Ch13 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of medication names?

A

Chemical name, Generic name, Brand name

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2
Q

What does ‘tall man’ lettering help prevent?

A

Medication errors due to look-alike/sound-alike drug names

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3
Q

What legislation created drug schedules in the U.S.?

A

The Controlled Substances Act of 1970

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4
Q

Which drugs fall under Schedule I?

A

Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical use (e.g., heroin)

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5
Q

What organization enforces the Controlled Substances Act?

A

The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration)

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6
Q

What are the four phases of pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Elimination

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7
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

The effect a drug has on the body

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8
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

How the body affects a drug (movement through the body)

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9
Q

What is an agonist drug?

A

A drug that binds to and activates a receptor

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10
Q

What is an antagonist drug?

A

A drug that binds to a receptor but blocks activation

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11
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

The percentage of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation

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12
Q

What is half-life?

A

Time required for the concentration of a drug to be reduced by 50%

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13
Q

Which route of administration has 100% bioavailability?

A

Intravenous (IV)

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14
Q

Why is oral administration less reliable in emergencies?

A

Because of delayed onset and first-pass metabolism in the liver

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15
Q

What is the advantage of the intranasal route?

A

Rapid absorption and no risk of needle stick injury

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16
Q

What is an idiosyncratic drug reaction?

A

An unpredictable, abnormal reaction not related to dose

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17
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction

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18
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

A perceived benefit from an inactive substance

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19
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

Rapid development of drug tolerance after repeated doses

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20
Q

What does ‘just culture’ encourage?

A

Reporting of medication errors to improve patient safety

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21
Q

What are sympathomimetic drugs?

A

Drugs that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

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22
Q

What does a beta-2 agonist do?

A

Causes bronchodilation (e.g., albuterol)

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23
Q

What does an alpha-1 agonist do?

A

Causes vasoconstriction

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24
Q

What is the function of atropine?

A

Parasympathetic blocker used to treat bradycardia

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25
Q

What is ketamine used for in EMS?

A

Inducing sedation and dissociation for airway management

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26
Q

What is the primary use of albuterol?

A

Treating bronchospasm in asthma or COPD

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27
Q

What class is amiodarone?

A

Class III antiarrhythmic

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28
Q

What is adenosine used for?

A

Treating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

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29
Q

What is the P-450 system?

A

A liver enzyme system responsible for drug metabolism

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30
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

Ratio between a drug’s effective dose and lethal dose

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31
Q

What did the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 do?

A

Prohibited altering or mislabeling medications.

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32
Q

What is the role of the FDA in medication regulation?

A

Approves new drugs and removes unsafe ones from the market.

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33
Q

What is off-label use of a drug?

A

Using a drug for a purpose, dose, or route not approved by the FDA.

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34
Q

What does first-pass metabolism refer to?

A

The liver’s metabolism of orally administered drugs before reaching systemic circulation.

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35
Q

What factors affect drug absorption?

A

Route of administration, drug formulation, blood flow, and GI function.

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36
Q

What is the volume of distribution?

A

A measure of how extensively a drug spreads through body tissues.

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37
Q

What is plasma protein binding?

A

Temporary attachment of drug molecules to blood proteins, affecting distribution.

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38
Q

Which organ is primarily responsible for drug elimination?

A

The kidneys.

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39
Q

What is zero-order elimination?

A

A fixed amount of drug is eliminated over time regardless of concentration.

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40
Q

What is first-order elimination?

A

A constant proportion of the drug is eliminated per unit time.

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41
Q

What is a receptor site?

A

A protein on a cell where drugs bind to produce effects.

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42
Q

What happens when all receptor sites are occupied?

A

Maximum drug effect is reached; no further increase in effect.

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43
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

Binds to receptors but produces less effect than a full agonist.

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44
Q

How does age affect medication dosing?

A

Infants and elderly may metabolize drugs slower; dosing may need adjustment.

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45
Q

How does obesity affect lipophilic drugs?

A

These drugs may be stored in fat, prolonging their effect.

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46
Q

How does pregnancy affect drug pharmacokinetics?

A

Increases in plasma volume, renal clearance, and altered metabolism.

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47
Q

What are paradoxical reactions?

A

Unexpected effects opposite to the intended action of a drug.

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48
Q

What are common adverse effects?

A

Nausea, vomiting, dizziness, sedation, respiratory depression.

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49
Q

What is the definition of an adverse drug reaction?

A

An undesired, harmful effect resulting from a medication.

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50
Q

What is drug tolerance?

A

A reduced response to a drug after repeated use.

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51
Q

What is cross-tolerance?

A

Tolerance to one drug causing tolerance to another drug in the same class.

52
Q

What are drug-drug interactions?

A

Effects caused when one drug alters the action of another.

53
Q

What is the concern with incompatible IV drugs?

A

They may precipitate, deactivate, or cause harmful reactions.

54
Q

What are the requirements for storing controlled substances?

A

Locked storage, inventory tracking, and disposal documentation.

55
Q

How should medications be stored in EMS vehicles?

A

Protected from light, heat, cold, and physical damage.

56
Q

What is the intraosseous route?

A

Injection into bone marrow; used when IV access is not available.

57
Q

What is sublingual administration?

A

Placement under the tongue for absorption into bloodstream.

58
Q

What is a transdermal patch?

A

A medicated adhesive patch for continuous drug delivery through the skin.

59
Q

What is rectal administration used for?

A

Patients who are unconscious, vomiting, or seizing.

60
Q

What do beta-1 receptors primarily affect?

A

Heart rate, force, and automaticity.

61
Q

What do alpha receptors cause when stimulated?

A

Vasoconstriction.

62
Q

What does propranolol do?

A

Blocks beta receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

63
Q

What is etomidate used for?

A

Short-acting sedative for rapid sequence intubation.

64
Q

What are the effects of ketamine?

A

Dissociation, increased BP, bronchodilation, possible hallucinations.

65
Q

What do benzodiazepines do?

A

Sedate, reduce anxiety, stop seizures.

66
Q

What is succinylcholine?

A

A depolarizing paralytic that causes short-term paralysis.

67
Q

What is rocuronium?

A

A non-depolarizing paralytic with longer duration than succinylcholine.

68
Q

What does ipratropium do?

A

Anticholinergic bronchodilator that decreases mucus secretion.

69
Q

What do corticosteroids do?

A

Reduce inflammation in asthma, COPD, and allergic reactions.

70
Q

What are leukotriene receptor antagonists used for?

A

Chronic treatment of asthma and allergies.

71
Q

What class is lidocaine and what does it treat?

A

Class I antiarrhythmic; treats ventricular dysrhythmias.

72
Q

What is the action of metoprolol?

A

Beta-1 blocker; slows heart rate and reduces blood pressure.

73
Q

What is the use of amiodarone?

A

Treats atrial and ventricular arrhythmias.

74
Q

What does diltiazem treat?

A

Atrial fibrillation and flutter by slowing conduction through the AV node.

75
Q

What is the use of nitroglycerin?

A

Vasodilator for chest pain, reduces preload and myocardial oxygen demand.

76
Q

What are ACE inhibitors used for?

A

Hypertension, heart failure, post-MI care.

77
Q

What is the major risk with ACE inhibitors?

A

Angioedema and chronic cough.

78
Q

What is atropine used for in bradycardia?

A

Blocks vagal effects, increasing heart rate.

79
Q

What is dopamine used for?

A

Increases cardiac output and blood pressure depending on dose.

80
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

The study of how a medication alters body function or processes.

81
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

The study of what the body does to a drug: absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination.

82
Q

What does affinity refer to in pharmacology?

A

A medication’s ability to bind with a receptor site.

83
Q

What is potency?

A

The concentration of a drug required to initiate a cellular response.

84
Q

What is efficacy?

A

The ability of a drug to produce a desired therapeutic effect.

85
Q

What do competitive antagonists do?

A

Temporarily bind to receptor sites and displace agonist chemicals.

86
Q

What do noncompetitive antagonists do?

A

Permanently bind to receptor sites and prevent activation.

87
Q

What are partial agonists?

A

Drugs that bind to receptors and cause less activity than full agonists.

88
Q

What is the AHA Classification for medications?

A

Class I (strong evidence) to Class III (harm); guides clinical use.

89
Q

What is therapeutic index?

A

The ratio between a drug’s effective dose and lethal dose.

90
Q

How does age affect drug dosing?

A

Infants and elderly metabolize drugs differently, requiring titration.

91
Q

What is the P-450 system?

A

A liver enzyme system involved in drug metabolism.

92
Q

What is the bioavailability of the intravenous route?

93
Q

What route is preferred if the patient is unresponsive or vomiting?

A

Rectal administration.

94
Q

What is the concern with endotracheal drug administration?

A

Unreliable absorption; requires 2-2.5x IV dose.

95
Q

What is etomidate used for?

A

A sedative used for rapid sequence intubation; minimal BP effect.

96
Q

What is ketamine’s benefit in airway management?

A

Provides dissociation and bronchodilation while preserving BP.

97
Q

What class are benzodiazepines and their use?

A

Sedative, anxiolytic, antiseizure drugs used for seizures and sedation.

98
Q

What is succinylcholine?

A

A depolarizing paralytic used for rapid sequence intubation.

99
Q

What are rocuronium and vecuronium?

A

Non-depolarizing paralytics that compete with ACh.

100
Q

What is albuterol?

A

A selective beta-2 agonist used for bronchospasm.

101
Q

What is ipratropium bromide?

A

An anticholinergic that causes bronchodilation and reduces mucus.

102
Q

What do corticosteroids do in respiratory care?

A

Reduce airway inflammation and improve oxygenation.

103
Q

What are leukotriene receptor antagonists used for?

A

Long-term asthma and allergy management.

104
Q

What is the function of Class I antidysrhythmic drugs?

A

Block sodium channels to reduce ventricular arrhythmias.

105
Q

What is metoprolol used for?

A

A beta-1 blocker to reduce HR during myocardial ischemia.

106
Q

What is amiodarone used for?

A

A Class III drug for atrial and ventricular tachycardias.

107
Q

What is adenosine used for?

A

To slow AV conduction and convert supraventricular tachycardias.

108
Q

What does atropine treat?

A

Bradycardia due to vagal stimulation.

109
Q

What does epinephrine stimulate?

A

Alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors to increase cardiac output.

110
Q

What is norepinephrine used for?

A

Severe hypotension; stimulates alpha and beta-1 receptors.

111
Q

What is dopamine’s role in EMS?

A

Increases BP and CO depending on dose.

112
Q

What is furosemide used for?

A

A loop diuretic used to treat CHF and fluid overload.

113
Q

What does mannitol treat?

A

Cerebral edema by drawing water out of tissues.

114
Q

What does magnesium sulfate treat?

A

Eclampsia seizures, torsades de pointes, and electrolyte imbalance.

115
Q

What is sodium bicarbonate used for?

A

Raises blood pH in acidosis or hyperkalemia.

116
Q

What are packed red blood cells used for?

A

To treat anemia or blood loss.

117
Q

What is the purpose of fresh frozen plasma?

A

Provides clotting factors in massive transfusions.

118
Q

What is tranexamic acid (TXA)?

A

A clot-preserving drug given in severe trauma within 3 hours.

119
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

Reverses opioid overdose effects.

120
Q

What are opioids like morphine and fentanyl used for?

A

Pain relief; risk of respiratory depression.

121
Q

What are side effects of opioids?

A

Respiratory depression, nausea, bradycardia, hypotension.

122
Q

What is ondansetron used for?

A

An antiemetic that blocks 5-HT3 receptors.

123
Q

What is metoclopramide’s action?

A

Increases GI motility and promotes gastric emptying.

124
Q

What are H2 blockers like famotidine used for?

A

Reduce stomach acid by blocking histamine receptors.

125
Q

What does acetaminophen treat?

A

Fever and mild pain.

126
Q

What is thiamine used for?

A

Prevents Wernicke’s encephalopathy in malnourished or alcoholic patients.

127
Q

What is ketorolac used for?

A

A non-opioid NSAID for moderate to severe pain.