do in the future.
A) moral hazard
B) time-inconsistency
C) nominal-anchor
D) rational-expectation

A

B) time-inconsistency

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11
Q

If the central bank pursues a monetary policy that is more expansionary than what firms and people expect, then the central bank must be trying to
A) boost output in the short run.
B) constrain output in the short run.
C) constrain prices.
D) boost prices in the short run.

A

A) boost output in the short run.

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12
Q

The time-inconsistency problem in monetary policy can occur when the central bank conducts policy
A) using a nominal anchor.
B) using a strict and inflexible rule.
C) on a discretionary, day-by-day basis.
D) using a flexible, discretionary rule.

A

C) on a discretionary, day-by-day basis.

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13
Q

Explain the time-inconsistency problem. What is the likely outcome of discretionary policy? What are the solutions to the time-inconsistency problem?

A

With policy discretion, policymakers have an incentive to attempt to increase output by pursuing expansionary policies once expectations are set. The problem is that this policy results not in higher output, but in higher actual and expected inflation. The solution is to adopt a rule to constrain discretion. Nominal anchors can provide the necessary constraint on discretionary behavior.

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14
Q

Even if the Fed could completely control the money supply, monetary policy would have critics because
A) the Fed is asked to achieve many goals, some of which are incompatible with others.
B) the Fed’s goals do not include high employment, making labor unions a critic of the Fed.
C) the Fed’s primary goal is exchange rate stability, causing it to ignore domestic economic conditions.
D) it is required to keep Treasury security prices high.

A

A) the Fed is asked to achieve many goals, some of which are incompatible with others.

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15
Q

High unemployment is undesirable because it
A) results in a loss of output.
B) always increases inflation.
C) always increases interest rates.
D) reduces idle resources.

A

A) results in a loss of output.

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16
Q

When workers voluntarily leave work while they look for better jobs, the resulting unemployment is called
A) structural unemployment.
B) frictional unemployment.
C) cyclical unemployment.
D) underemployment.

A

B) frictional unemployment.

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17
Q

Unemployment resulting from a mismatch of workers’ skills and job requirements is called
A) frictional unemployment.
B) structural unemployment.
C) seasonal unemployment.
D) cyclical unemployment.

A

B) structural unemployment.

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18
Q

The goal for high employment should be a level of unemployment at which the demand for labor equals the supply of labor. Economists call this level of unemployment the
A) frictional level of unemployment.
B) structural level of unemployment.
C) natural rate level of unemployment.
D) Keynesian rate level of unemployment.

A

C) natural rate level of unemployment.

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19
Q

Supply-side economic policies seek to
A) raise interest rates through contractionary monetary policy.
B) increase federal government expenditures.
C) increase consumption expenditures by increasing taxes.
D) increase saving and investment using tax incentives.

A

D) increase saving and investment using tax incentives.

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20
Q

Having interest rate stability
A) allows for less uncertainty about future planning.
B) leads to demands to curtail the Fed’s power.
C) guarantees full employment.
D) leads to problems in financial markets.

A

A) allows for less uncertainty about future planning.

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21
Q

Foreign exchange rate stability is important because a decline in the value of the domestic currency will ________ the inflation rate, and an increase in the value of the domestic currency makes domestic industries ________ competitive with competing foreign industries.
A) increase; more
B) increase; less
C) decrease; more
D) decrease; less

A

B) increase; less
A decline in the value of the domestic currency means that it now takes more of the domestic currency to buy goods and services. This can lead to imported inflation as the cost of imported goods and services goes up, which can increase the inflation rate.

On the other hand, an increase in the value of the domestic currency makes domestic goods and services more expensive relative to foreign goods and services. This can make domestic industries less competitive with competing foreign industries as foreign buyers would find foreign goods cheaper.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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22
Q

Which set of goals can, at times, conflict in the short run?
A) high employment and economic growth
B) interest rate stability and financial market stability
C) high employment and price level stability
D) exchange rate stability and financial market stability

A

C) high employment and price level stability

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23
Q

The primary goal of the European Central Bank is
A) price stability.
B) exchange rate stability.
C) interest rate stability.
D) high employment.

A

A) price stability.

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24
Q

The mandate for the monetary policy goals that has been given to the European Central Bank is an example of a ________ mandate.
A) primary
B) dual
C) secondary
D) hierarchical

A

D) hierarchical

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25
Q

The mandate for the monetary policy goals that has been given to the Federal Reserve System is an example of a ________ mandate.
A) primary
B) dual
C) secondary
D) hierarchical

A

B) dual

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26
Q

Either a dual or hierarchial mandate is acceptable as long as ________ is the primary goal in the ________.
A) price stability; short run
B) price stability; long run
C) reducing business-cycle fluctuations; short run
D) reducing business-cycle fluctuations; long run

A

B) price stability; long run

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27
Q

The type of monetary policy that is used in Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom is
A) monetary targeting.
B) inflation targeting.
C) targeting with an implicit nominal anchor.
D) interest-rate targeting.

A

B) inflation targeting.

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28
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of inflation targeting?
A) a public announcement of medium-term numerical targets for inflation
B) an institutional commitment to price stability as the primary long-run goal
C) an information-inclusive approach in which only monetary aggregates are used in making decisions about monetary policy
D) increased accountability of the central bank for attaining its inflation objectives

A

C) an information-inclusive approach in which only monetary aggregates are used in making decisions about monetary policy

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29
Q

The first country to adopt inflation targeting was
A) the United Kingdom.
B) Canada.
C) New Zealand.
D) Australia.

A

C) New Zealand.

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30
Q

In both New Zealand and Canada, what has happened to the unemployment rate since the countries adopted inflation targeting?
A) The unemployment rate increased sharply.
B) The unemployment rate remained constant.
C) The unemployment rate has declined substantially after a sharp increase.
D) The unemployment rate declined sharply immediately after the inflation targets were adopted.

A

C) The unemployment rate has declined substantially after a sharp increase.

31
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of inflation targeting?
A) reduction of the time-inconsistency problem
B) increased monetary policy transparency
C) There is an immediate signal on the achievement of the target.
D) consistency with democratic principles

A

C) There is an immediate signal on the achievement of the target.

32
Q

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage to inflation targeting?
A) There is a delayed signal about achievement of the target.
B) Inflation targets could impose a rigid rule on policymakers.
C) There is potential for larger output fluctuations.
D) There is a lack of transparency.

A

D) There is a lack of transparency.

33
Q

The decision by inflation targeters to choose inflation targets ________ zero reflects the concern of monetary policymakers that particularly ________ inflation can have substantial negative effects on real economic activity.
A) below; high
B) below; low
C) above; high
D) above; low

A

D) above; low

34
Q

Inflation targets can increase the central bank’s flexibility in responding to declines in aggregate spending. Declines in aggregate ________ that cause the inflation rate to fall below the floor of the target range will automatically stimulate the central bank to ________ monetary policy without fearing that this action will trigger a rise in inflation expectations.
A) demand: tighten
B) demand; loosen
C) supply; tighten
D) supply; loosen

A

B) demand; loosen

35
Q

Explain what inflation targeting is. What are the advantages and disadvantages of this type of monetary policy strategy?

A

Answer: There are five main elements to inflation targeting: 1. a public announcement of a medium-term target for the inflation rate;
2. a commitment to price stability as the primary long-term goal of policy;
3. many variables are used in making decisions about policy moves;
4. increased transparency about policy strategy with the public;
5. the central bank has increased accountability for attaining policy goals.

The advantages of inflation targeting include: 1. the simplicity and clarity of a numerical target for the inflation rate; 2. there is increased accountability of the central bank; 3. reduces the effects of inflationary shocks.

The disadvantages of inflation targeting include: 1. there is a delayed signal about the achievement of the target; 2. it could lead to a rigid rule where the only focus is the inflation rate (has not happened in practice); 3. if sole focus is the inflation rate, larger output fluctuations can occur (has not happened in practice).

36
Q

Lessons that economists and policy makers have learned from the recent global financial crisis include
A) developments in the financial sector have a far greater impact on economic activity than was earlier realized.
B) the effective lower bound on interest rates can be a serious problem.
C) the cost of cleaning up after a financial crisis is very high.
D) price and output stability do not ensure financial stability.
E) All of the above.

A

E) All of the above.

37
Q

Conventional monetary policy would become more expansionary when interest rates fell to the floor of the effective lower bound, i.e., the effective lower bound on the policy rate would be less binding with a
A) lower federal funds rate.
B) higher federal funds rate.
C) lower inflation target.
D) higher inflation target.

A

D) higher inflation target.
Conventional monetary policy becomes more expansionary when interest rates fall to the floor of the effective lower bound. This is because lower interest rates generally stimulate economic activity by making borrowing cheaper. This increases spending and investment, which can lead to economic expansion.

38
Q

The problems of raising the level of the inflation target include
A) if the effective-lower-bound problem is rare, then the benefits of a higher inflation target are not very large.
B) the costs of higher inflation in terms of the distortions it produces in the economy are high.
C) it is more difficult to stabilize the inflation rate at a higher targeting level.
D) all of the above.

A

D) all of the above.

39
Q

When asset prices increase above their fundamental values it is called an
A) asset-price bubble.
B) irrational bubble.
C) asset-price spike.
D) irrational spike.

A

A) asset-price bubble.

40
Q

Suppose interest rates are kept very low for a long time such that there is a spike in the amount of lending. Everything else held constant, this could cause ________ bubble.
A) an irrational exuberance
B) a credit-driven
C) a stock
D) a debt-driven

A

B) a credit-driven

41
Q

A credit-driven bubble arises when ________ in lending causes ________ in asset prices which can cause ________ in lending.
A) a decrease; a decrease; an increase
B) a decrease; an increase; an increase
C) an increase; an increase; a further increase
D) a decrease; a decrease; a further decrease

A

C) an increase; an increase; a further increase

42
Q

________ bubble is driven entirely by unrealistic optimistic expectations.
A) An irrational exuberance
B) A credit-driven
C) A stock
D) A debt-driven

A

A) An irrational exuberance

43
Q

Everything else held constant, a credit-drive bubble is generally considered to have the potential to cause ________ damage to an economy compared to an irrational exuberance bubble.
A) less
B) about the same amount of
C) more
D) either more, less, or the same amount of

A

C) more

44
Q

A central bank has ________ chance to identify a credit-driven bubble compared to an irrational exuberance bubble.
A) a greater
B) less of a
C) about the same level of a
D) a greater, less or about the same level of a

A

A) a greater

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT an argument against using monetary policy to prick asset-price bubbles?
A) The effect of increasing interest rates on asset prices is uncertain.
B) A bubble may only exist in some asset-prices and monetary policy will affect all asset prices.
C) Using monetary policy to prick an asset-price bubble may have adverse effect on the aggregate economy.
D) Even though credit-drive bubbles are easier to identify, they are still relatively hard to identify.

A

D) Even though credit-drive bubbles are easier to identify, they are still relatively hard to identify.

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT an operating instrument?
A) nonborrowed reserves
B) monetary base
C) federal funds interest rate
D) discount rate

A

D) discount rate

47
Q

Which of the following is a potential operating instrument for the central bank?
A) the monetary base
B) the M1 money supply
C) nominal GDP
D) the discount rate

A

A) the monetary base

48
Q

Due to the lack of timely data for the price level and economic growth, the Fed’s strategy
A) targets the exchange rate, since the Fed can control this variable.
B) targets the price of gold, since it is closely related to economic activity.
C) uses an intermediate target, such as an interest rate.
D) stabilizes the consumer price index, since the Fed can control the CPI.

A

C) uses an intermediate target, such as an interest rate.

49
Q

If the central bank targets a monetary aggregate, it is likely to lose control over the interest rate because
A) of fluctuations in the demand for reserves.
B) of fluctuations in the consumption function.
C) bond values will tend to remain stable.
D) of fluctuations in the business cycle.

A

A) of fluctuations in the demand for reserves.

50
Q

Real interest rates are difficult to measure because
A) data on them are not available in a timely manner.
B) real interest rates depend on the hard-to-determine expected inflation rate.
C) they fluctuate too often to be accurate.
D) they cannot be controlled by the Fed.

A

B) real interest rates depend on the hard-to-determine expected inflation rate.

51
Q

Which of the following criteria need NOT be satisfied for choosing a policy instrument?
A) The variable must be measurable.
B) The variable must be controllable.
C) The variable must be predictable.
D) The variable must be transportable.

A

D) The variable must be transportable.

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement in selecting a policy instrument?
A) measurability
B) controllability
C) flexibility
D) predictability

A

C) flexibility

53
Q

When it comes to choosing an policy instrument, both the ________ rate and ________ aggregates are measured accurately and are available daily with almost no delay.
A) three-month T-bill; monetary
B) three-month T-bill; reserve
C) federal funds; monetary
D) federal funds; reserve

A

D) federal funds; reserve

54
Q

Explain and demonstrate graphically how targeting nonborrowed reserves can result in federal funds rate instability.

A

When nonborrowed reserves are held constant, increases in the demand for reserves result in the federal funds rate increasing and decreases in the demand for nonborrowed reserves result in the federal funds rate declining. Since fluctuations in demand do not cause monetary policy actions, the result is the federal funds rate will fluctuate (assuming the equilibrium federal funds rate is below the discount rate).

55
Q

Explain and demonstrate graphically how targeting the federal funds rate can result in fluctuations in nonborrowed reserves.

A

With a federal funds rate target, fluctuations in demand for reserves require similar changes in the nonborrowed reserves to keep the federal funds rate constant.

56
Q

According to the Taylor rule, the Fed should raise the federal funds interest rate when inflation ________ the Fed’s inflation target or when real GDP ________ the Fed’s output target.
A) rises above; drops below
B) drops below; drops below
C) rises above; rises above
D) drops below; rises above

A

C) rises above; rises above

57
Q

If the Taylor Principle is not followed and nominal interest rates are increased by less than the increase in the inflation rate, then real interest rates will ________ and monetary policy will be too ________.
A) rise; tight
B) rise; loose
C) fall; tight
D) fall; loose

A

D) fall; loose

58
Q

The rate of inflation tends to remain constant when
A) the unemployment rate is above the NAIRU.
B) the unemployment rate equals the NAIRU.
C) the unemployment rate is below the NAIRU.
D) the unemployment rate increases faster than the NAIRU increases.

A

B) the unemployment rate equals the NAIRU.
NAIRU stands for Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate of Unemployment. It is the specific level of unemployment that is evident in an economy that does not cause inflation to increase. In other words, if unemployment is at the NAIRU level, inflation is stable.

A) If the unemployment rate is above the NAIRU, there is excess capacity in the economy, which tends to put downward pressure on inflation.

B) If the unemployment rate equals the NAIRU, the economy is in equilibrium and inflation tends to remain constant. This is because the labor market is in a state where there is neither upward nor downward pressure on inflation due to unemployment.

C) If the unemployment rate is below the NAIRU, the economy is overheating. There is upward pressure on wages, and therefore on prices, which tends to increase the rate of inflation.

D) If the unemployment rate increases faster than the NAIRU increases, it means that the economy is slowing down more rapidly than the equilibrium rate of unemployment. This would typically lead to a decrease in inflation.

59
Q

The rate of inflation increases when
A) the unemployment rate equals the NAIRU.
B) the unemployment rate exceeds the NAIRU.
C) the unemployment rate is less than the NAIRU.
D) the unemployment rate increases faster than the NAIRU increases.

A

C) the unemployment rate is less than the NAIRU.

60
Q

Explain the Taylor rule, including the formula for setting the federal funds rate target, and the components of the formula. If the Fed were to use this rule, how many goals would it use to set monetary policy?

A

Answer: The Taylor rule specifies that the target federal fund rates should be set to equal the equilibrium real federal funds rate, plus the rate of inflation (for the Fisher effect), plus one-half times the output gap, plus one-half times the inflation gap. The formula is (see attached).

The output gap is the percentage deviation of real GDP from potential full-employment real GDP. The inflation gap is the difference between actual inflation and the central bank’s target rate of inflation. The equilibrium real federal funds rate is the real rate consistent with full employment in the long run. The inflation rate is the actual rate of inflation. The Taylor rule sets the federal funds rate recognizing the goals of low inflation and full employment (or equilibrium long-run economic growth).

61
Q

In pursuing a strategy of monetary targeting, the central bank announces that it will achieve a certain value (the target) of the annual growth rate of a
A) a monetary aggregate.
B) a reserve aggregate.
C) the monetary base.
D) GDP.

A

A) a monetary aggregate.

62
Q

Compared to the United States, Japan’s experience with monetary targeting during the 1978–1987 period performed
A) better with regard to the inflation rate and output fluctuations.
B) worse with regard to the inflation rate and output fluctuations.
C) better with regard to the inflation rate, but worse with regard to output fluctuations.
D) worse with regard to the inflation rate, but better with regard to output fluctuations.

A

A) better with regard to the inflation rate and output fluctuations.

63
Q

One of the factors that contributed to the success German policymakers had using a monetary targeting type policy starting in the mid-1970s and continuing through the next two decades was that
A) they used a rigid target for the money growth rate.
B) they implemented policy so their inflation rate goal was met in the short run.
C) the money target was flexible to allow the Bundesbank to concentrate on other goals as needed.
D) they rarely communicated the intentions of policy to the public in order to keep the public from panicking.

A

C) the money target was flexible to allow the Bundesbank to concentrate on other goals as needed.

64
Q

The European Central Bank (ECB) pursues a hybrid monetary policy strategy that has elements in common with the ________-targeting strategy previously used by the Bundesbank but also includes some elements of ________ targeting.
A) monetary; inflation
B) inflation; monetary
C) monetary; exchange rate
D) monetary; nominal GDP

A

A) monetary; inflation

65
Q

Which of the following is an advantage to money targeting?
A) There is an immediate signal on the achievement of the target.
B) It does not rely on a stable money-inflation relationship.
C) It implies lack of transparency.
D) It implies smaller output fluctuations.

A

A) There is an immediate signal on the achievement of the target.

66
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage to monetary targeting?
A) It relies on a stable money-inflation relationship.
B) There is a delayed signal about the achievement of a target.
C) It implies larger output fluctuations.
D) It implies a lack of transparency.

A

A) It relies on a stable money-inflation relationship.

67
Q

If the relationship between the monetary aggregate and the goal variable is weak, then
A) monetary aggregate targeting is superior to exchange-rate targeting.
B) monetary aggregate targeting is superior to inflation targeting.
C) inflation targeting is superior to exchange-rate targeting.
D) monetary aggregate targeting will not work.

A

D) monetary aggregate targeting will not work.

68
Q

The monetary policy strategy that relies on a stable money-income relationship is
A) exchange-rate targeting.
B) monetary targeting.
C) inflation targeting.
D) the implicit nominal anchor.

A

B) monetary targeting.

69
Q

High inflation can spiral out of control when
A) expected inflation increases nominal interest rates, causing the Fed to buy bonds, increasing the money supply and further increasing inflation.
B) expected inflation decreases nominal interest rates, causing the Fed to buy bonds, increasing the money supply and further increasing inflation.
C) expected inflation increases nominal interest rates, causing the Fed to sell bonds, increasing the money supply and further increasing inflation.
D) expected inflation decreases nominal interest rates, causing the Fed to sell bonds, increasing the money supply and further increasing inflation.

A

A) expected inflation increases nominal interest rates, causing the Fed to buy bonds, increasing the money supply and further increasing inflation.

70
Q

The strengthening of the dollar between 1980 and 1985 contributed to a ________ in American competitiveness, putting pressure on the Fed to pursue a more ________ monetary policy.
A) decrease; contractionary
B) increase; expansionary
C) increase; contractionary
D) decrease; expansionary

A

D) decrease; expansionary

71
Q

A borrowed reserves target is ________ because increases in income ________ interest rates and discount loans, causing the Fed to ________ the monetary base, everything else held constant.
A) procyclical; increase; increase
B) countercyclical; increase; increase
C) procyclical; reduce; reduce
D) countercyclical; reduce; reduce

A

A) procyclical; increase; increase

72
Q

Fed policy since the early 1990s indicates that it is pursuing a policy of targeting the
A) monetary base.
B) money supply.
C) federal funds interest rate.
D) exchange rate.

A

C) federal funds interest rate.

73
Q

International policy coordination refers to
A) central banks in major nations acting without regard to the global consequences of their policies.
B) central banks in major nations pursuing only domestic objectives.
C) central banks adopting policies in pursuit of joint objectives.
D) central banks all adopting identical policies.

A

C) central banks adopting policies in pursuit of joint objectives.

74
Q
A