Ch 9 - Perinatal medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Pre-pregnancy care - couples often ask what they should do for optimum care: lifestyle (2), Supplement (1), Medication termination (3), Infectious diseases (3), Vitamin A (1)

A

Lifestyle - Smoking cessation also alc & drugs lol
Supplement - Folic acid; prevents neural tube defects
Medications - certain meds need to be stopped e.g. warfarin, retinoids, sodium valproate - becasue they are teratogenic
Infectious diseases - mainly avoid exposure e.g. miminise exposure to toxoplasmosis via avoiding consumption of undercooked meat, avoid listeria by not eating unpasteruised dairy products
Vit A - DONT eat liver as high in vit A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Screening tests for antenatal diagnosis: maternal blood (5)

A

Blood group & Abs - for rhesus and other incompatibilites
HIV
Hep B
Syphillus
Rubella
Down syndrome
Neural tube defects - raised maternal serum AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Screening tests for antenatal diagnosis: US screening (5)

A

Gestational age
Multiple pregnancies
Structural defects - pickup rate is getting better (70%)
Fetal growth (via abdo circum, head circum, femur length)
Oligohydramnios - reduced vol of amniotic fluid e.g. due to reduced urine production (poss absent kidneys) or PROM. this can result in pulmonary hypoplasia + facial deformities due to lack of protection from pressure (Potter syndrome)
Polyhydramnios - associated with maternal diabetes & structural GI abnormalities e.g. atresia in fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Techniques used for antenatal diagnosis: amniocentesis (2), Chorionic villus sampling (3) Preimplantation genetic diganosis (PGD)

A

amniocentesis (>15 weeks) - analyzes DNA & chromosome for genetic abnormalities, foetal infection
Chorionic villus sampling - (>10 weeks) chromosome/DNA analysis, fetal infection- PCR, enzyme analysis - errors of metabolism
PGD - if IVF allows genetic testing of embryo prior to implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pre-eclampsia - mangagement (1), complication (1)

A

Pre-term delivery due to potential of placental insufficiency/ IUGR & maternal stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Monitoring of growth-restricted fetus (in utero) (4)

A

measure growth parameters
biophysical profile - amniotic fluid, fetal movement
Doppler US of umbilical + MCA - absent or reveral of flow in umbilical artery during diastole has a high risk of hypoxic damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Main problems for the infant associated with multiple births (5)

A

Pre-term labour - avg gestation for twins = 37 weeks, triplets = 32 weeks & this is the main cause for perinatal mortality of multiple births
IUGR
Congenital abnormalities - twice as frequent, 4 times increased risk if monochorionic twins
Twin-Twin transfusion syndrome - only in monochorionic twins - can cause extreme preterm delivery, fetal death
Complicated deliveries - due to malpresentation of 2nd twin at vaginal delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maternal conditions: Diabetes mellitus - poorly controlled is associated with (4), foetal complications (3), neonatal problems (4)

A

Association - polyhydramnios, IUGR, unexplained fetal death, pre-eclampsia,
Fetal complications - congenital malformations e.g. cardiac malformations, sacral agenesis, IUGR, Macrosomia; fetal hyperglycaemia > increased insulin > excess growth promotion > shoulder dystocia/ asphyxia
Neonatal problems - Resp distress, HCM, hypoglycaemia, polycythaemia infant looks plethoric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maternal conditions: hyperthyroidism - effects on fetus/ neonate (4)

A

If mother has grave’s ciculating thyroid stimulating abs can cross placenta - hyperthyroid fetus!
May see goitre, fetal tachy (on CTG),
neonate - weight loss, HF, diarrhoea, exopthalmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SLE: fetal complications (3), neonatal lupus syndrome (2)

A

recurrent miscarriage
IUGR
Pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, pre term delivery
neonatal lupus syndrome (if anti Ro or La abs) - self limiting rash, rarely heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura - complications (1)

A

Maternal IgG crosses placenta and attacks fetal platelets > fetal thrombocytopenia: increases risk of: intracranial haemorrhage following birth trauma
should give these infants Iv Ig or platelet transfusion if acute bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome features (4)

A
thin upper lip
absent philtrum
epicanthal folds
saddle shaped nose
maxillay hypoplasia
strawberry naevus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Smoking - complications (4)

A

miscarriage, still birth, IUGR, reduced BW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drug abuse - general risks (2), cocaine (2), opiates (2), amphetamines (2)

A

Hep B/C, HIV risk
Cocaine - placental abruption, preterm delivery
opiates - prematurity + IUGR, seizures
amphetamines - GI + cerbral infarctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Potential adverse affects due to drugs given during labour

A

opiods - resp suppression at birth
epidural - maternal pyrexia
sedatives - may cause sedation, hypothermia
oxytocin & prostoglandin - hyperstim of uterus > fetal hypoxia (also small increase in Br levels post birth)
IV fluids - neonatl hyponatraemia - unless contain adequate sodium ofc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CMV: features (4)

A

common cause of childhood blindness & handicap
10% of infected neonates affected at birth - IUGR also thrombocytopenia, pneumonia, mental retardation .
(RCHEP - Retinitis, colitis, hepatitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis)

17
Q

Rubella - main complication

A

cataract

18
Q

Toxoplasmosis gondii: transmitted by (2), complications (3)

A

Raw/undercooked meat + cat faeces > retinopathy + cerebral calcfication + hydrocephalus

19
Q

Parvovirus - main complication

A

aplastic anemia

20
Q

Varicella zoster (chicken pox) Features (3), management (2)

A

F - skin scarring, ocular damage, digital dysplasia,
Vesicular rash 5 days before or 2 days after delivery
manage - VZIg + treat mother with acyclovir

21
Q

Syphilis - features (3)

A

Rash on soles of feet; hand + bone lesions > treat with penicillin

22
Q

APGAR score: 5 categories & list 0, 1, 2 (points)

A

Heart rate: 0, 100
resp effort: 0, gasping/irregular, regular strong cry
muscle tone: Flaccid, some limb flexion, Well flexed & active
reflex irritability: none, grimace, cry/cough
colour: blue, pink with blue extremities, pink

23
Q

Birth weights: macrosomic, normal, LBW, VLBW

What defines small for dates/gestational age? (1)

A

> 4.5 kg

  1. 5-4.5 kg
  2. 5-2.5kg
24
Q

Asymetrical growth restriction: define, pathophysiology, associations (3), prognosis (1)

A

Asymetrical - abdo circumfrence on lower centile than head. this happens when placenta provides insufficient nutrients LATE in pregnancy, such that BRAIN SPARED at expense of liver glycogen & skin fat.
Associations - uteroplacental dysfunction secondary to: maternal smoking, multiple pregnancies, pre-eclampsia
Prognosis - Fetus rapidly gains weight post natally

25
Q

Symmetrical growth restriction:

A

Symmetrical - head circum equally reduced, indicates PROLONGED period of poor intrauterine growth - starting in EARLY pregnancy
Causes - fetal chromosomal disorder/ syndrome
Congenital infection, maternal drug/alc abuse
Prognosis - likely to remain permanently small

26
Q

Complications/ issues after birth of growth restricted infants: (aemias)

A

Hypothermia - because of large SA
hypoglycaemia - from poor fat/glycogen stores
Hypocalcaemia
Polycythaemia

27
Q

Large for gestational age infants: defintion (1), assocations (2), complications (3)

A

BW > 90th centile
A - maternal diabetes or GDM, fetal syndrome e.g. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
C - birth asphyxia (due to diff delivery), trauma - shoulder dystocia, hypoglycaemia (due to hyperinsulinaemia), Polycythaemia

28
Q

Neonatal examination: testing for developmental dysplasia of the hip - barlow & ortalani manoeuvres

A

Barlow: stabilise pelvis > put middle finger on greater trochanter + thumb around distal femur > hold hip FLEXED + ADDUCTED > push femoral head downwards > if dislocates go on to ortalani manoeuvre
ortalani manoeuvre: apply upward leverage > dislocated hip pops back into acetabulum with a ‘clunk’

29
Q

Haemorrhagic disease of new born: causes (3), features (4), prevention (1)

A

C - vit K def, solely breast fed (no vit K - high in formula milk), maternal anticonvulsant therapy (inhibits coagulating factors), neonatal liver disease
F - haematemesis, bruising, malaena, prolonged bleeding from umbiilical stump or after circumcision. If severe can cause intracranial haemorrhage > death/disability in 50%
Prevention - IM vit K for all neonates

30
Q

Guithre test (biochem screening)

A

Performed on day 5-9 via heel prick, screening for:
PKU (phe levels)
CF (look for immunoreactive trypsin - raised if pancreatic duct obstruction)
MCAD - rare mitochondrial defect in fatty acid metabolism, so if fast > hyopglycaemia (life threatening)
Hypothyroidism
Haemoglobinopathies

31
Q

New born hearing screening: EOAE & AABR

A

Evoked otoacoustic emission (EOAE) test: earphone placed over ear > sound emitted > evokes an echo from ear IF normal cochlear function. If abnormal > Automated auditory brainstem response (AABR) > computer analysis of EEG waveforms in response to series of clicks

32
Q

Port wine stain: association with a syndrome (1), management (1)

A

Present from birth + grows with infant
Rarely may be assocaiated with vascular anomalies - Sturge-Weber syndrome or sevrere lesions on the limbs with bone hypertrophy (Klippel Trenauanay syndrome)
M - disfiguring lesions can be treated with laser

33
Q

Strawberry naevus: describe + indications for management (2)

A

A cavernous haemangioma - will see a raised red lesion > common in pre term. Regresses after 15 months
Treat if obstructing vision/ airway e.g. steroids, laser

34
Q

Heart murmur: what to do if hear one (3)

A

Most resolve spontaneously, may indicate congenital heart disease.
Do upper + lower limb BP, pulse ox, advise on cyanosis + poor feeding + arrange follow up