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ANAPHY - Finals > CH12 (Body Defenses) > Flashcards

CH12 (Body Defenses) Flashcards

1
Q

Which defense mechanism is nonspecific?

a) Innate
b) Adaptive
c) None
d) Both

A

a) Innate

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2
Q

Which defense mechanism is specific?

a) Innate
b) Adaptive
c) None
d) Both

A

b) Adaptive

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3
Q

How is the immune system described in terms of anatomy?

a) A collection of organs
b) A functional system
c) A network of blood vessels
d) A system of bones

A

b) A functional system

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4
Q

What are the “structures” of the immune system primarily composed of?

a) Organs
b) Molecules and immune cells
c) Nerves
d) Hormones

A

b) Molecules and immune cells

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5
Q

Which cells are described as the most important in the immune system?

a) Dendritic cells
b) Macrophages
c) Lymphocytes
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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6
Q

In what defense mechanism do the macrophages participate in?

a) Innate
b) Adaptive
c) Both
d) None

A

c) Both

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7
Q

What is another name for the innate defense system?

a) Specific defense system
b) Nonspecific defense system
c) Adaptive defense system
d) Immune defense system

A

b) Nonspecific defense system

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8
Q

How do innate mechanisms reduce the workload of adaptive defense mechanisms?

a) By preventing the entry of microorganisms
b) By producing antibodies
c) By activating lymphocytes
d) By destroying infected cells

A

a) By preventing the entry of microorganisms

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9
Q

Are we born with our innate defenses?

a) Yes
b) No

A

a) Yes

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10
Q

What is another name for the adaptive defense system?

a) Nonspecific defense system
b) Innate defense system
c) Specific defense system
d) Immune defense system

A

c) Specific defense system

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11
Q

What type of invaders does the adaptive defense system primarily fight against?

a) Bacteria and viruses
b) All foreign substances
c) Only bacteria
d) Only viruses

A

b) All foreign substances

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12
Q

What is the term for the resulting highly specific resistance to disease?

a) Innate defense
b) Immunity
c) Inflammation
d) Susceptibility

A

b) Immunity

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13
Q

How does the immune system directly operate?

a) cell attack

b) releasing mobilizing chemicals and protective antibody molecules

c) sending neural signals to the brain

A

a) cell attack

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14
Q

How does the immune system indirectly operate?

a) cell attack

b) releasing mobilizing chemicals and protective antibody molecules

c) sending neural signals to the brain

A

b) releasing mobilizing chemicals and protective antibody molecules

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15
Q

How does the adaptive defense system differ from the innate defense system in terms of readiness?

a) It is always prepared
b) It must first encounter an antigen before it can protect the body
c) It responds immediately
d) It relies on skin and mucous membranes

A

b) It must first encounter an antigen before it can protect the body

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16
Q

What is the term for the initial exposure to a foreign substance that sensitizes the adaptive system?

a) Antigen response
b) Innate response
c) Sensitization
d) Immune activation

A

c) Sensitization

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17
Q

True or False: The adaptive response “remembers” which invaders it has fought

A

True

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18
Q

What compensates for the lack of speed in the adaptive defense system?

a) Precision of its counterattacks
b) Stronger physical barriers
c) Faster mobilization of immune cells
d) Production of antibodies

A

a) Precision of its counterattacks

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19
Q

How do innate and adaptive defenses typically work together?

a) They work independently
b) They rely solely on skin defenses
c) They work hand-in-hand
d) They compete against each other

A

c) They work hand-in-hand

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20
Q

What is the body’s first line of defense against disease-causing microorganisms?

a) Internal organs
b) Surface membrane barriers
c) Cellular and chemical defenses
d) Blood vessels

A

b) Surface membrane barriers

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21
Q

What are examples of surface membrane barriers?

a) Blood vessels
b) Lymph nodes
c) Skin and mucous membranes
d) Bones

A

c) Skin and mucous membranes

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22
Q

What makes the skin a strong physical barrier to microorganisms?

a) Keratinized epidermis
b) Sweat glands
c) Hair follicles
d) Sebaceous glands

A

a) Keratinized epidermis

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23
Q

What do intact mucous membranes provide within the body?

a) None
b) Immune responses
c) Mechanical barriers
d) Nutrient absorption

A

c) Mechanical barriers

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24
Q

Which body cavities do mucous membranes line?

a) Closed body cavities
b) Blood vessels
c) Body cavities open to the exterior
d) Bone cavities

A

c) Body cavities open to the exterior

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25
Q

What inhibits bacterial growth in skin secretions and urine?

a) Alkaline pH
b) Acidic pH
c) Neutral pH
d) Basic pH

A

b) Acidic pH

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26
Q

What skin secretion contains chemicals that are toxic to bacteria?

a) Sweat
b) Sebum
c) Melanin
d) Keratin

A

b) Sebum

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27
Q

What is the pH range of urine that typically inhibits bacterial growth?

a) pH of 7 to 8
b) pH of 5.5 to 7
c) pH of 4.5 to 6
d) pH of 8 to 9

A

c) pH of 4.5 to 6

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28
Q

What is the acidic nature of vaginal secretions primarily useful for?

a) Nutrient absorption
b) Digesting food
c) Inhibiting bacterial growth
d) Lubrication

A

c) Inhibiting bacterial growth

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29
Q

What is the function of sticky mucus in the digestive and respiratory passageways?

a) Lubrication
b) Oxygenation
c) Nutrient absorption
d) Trapping microorganisms

A

d) Trapping microorganisms

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30
Q

hat components of gastric juice help to kill pathogens?

a) Bile and lipase
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Protein-digesting enzymes
d) Mucus and bicarbonate

A

b & c

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31
Q

What enzyme present in saliva and lacrimal secretions destroys bacteria?

a) Lipase
b) Protease
c) Lysozyme
d) Amylase

A

c) Lysozyme

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32
Q

What traps inhaled particles in the nasal cavity?

a) Smooth surface
b) Ciliated cells
c) Mucus-coated hairs
d) Alveoli

A

c) Mucus-coated hairs

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33
Q

What is the function of ciliated cells in the respiratory tract mucosa?

a) Producing mucus
b) Trapping inhaled particles
c) Moving mucus and trapped particles away from the lungs
d) Destroying bacteria

A

c) Moving mucus and trapped particles away from the lungs

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34
Q

What happens when microorganisms invade deeper tissues?

a) They are destroyed by surface barriers
b) Internal innate mechanisms activate
c) They are trapped by mucus
d) They enter the bloodstream

A

b) Internal innate mechanisms activate

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35
Q

How can microbes enter the body?

a) small cuts
b) surgery
c) magic
d) murder

A

a) small cuts

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36
Q

What is the body’s second line of defense against disease-causing microorganisms?

a) Internal organs
b) Surface membrane barriers
c) Cellular and chemical defenses
d) Blood vessels

A

c) Cellular and chemical defenses

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37
Q

What are the primary components of the body’s second line of defense?

a) Organs
b) Cells
c) Blood vessels
d) Chemicals

A

b & d

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38
Q

What are the two types of cells involved in the second line of defense?

a) Red blood cells and platelets
b) Phagocytes and natural killer cells
c) T cells and B cells
d) Neurons and astrocytes

A

b) Phagocytes and natural killer cells

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39
Q

Besides phagocytes and natural killer cells, what other defense mechanisms are part of the second line of defense?

a) Hormones
b) The inflammatory response
c) Blood clotting
d) Muscle contractions

A

b) The inflammatory response

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40
Q

What is a nonspecific protective response that is part of the second line of defense?

a) Vomiting
b) Fever
c) Sweating
d) Sneezing

A

b) Fever

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41
Q

Where do natural killer (NK) cells roam in the body?

a) In the spleen
b) In the bone marrow
c) In blood and lymph
d) In the lymph nodes

A

c) In blood and lymph

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42
Q

What is the primary function of natural killer (NK) cells?

a) Producing antibodies
b) Killing cancer cells and virus-infected cells
c) Producing mucus
d) Enhancing adaptive immune responses

A

b) Killing cancer cells and virus-infected cells

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43
Q

What targets can natural killer cells lyse and kill?

a) Virus-infected cells
b) Cancer cells
c) Nonspecific targets
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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44
Q

How do natural killer cells recognize their targets?

a) By recognizing certain proteins
b) By recognizing certain sugars on the intruder’s surface
c) By recognizing certain fats
d) By recognizing certain vitamins

A

b) By recognizing certain sugars on the intruder’s surface

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45
Q

What is unique about the targets recognized by natural killer cells?

a) They have certain sugars and lack certain self-cell surface molecules

b) They lack certain sugars and have certain self-cell surface molecules

c) They have certain proteins and lack certain self-cell surface molecules

d) They lack certain proteins and have certain self-cell surface molecules

A

a) They have certain sugars and lack certain self-cell surface molecules

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46
Q

How do natural killer (NK) cells kill their target cells?

a) By engulfing them
b) By releasing lytic chemicals
c) By releasing antibodies
d) By producing mucus

A

b) By releasing lytic chemicals

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47
Q

What are the lytic chemicals released by NK cells?

a) Antibodies
b) Peroxidase and catalase
c) Perforin and granzymes
d) Histamines and cytokines

A

c) Perforin and granzymes

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48
Q

What happens to the target cell shortly after NK cells release lytic chemicals?

a) It becomes dormant
b) Its membrane and nucleus disintegrate
c) It replicates
d) It becomes resistant

A

b) Its membrane and nucleus disintegrate

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49
Q

Besides killing target cells, what other function do NK cells perform?

a) Producing antibodies
b) Releasing mucus
c) Releasing powerful inflammatory chemicals
d) Enhancing adaptive immune responses

A

c) Releasing powerful inflammatory chemicals

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50
Q

When is the inflammatory response triggered?

a) Only in response to bacterial infection

b) Whenever body tissues are injured

c) Only in response to physical trauma

d) Only in response to intense heat

A

b) Whenever body tissues are injured

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51
Q

What are some examples of triggers for the inflammatory response?

a) Intense heat
b) Irritating chemicals
c) Physical trauma
d) Infection

A

All of these

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52
Q

What are the four most common indicators, or cardinal signs, of acute inflammation?

a) Itching, numbness, tingling, and discoloration

b) Redness, heat, pain, and swelling

c) Dryness, flakiness, cracking, and bruising

d) Fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and fever

A

b) Redness, heat, pain, and swelling

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53
Q

What initiates the inflammatory process?

a) Physical trauma
b) Chemical “alarm”
c) Bacterial infection
d) Immune response

A

b) Chemical “alarm”

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54
Q

What are examples of inflammatory chemicals released by damaged cells?

a) Antibodies and antigens
b) Histamine and kinins
c) Cytokines and interleukins
d) Hormones and enzymes

A

b) Histamine and kinins

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55
Q

What is the role of inflammatory chemicals like histamine and kinins?

a) They cause blood vessels in the area to dilate

b) They make capillaries leaky

c) They attract phagocytes and white blood cells to the area

d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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56
Q

What is positive chemotaxis? (best Answer)

a) Movement of cells away from a high concentration of signaling molecules

b) Movement of cells toward a high concentration of signaling molecules

c) Movement of cells toward a low concentration of signaling molecules

d) Movement of cells away from a low concentration of signaling molecules

A

b) Movement of cells toward a high concentration of signaling molecules

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57
Q

What effect does dilation of blood vessels have on the area of inflammation?

a) It decreases blood flow
b) It increases blood flow
c) It decreases redness and heat
d) It decreases pain

A

b) It increases blood flow

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58
Q

What causes the redness and heat observed in inflamed tissues?

a) Decreased blood flow
b) Increased blood flow
c) Decreased permeability of capillaries
d) Decreased fluid leakage

A

b) Increased blood flow

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59
Q

What happens due to increased permeability of capillaries during inflammation?

a) Fluid leaks from tissue spaces into the blood

b) Fluid leaks from blood into tissue spaces, causing swelling

c) Blood flow decreases

d) Blood viscosity increases

A

b) Fluid leaks from blood into tissue spaces, causing swelling

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60
Q

What is the result of local edema (swelling) in the inflamed area?

a) It decreases pressure in the tissues

b) It activates pain receptors

c) It decreases movement impairment

d) It accelerates healing

A

b) It activates pain receptors

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61
Q

How does temporary impairment of joint function aid healing?

a) By increasing movement
b) By forcing the injured part to rest
c) By increasing blood flow
d) By decreasing pain

A

b) By forcing the injured part to rest

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62
Q

What is considered by some authorities to be the fifth cardinal sign of inflammation?

a) Fatigue
b) Limitation of joint movement
c) Fever
d) Loss of appetite

A

b) Limitation of joint movement

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63
Q

What are the tasks accomplished by the inflammatory response?

a) Prevents the spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues

b) Disposes of cell debris and pathogens

c) All choices mentioned

d) Sets the stage for repair.

A

c) All choices mentioned

64
Q

What is the initial response of neutrophils to the inflammatory chemicals released at the site of tissue injury?

a) They remain stationary in the blood vessels

b) They roll along the blood vessel walls, following the scent

c) They immediately engulf foreign material

d) They release histamine

A

b) They roll along the blood vessel walls, following the scent

65
Q

What is the process called when neutrophils flatten out and squeeze through the capillary walls?

a) Phagocytosis
b) Diapedesis
c) Chemotaxis
d) Vasodilation

A

b) Diapedesis

66
Q

What guides neutrophils to the site of tissue injury?

a) Antibodies
b) Positive chemotaxis
c) Histamine
d) Blood platelets

A

b) Positive chemotaxis

67
Q

What is the primary activity of neutrophils at the site of tissue injury within an hour?

a) Releasing inflammatory chemicals
b) Secreting antibodies
c) Devouring foreign material
d) Increasing blood flow

A

c) Devouring foreign material

68
Q

What follows neutrophils into the inflamed area as the counterattack continues?

a) Red blood cells
b) Platelets
c) Monocytes
d) T cells

A

c) Monocytes

69
Q

What is the fate of monocytes after entering the tissues?

a) They become neutrophils
b) They become red blood cells
c) They become macrophages
d) They become T cells

A

c) They become macrophages

70
Q

What is the primary function of macrophages in the inflamed tissues?

a) Secreting antibodies
b) Releasing histamine
c) Engulfing cell debris
d) Increasing blood flow

A

c) Engulfing cell debris

71
Q

What role do macrophages play in the battle against inflammation?

a) They replace neutrophils at the site of damage
b) They release inflammatory chemicals
c) They increase blood clotting
d) They decrease blood flow

A

a) They replace neutrophils at the site of damage

72
Q

Besides phagocytosis, what other protective event occurs at the inflamed site?

a) Increased blood flow
b) Activation of clotting proteins
c) Release of histamine
d) Expansion of blood vessels

A

b) Activation of clotting proteins

73
Q

How do clotting proteins contribute to inflammation resolution?

a) They increase inflammation
b) They promote the spread of harmful agents
c) They wall off the damaged area with fibrin
d) They prevent the infiltration of immune cells

A

c) They wall off the damaged area with fibrin

74
Q

What is the role of the fibrin mesh formed during inflammation?

a) To increase inflammation
b) To promote the spread of harmful agents
c) To wall off the damaged area and provide scaffolding for repair
d) To decrease blood clotting

A

c) To wall off the damaged area and provide scaffolding for repair

75
Q

How does local heat contribute to the inflammatory response?

a) By slowing down metabolic rate of tissue cells

b) By decreasing defensive actions and repair processes

c) By increasing metabolic rate of tissue cells and speeding up defensive actions and repair processes

d) By preventing the adaptive response

A

c) By increasing metabolic rate of tissue cells and speeding up defensive actions and repair processes

76
Q

When does the adaptive response, mediated by lymphocytes, come into play during inflammation?

a) Only in the presence of pathogens

b) Only in the absence of pathogens

c) Regardless of the presence of pathogens

d) Only during the initial stages of inflammation

A

a) Only in the presence of pathogens

77
Q

What is the composition of pus?

a) Broken-down tissue cells
b) Dead or dying neutrophils,
c) Living and dead pathogens
d) Platelets and red blood cells

A

b) Dead or dying neutrophils,

78
Q

What may occur if the inflammatory mechanism fails to fully clear the area of debris?

a) Formation of scar tissue
b) Formation of blood clots
c) Formation of an abscess
d) Accelerated healing

A

c) Formation of an abscess

79
Q

What is often necessary for healing to occur if an abscess forms?

a) Administration of antibiotics
b) Application of topical creams
c) Surgical drainage of the abscess
d) Rest and hydration

A

c) Surgical drainage of the abscess

80
Q

What is an abscess?

a) A mixture of dead or dying neutrophils and tissue cells

b) A sac of pus that becomes walled off

c) A type of tissue repair

d) A formation of blood vessels

A

b) A sac of pus that becomes walled off

81
Q

What is the primary function of phagocytes in the body?

a) To produce antibodies
b) To release inflammatory chemicals
c) To engulf and digest foreign particles
d) To increase blood flow

A

c) To engulf and digest foreign particles

82
Q

Which process allows phagocytes to engulf foreign particles?

a) Exocytosis
b) Osmosis
c) Phagocytosis
d) Diffusion

A

c) Phagocytosis

83
Q

What happens to the foreign particle after it is engulfed by a phagocyte?

a) It is released back into the bloodstream
b) It is transported to the lymph nodes
c) It forms a protective barrier
d) It is digested inside a phagocytic vesicle

A

d) It is digested inside a phagocytic vesicle

84
Q

Where does the digestion of the engulfed particle occur within the phagocyte?

a) Golgi apparatus
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Lysosome
d) Nucleus

A

c) Lysosome

85
Q

Which of the following cells are examples of phagocytes?

a) Neutrophils
b) T cells
c) Macrophages
d) Platelets

A

a & c

86
Q

What is the primary function of antimicrobial proteins in enhancing innate defenses?

a) Promoting inflammation
b) Hindering their ability to reproduce
c) Attacking microorganisms directly
d) Enhancing adaptive immune responses

A

b & c

87
Q

Which two antimicrobial proteins are highlighted as the most important?

a) Histamine and lysozyme
b) Complement and interferon
c) Antibodies and cytokines
d) Neutrophils and macrophages

A

b) Complement and interferon

88
Q

What does the term “complement” refer to in the context of innate defenses?

a) A group of plasma proteins
b) A group of antibodies
c) A group of white blood cells
d) A group of clotting factors

A

a) A group of plasma proteins

89
Q

When does complement become activated?

a) When it circulates in an inactive state

b) When it binds to red blood cells

c) When it becomes attached to foreign cells

d) When it is exposed to air

A

c) When it becomes attached to foreign cells

90
Q

How does complement fixation occur?

a) When complement proteins bind to certain sugars or proteins on the surface of body cells

b) When complement proteins bind to histamine

c) When complement proteins bind to DNA

d) When complement proteins bind to certain sugars or proteins on the surface of foreign cells

A

d) When complement proteins bind to certain sugars or proteins on the surface of foreign cells

91
Q

What is a result of complement fixation?

a) Inhibition of inflammation
b) Activation of foreign cells
c) Formation of membrane attack complexes (MAC)
d) Increase in cell size

A

c) Formation of membrane attack complexes (MAC)

92
Q

How do membrane attack complexes (MAC) affect foreign cells?

a) They cause cells to shrink
b) They allow water to rush out of the cell
c) They produce holes or pores in the cell’s surface
d) They stimulate cell division

A

c) They produce holes or pores in the cell’s surface

93
Q

What is the consequence of the pores produced by membrane attack complexes (MAC) in foreign cells?

a) They prevent water from entering the cell
b) They cause the cell to burst or lyse
c) They increase cell metabolism
d) They promote cell growth

A

b) They cause the cell to burst or lyse

94
Q

What is the term for the effect in which the cell membranes of foreign cells become sticky for easier phagocytosis?

a) Membrane attack complexes
b) Opsonization
c) Chemotaxis
d) Lysis

A

b) Opsonization

95
Q

Some of the molecules released during the activation process are ____

a) vasodilators
b) chemotaxis chemicals
c) none
d) both

A

d) both

96
Q

Why is complement activation regulated by a cascade?

a) To prevent accidental activation
b) To speed up the immune response
c) To increase the production of antibodies
d) To target specific pathogens

A

a) To prevent accidental activation

97
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary function of interferons in response to viral infections?

a) Facilitating ATP generation in infected cells

b) Inhibiting the synthesis of viral proteins

c) Enhancing the cellular machinery of infected cells

d) Promoting the spread of viruses to nearby cells

A

b) Inhibiting the synthesis of viral proteins

98
Q

What is the role of interferons in defending cells against viruses?

a) They directly attack virus-infected cells.

b) They stimulate the synthesis of viral proteins.

c) They interfere with the ability of viruses to multiply in healthy cells.

d) They enhance the production of ATP in infected cells.

A

c) They interfere with the ability of viruses to multiply in healthy cells.

99
Q

Which statement best and accurately describes the cellular machinery of viruses?

a) Viruses possess their own machinery for ATP generation.

b) Viruses lack the machinery to generate ATP or synthesize proteins.

c) Viruses rely on the host cell’s machinery for ATP generation and protein synthesis.

d) Viruses utilize interferons to generate ATP within host cells

A

c) Viruses rely on the host cell’s machinery for ATP generation and protein synthesis.

100
Q

How do interferons contribute to reducing the spread of viruses?

a) By diffusing to nearby cells and binding to their membrane receptors.

b) By promoting the synthesis of viral proteins within infected cells through diffusion

c) By facilitating the spread of viruses to neighboring cells

d) By inhibiting the synthesis of interferon receptors in healthy cells

A

a) By diffusing to nearby cells and binding to their membrane receptors.

101
Q

Which type of infections do interferons primarily assist in fighting?

a) Bacterial and fungal infections
b) Fungal infections only
c) Bacterial infections only
d) Viral infections

A

d) Viral infections

102
Q

What is the role of pyrogens in the context of fever?

a) They lower the body temperature.
b) They regulate the body’s thermostat.
c) They stimulate the hypothalamus to increase body temperature.
d) They inhibit the production of white blood cells.

A

c) They stimulate the hypothalamus to increase body temperature.

103
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating body temperature?

a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Amygdala
d) Brainstem

A

b) Hypothalamus

104
Q

Under normal conditions, what is the average body temperature set by the hypothalamus?

a) 35°C (95°F)
b) 36°C (96.8°F)
c) 37°C (98.6°F)
d) 38°C (100.4°F)

A

c) 37°C (98.6°F)

105
Q

What triggers the hypothalamus to reset the body’s temperature upward during fever?

a) Chemicals secreted by white blood cells
b) Pyrogens
c) Macrophages
d) A & B
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

106
Q

Fever is primarily a systemic response to:

a) Excessive water consumption
b) Sedentary lifestyle
c) Invading microorganisms
d) High atmospheric pressure

A

c) Invading microorganisms

107
Q

Why are high fevers considered dangerous for the body?

a) They cause dehydration.
b) They inhibit the production of white blood cells.
c) They scramble enzyme and protein structure.
d) They are the leading cause of death with over 78% reported cases within the population

A

c) They scramble enzyme and protein structure.

108
Q

How do fevers benefit the body?

a) By reducing the metabolic rate of tissue cells

b) By decreasing repair processes

c) By increasing the availability of iron and zinc to the body

d) By speeding up repair processes and making nutrients less available to bacteria

A

d) By speeding up repair processes and making nutrients less available to bacteria

109
Q

What role do the liver and spleen play during a fever?

a) They gather up excess heat.
b) They inhibit the production of enzymes.
c) They gather up iron and zinc, making them less available to bacteria.
d) They stimulate the hypothalamus to lower body temperature.

A

c) They gather up iron and zinc, making them less available to bacteria.

110
Q

Which statement accurately describes the effect of fever on bacterial multiplication?

a) Fever decreases the need for iron and zinc in bacteria.

b) Fever increases the availability of nutrients necessary for bacterial multiplication.

c) Fever decreases the availability of nutrients necessary for bacterial multiplication.

d) Fever has no effect on bacterial multiplication.

A

c) Fever decreases the availability of nutrients necessary for bacterial multiplication.

111
Q

How does fever impact the metabolic rate of tissue cells?

a) It slows down repair processes.

b) It has no effect on the metabolic rate.

c) It decreases the metabolic rate, speeding up the repair process

d) It increases the metabolic rate, speeding up repair processes.

A

d) It increases the metabolic rate, speeding up repair processes.

112
Q

What is the primary function of the immune response to a pathogen threat?

a) To decrease internal nonspecific defenses

b) To increase susceptibility to future infections

c) To eliminate pathogens with nearly equal precision

d) To reduce the production of specific antigens

A

c) To eliminate pathogens with nearly equal precision

113
Q

Which term best describes the initial exposure to an antigen?

a) Desensitization
b) Sensitization
c) Immunosuppression
d) Neutralization

A

b) Sensitization

114
Q

What is the role of inflammatory responses in the immune system’s defense mechanism?

a) To decrease protection against specific antigens

b) To eliminate nonspecific defenses

c) To reduce the body’s reaction to pathogens

d) To increase internal defenses in response to a threat

A

d) To increase internal defenses in response to a threat

115
Q

What happens to the body’s reaction upon subsequent exposures to the same antigen?

a) The reaction becomes less vigorous.
b) The body becomes more susceptible to infection.
c) The reaction remains the same.
d) The reaction becomes more vigorous.

A

d) The reaction becomes more vigorous.

116
Q

What is the primary function of the adaptive defense mechanism?

a) To recognize foreign molecules called antigens
b) To increase susceptibility to pathogens
c) To deactivate normal body cells
d) To induce malfunctions in the immune system

A

a) To recognize foreign molecules called antigens

117
Q

What is a disease that may result when the adaptive defense mechanism fails or malfunctions?

a) Cancer
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) AIDS
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

118
Q

What term is used to describe the adaptive defense mechanism’s recognition and destruction of foreign molecules?

a) Specific defense
b) Nonspecific defense
c) Inflammatory response
d) Hypersensitivity reaction

A

a) Specific defense

119
Q

The adaptive, or specific, defense
mechanism, is the body’s ___ line of defense

a) first
b) second
c) third
d) last

A

c) third

120
Q

What did the ancient Greeks observe regarding individuals who had suffered from a certain infectious disease?

a) They were likely to contract the same disease again.
b) They were immune to all diseases.
c) They were less likely to contract the same disease again.
d) They were more susceptible to other diseases.

A

c) They were less likely to contract the same disease again.

121
Q

When was the basis of immunity, as observed by the ancient Greeks, revealed?

a) In ancient times
b) In the late 1800s
c) In the Renaissance era
d) In the early 1900s

A

b) In the late 1800s

122
Q

What did animals surviving a serious bacterial infection have in their blood that protected them from future attacks by the same pathogen?

a) Unique proteins called antigens
b) Unique proteins called antibodies
c) Bacterial toxins
d) Viral RNA

A

b) Unique proteins called antibodies

123
Q

What term is now used to describe the unique proteins found in the blood that provide protection against future attacks by the same pathogen?

a) Pathogens
b) Antibodies
c) Antigens
d) Toxins

A

b) Antibodies

124
Q

What field of study was not established yet during the time of the ancient Greeks, but later became known as the study of immunity?

a) Virology
b) Microbiology
c) Immunology
d) Epidemiology

A

c) Immunology

125
Q

What was the initial exciting discovery regarding the injection of immune serum into animals that had not been exposed to a pathogen?

a) It caused severe allergic reactions in the recipient animals.

b) It resulted in immediate death of the recipient animals.

c) It provided protection against the pathogen.

d) It led to increased susceptibility to other diseases.

A

c) It provided protection against the pathogen.

126
Q

What was discovered in the mid-1900s regarding the injection of serum containing antibodies?

a) It always provided complete protection against diseases.

b) It never provided protection against diseases.

c) It sometimes failed to provide protection against diseases.

d) It increased the severity of diseases in the recipient animals.

A

c) It sometimes failed to provide protection against diseases.

127
Q

In cases where injection of serum containing antibodies did not provide immunity, what alternative method was found to be effective?

a) Injection of donor’s plasma
b) Injection of donor’s bone marrow
c) Injection of donor’s lymphocytes
d) Injection of donor’s red blood cells

A

c) Injection of donor’s lymphocytes

128
Q

What did the injection of the donor’s lymphocytes provide in terms of immunity?

a) Partial protection against diseases
b) No protection against diseases
c) Complete protection against diseases
d) Increased susceptibility to other diseases

A

c) Complete protection against diseases

129
Q

What did the mid-1900s discovery suggest about the nature of immunity provided by antibodies versus lymphocytes?

a) Antibodies were more effective than lymphocytes in providing immunity.

b) Lymphocytes were more effective than antibodies in providing immunity.

c) Both antibodies and lymphocytes were equally effective in providing immunity.

d) Antibodies and lymphocytes provided different mechanisms of immunity.

A

d) Antibodies and lymphocytes provided different mechanisms of immunity.

130
Q

What is meant by the term “antigen-specific” in the context of adaptive defense?

a) It reacts to any foreign substance in the body.

b) It recognizes and acts against particular pathogens or foreign substances.

c) It only targets pathogens found in specific body regions.

d) It reacts randomly to different pathogens.

A

b) It recognizes and acts against particular pathogens or foreign substances.

131
Q

What does it mean for immunity to be systemic?

a) It is limited to the initial infection site.

b) It affects only certain organs in the body.

c) It spreads throughout the entire body.

d) It is restricted to specific body regions.

A

c) It spreads throughout the entire body.

132
Q

What is a key characteristic of adaptive defense related to memory?

a) It forgets previous encounters with pathogens.

b) It reacts less vigorously upon subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.

c) It recognizes and mounts stronger attacks on previously encountered pathogens.

d) It reacts indiscriminately to all pathogens.

A

c) It recognizes and mounts stronger attacks on previously encountered pathogens.

133
Q

Which term describes the ability of adaptive defense to recognize and act against specific pathogens or foreign substances?

a) Antigenic diversity
b) Systemic response
c) Antigen specificity
d) Nonspecific immunity

A

c) Antigen specificity

134
Q

What is the primary protective factor in humoral immunity?

a) Living cells
b) Immune proteins
c) Virus-infected cells
d) Cancer cells

A

b) Immune proteins

135
Q

What term is used to describe the protective factor in cellular immunity?

a) Humors
b) Immune proteins
c) Living cells
d) Virus-infected cells

A

c) Living cells

136
Q

Which term refers to the presence of antibodies in the body’s fluids?

a) Cellular immunity
b) Humoral immunity
c) Antibody-mediated immunity
d) Cell-mediated immunity

A

b) Humoral immunity

137
Q

What are the cellular targets of the cellular arm of the adaptive defense system?

a) Cancer cells,
b) Virus-infected cells
c) Cells of foreign grafts
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

138
Q

What is another name for humoral immunity?

a) Cell-mediated immunity
b) Cellular immunity
c) Antibody-mediated immunity
d) Immune protein immunity

A

c) Antibody-mediated immunity

139
Q

What is another name for cellular immunity?

a) Cell-mediated immunity
b) Immunity
c) Antibody-mediated immunity
d) Immune protein immunity

A

a) Cell-mediated immunity

140
Q

True or False: Humoral immunity and Cell-mediated immunity do not overlap

A

False; they overlap

141
Q

How do lymphocytes directly act against their targets?

a) By producing antibodies
b) By lysing the foreign cells
c) By enhancing the inflammatory response
d) By releasing chemicals that activate other immune cells

A

b) By lysing the foreign cells

142
Q

How do lymphocytes indirectly act against their targets?

a) By producing antibodies
b) By lysing the foreign cells
c) By enhancing the inflammatory response
d) By releasing chemicals that activate other immune cells

A

c) By enhancing the inflammatory response

143
Q

What defines an antigen?

a) Its size and complexity
b) Its ability to provoke an immune response
c) Its lack of presence in the body
d) Its similarity to self-molecules

A

b) Its ability to provoke an immune response

144
Q

How are foreign antigens characterized in relation to the body?

a) Nonexistent
b) Self-molecules
c) Nonself
d) Endogenous

A

c) Nonself

145
Q

Among the listed substances, which type of molecule provokes the strongest immune responses?

a) Nucleic acids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Lipids
d) Proteins

A

d) Proteins

146
Q

What kinds of substances can act as antigens?

a) Only proteins
b) Only carbohydrates
c) Only nucleic acids
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

147
Q

What makes pollen grains and microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses antigenic?

a) Their small size
b) Their complex structure
c) Their presence in the environment
d) The foreign molecules present on their surfaces

A

d) The foreign molecules present on their surfaces

148
Q

What role does the immune system play in relation to self-antigens?

a) It ignores self-antigens completely.

b) It recognizes self-antigens as foreign.

c) It takes inventory of self-antigens and recognizes them as self.

d) It attacks self-antigens indiscriminately.

A

c) It takes inventory of self-antigens and recognizes them as self.

149
Q

Why do our bodies reject cells of transplanted organs or foreign grafts?

a) Because self-antigens trigger an immune response in the recipient.

b) Because self-antigens are recognized as foreign by the immune system.

c) Because the immune system ignores self-antigens.

d) Because the transplanted cells are compatible with the recipient’s body.

A

a) Because self-antigens trigger an immune response in the recipient.

150
Q

What measures are typically taken to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or foreign grafts?

a) Suppressing the recipient’s immune response

b) Enhancing the recipient’s immune response

c) Removing the recipient’s immune system

d) Administering antibiotics to the recipient

A

a) Suppressing the recipient’s immune response

151
Q

In what circumstances does autoimmune disease occur?

a) When the immune system fails to recognize self-antigens

b) When self-antigens trigger an immune response in the recipient

c) When transplanted organs or foreign grafts are accepted by the body

d) When the immune system recognizes self-antigens as foreign and attacks them

A

d) When the immune system recognizes self-antigens as foreign and attacks them

152
Q

What term describes small molecules that, when linked up with our own proteins, can trigger an immune response?

a) Immunogens
b) Hapten
c) Antigenoids
d) Complete antigens

A

b) Hapten

153
Q

How are haptens different from complete antigens?

a) Haptens are smaller in size.
b) Haptens cannot trigger an immune response on their own.
c) Haptens are always harmful to the body.
d) Haptens are found only in certain chemicals.

A

b) Haptens cannot trigger an immune response on their own.

154
Q

What is the primary characteristic of small molecules in relation to their antigenicity?

a) They are always antigenic.
b) They are never antigenic.
c) They become antigenic when linked up with our own proteins.
d) They are less likely to trigger an immune response.

A

c) They become antigenic when linked up with our own proteins.

155
Q

Besides drugs, where else are chemicals acting as haptens found?

a) In polluted environments
b) In animal fur
c) In household and industrial products
d) In dirty water sources
e) All of the above

A

c) In household and industrial products

ANAPHY - Finals (3 decks)

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