Ch13 Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which medication is most appropriate for a patient in respiratory distress with wheezing?

A

Albuterol

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2
Q

What is the first-line medication for a bradycardic and unresponsive patient?

A

Atropine

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3
Q

What medication should be given to a diabetic patient who is unresponsive with no IV access?

A

Glucagon

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4
Q

What should be administered next to a trauma patient who remains hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation?

A

Dopamine

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5
Q

Which drug class provides the fastest bronchodilation during an asthma attack?

A

Beta-2 agonists

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6
Q

Which paralytic provides rapid onset and short duration for intubation?

A

Succinylcholine

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7
Q

What drug class is appropriate for immediate treatment of a seizing patient?

A

Benzodiazepines

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8
Q

What drug class should be avoided in a pregnant patient with hypertension?

A

ACE inhibitors

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9
Q

What is the first medication to consider for a patient in supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

A

Adenosine

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10
Q

What do you administer to a non-breathing patient suspected of opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone

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11
Q

What antiarrhythmic should be given to a patient in ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

A

Amiodarone

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12
Q

What drug slows AV node conduction in atrial fibrillation?

A

Diltiazem

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13
Q

What vasodilator should a patient with chest pain and stable vitals receive?

A

Nitroglycerin

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14
Q

Beta blockers should be avoided when a patient is also taking what class of drug?

A

Calcium channel blockers

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15
Q

What medication increases cardiac output without a significant increase in heart rate?

A

Milrinone

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16
Q

What is the term for the time it takes half the drug to be eliminated from the plasma?

A

Half-life

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17
Q

A drug that blocks a receptor is classified as what?

A

Antagonist

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18
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

The percentage of unchanged drug that reaches circulation

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19
Q

What is the fastest and most reliable route for drug delivery in emergencies?

A

Intravenous (IV)

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20
Q

A drug with a low therapeutic index requires what?

A

Close monitoring

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21
Q

What EMS practice helps prevent medication errors?

A

Verbal read-back of orders

22
Q

In elderly patients, which organ function most affects drug metabolism?

23
Q

What risk is introduced by drawing up a drug but failing to label it?

A

Medication error

24
Q

During a cardiac arrest in a hypothermic patient, drug absorption is likely to be:

25
Q

How should pediatric drug doses be calculated?

A

By weight in kilograms

26
Q

What drug reduces mucus and causes bronchodilation in asthma or COPD?

A

Ipratropium bromide

27
Q

What reversal agent is used for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

28
Q

Which sedative also increases heart rate and blood pressure?

29
Q

What class of drugs is used to stop seizures and provide sedation?

A

Benzodiazepines

30
Q

Which medication treats torsades de pointes?

A

Magnesium sulfate

31
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

A drug that activates a receptor but with reduced effect compared to a full agonist

32
Q

When all receptor sites are occupied, what has occurred?

A

Maximum drug effect

33
Q

Which type of antagonist binds permanently to a receptor?

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

34
Q

Which drug is best for treating nausea in EMS?

A

Ondansetron

35
Q

Which medication is administered for life-threatening acidosis?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

36
Q

What blood product contains clotting factors but no red cells?

A

Fresh frozen plasma

37
Q

What drug promotes clotting in trauma patients with severe bleeding?

A

Tranexamic acid

38
Q

What must be documented for every milliliter of a controlled substance used?

A

Ordering, administration, and disposal

39
Q

What might you suspect if a narcotic dose suddenly has no effect on a patient?

A

Tampering or diversion

40
Q

What resource should EMS consult to verify medication information in the field?

A

A medication monograph or electronic reference

41
Q

How can EMS confirm drug compatibility before administration?

A

Use a trusted compatibility chart or reference

42
Q

What side effect may result from high doses of epinephrine?

A

Increased myocardial oxygen demand

43
Q

What is a concern when administering calcium chloride IV?

A

Tissue damage from extravasation

44
Q

Why is morphine used cautiously in hypotensive patients?

A

It may worsen hypotension

45
Q

Aspirin and clopidogrel belong to which medication class?

A

Antiplatelet agents

46
Q

What is the primary therapeutic use of phenytoin?

A

Seizure prevention

47
Q

H2 blockers like famotidine are used to _______.

A

Reduce stomach acid secretion

48
Q

Why should thiamine be administered before dextrose in alcoholics?

A

To prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy

49
Q

What is a drug that binds temporarily to receptor sites, preventing activation?

A

Competitive antagonist

50
Q

What is the action of mannitol in a patient with cerebral edema?

A

Osmotic diuretic that draws water out of tissues