Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exercise Science > Ch. 8 - 12 Review > Flashcards

Ch. 8 - 12 Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

During the closing seconds of a basketball game, an athlete’s team is down by one point and he has been awarded two free throw shots. The player is apprehensive about the outcome of the game. Which of the following best describes the athlete’s situation?
a. He will not be able to make the free throws.
b. He is experiencing state anxiety.
c. He is in control of his arousal.
d. His anxiety will improve his
performance.

A

b. He is experiencing state anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An Olympic weight lifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to con- centrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise?

a. selective attention
b. somatic anxiety
c. successive approximation
d. dissociation

A

a. selective attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prior to performing the long jump, an athlete reviews and concentrates on the technique required to jump as far as possible. Which of the following strategies is the athlete using to prepare for the jump?

a. focus on task-relevant cues
b. reliance on experience
c. association
d. trait anxiety

A

a. focus on task-relevant cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which of the following is MOST important to
achieve the ideal performance state?
a. fear of failure
b. analyzing performance
c. broad focus on the activity and the
environment
d. personal control
A

d. personal control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An athlete’s desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of

a. the motive to avoid failure.
b. dissociation.
c. intrinsic motivation.
d. achievement motivation.

A

c. intrinsic motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of

a. negative reinforcement.
b. positive reinforcement.
c. negative punishment.
d. positive punishment.

A

b. positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Howdoesanathlete’soptimallevelofarousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity?

a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It has no effect.
d. It is not related to the activity.

A

b. it decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All of the following are ingredients that qualify as dietary supplements in the United States EXCEPT

a. EAAs.
b. vitamin C.
c. milk.
d. iodine.

A

c. milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Allofthefollowingdescribecaffeine’srolein improving athletic performance EXCEPT

a. increased power production.
b. decreased glycogen depletion.
c. increased fat oxidation.
d. decreased urine production.

A

d. decreased urine production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following are the MOST closely linked in a logarithmic relationship?
I. intake of anabolic steroids
II. intake of androstenedione
III. increase in lean body mass
IV. increase in endogenous androgen
production
A

I & III
Intake of anabolic steroids
Increase in lean body mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following substances has been shown by multiple research studies to improve strength performance?

a. androstenedione
b. creatine
c. L-carnitine
d. chromium

A

b. creatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythro- poietin use?

a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease.
b. It may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production.
c. Resistance to infectious disease may be impaired.
d. It may reduce the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

A

b. it may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following proteins has an amino acid profile MOST similar to the body’s needs?

a. soy
b. egg
c. wheat
d. rice

A

b. egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following BEST explains the requirement for increased protein intake by athletes?

a. decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise
b. increased need for tissue repair
c. restriction of calories to lose weight
d. the quality of protein consumed

A

b. increased need for tissue repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an athlete’s dietary carbohydrate requirement?

a. current average daily fat intake
b. body size and body fat percentage
c. type, duration, and frequency of exercise
d. resting blood sugar levels

A

c. type, duration and frequency of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following BEST describes dietary
fat consumption?
a. It should be less than 15% of total calories for healthy athletes.
b. It should never be higher than 40% of total calories.
c. Its restriction can be harmful to health and performance.
d. It is not an essential nutrient.

A

c. its restriction can be harmful to health and performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

a. normal body weight
b. very low dietary fat intake
c. preoccupation with food
d. secretive eating

A

c. preoccupation with food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should
a. monitor the athlete’s daily food intake.
b. require frequent weigh-ins.
c. encourage further assessment by an
eating disorder specialist.
d. provide nutritional information.

A

c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal.

A

State Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A personality characteristic, which represents a latent disposition to perceive situations as threatening.

A

Trait Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Type of anxiety where the more an athlete experiences it, the worse their performance gets, especially when performance depends on complex decision making

A

Cognitive Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Relatively uncontrolled physiological arousal, which is influenced by cognitive anxiety, but can increase performance unless the cognitive anxiety is significant.

A

Somatic Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A continuum of psychological intensity that is not manifested as apprehension and uncertainty, but rather as a sense of activation and focus - usually positively related to sports performance unless complex decision-making tasks are involved that require lower levels of psychological arousal.

A

Psychic Arousal or Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A psychological neural intensity dimension of physical arousal. Extreme levels aid activities requiring heightened energy metabolism, especially those relying primarily on the ATP-creatine phosphate and glycolytic pathways.

A

Physiological arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

-Any disruption from homeostasis or mental and physical calm.
Negative - _________
Positive - _________

A

STRESS
Negative - DISTRESS
Positive - EUSTRESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The ability to focus _________ on task-relevant cues and to control distraction is a skill that can be ________.

A

Attention

(can be) Learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Level of focus referring to the suppression of task-irrelevant stimuli and thoughts.

A

Selective Attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

____ _______ _____ - Relevant & irrelevant cues come to the athlete’s awareness.
________ ______ ______ - The athlete experiences more focus because of the exclusion of task-irrelevant cues.
____ _____ ______ _____ - The athlete may not notice task-relevant cues.

A

Low Arousal Level - (relevant & irrelevant)
Moderate Arousal Level - (more focused)
Too High Arousal Level - (miss relevant cues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(Attentional Styles) Ability to effectively manage many environmental stimuli simultaneously

A

Broad External Attentional Focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(Attentional Styles) Tendency to be confused because of the intake of too many stimuli.

A

Overloaded by External Stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(Attentional Styles) Ability to effectively manage many internal stimuli (autonomic response, convert thoughts, etc.).

A

Broad Internal Attentional Focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(Attentional Styles) Tendency to be confused because of the intake of too many stimuli.

A

Overloaded by Internal Stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(Attentional Styles) Ability to effectively narrow attention.

A

Narrow Attentional Focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(Attentional Styles) Tendency to reduce attention so that task-relevant information is lost.

A

Reduced Attentional Focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ideal performance state is characterized by a “______ _____”

A

“Quiet Mind”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Desire to be competent and self-determining.

A

Intrinsic Motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Athlete’s wish to engage in competition or social comparison.

A

Achievement Motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Athletes with high achievement motivation will be ________ athletes because they have an appetite for competition.

A

achievement motivation = BETTER athletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Trying to increase the probability of occurrence of a behavior by following it with praise or an action or object that is positive.

A

Positive Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Trying to increase the probability of occurrence of a behavior by removing an act, object, or event that is aversive.

A

Negative Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

___________ should be used sparingly.

A

Punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

_________ reinforcement aids focus on task-relevant cues

A

POSITIVE reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Influence of arousal on performance - (graphing shape)

A

Inverted-U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Different people perform best with very different levels of arousal.

A

Optimal Functioning Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When increases in physiological arousal occur in the presence of cognitive anxiety, a sudden drop in performance occurs.

A

Catastrophe Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Perceived self-confidence about a given task in a specific situation may be a better predictor to ask execution than either arousal or anxiety.

A

Self-Efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Goals over whose achievement the athlete has control.

A

Process Goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Goals over which the athlete has little control (winning).

A

Outcome Goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Goals that are relatively close to the athlete’s present ability and increase likelihood of overall success.

A

Short-Term Goals

50
Q

Provide relevance to short-term goals

A

Long-Term Goals

51
Q

Series of alternate muscular tensing and relaxing phases.

Learns to become aware of somatic tension and thereby control it.

A

Progressive Muscular Relaxation

52
Q

The PMR cycle for each muscle group is replaced with an attentional state that focuses on the sense of warmth and heaviness for a particular limb or muscle group.

A

Autogenic Training

53
Q

The cognitive psychological skill in which the athlete uses all the senses to create a mental experience of an athletic performance.

A

Mental Imagery

54
Q

An induced state of hypersuggestibility in which positive suggestions relating to an athlete’s performance potential can be planted in the subconscious mind.

A

Hypnosis

55
Q

A hybrid of cognitive and somatic techniques that allows an athlete to replace a fear response to various cues with a relaxation response.

A

Systematic Desensitization

56
Q

Any substance, mechanical aid, or training method that improves sport performance.

A

Ergogenic Aid

57
Q

The synthetic (man-made) derivatives of the male sex hormone, testosterone.

A

Anabolic Steroids

58
Q

The ergogenic benefits of steroids are muscle mass and strength due to increased _________ ________.

A

Protein Synthesis

59
Q

Psychological effects of anabolic steroid use.

_________, _________ and ________ - “____ ____”

A

Aggression, arousal and irritability - “roid rage”

60
Q

(3) Cardiovascular side effects of anabolic steroids

A

Lipid Change
Elevated Blood Pressure
Decreased Myocardial Function

61
Q

Genitourinary side effects of anabolic steroids (2 for males/3 for females)

A

Males - Decreased sperm count and testicular size

Females - Menstrual irregularities, clitoromegaly and masculinization

62
Q

(2) dermatological side effects of anabolic steroids

A

Acne and Male Patter Baldness

63
Q

Hepatic side effects of anabolic steroids

A

Increased risk of liver tumors and liver damage.

64
Q

(3) Musculoskeletal side effects of anabolic steroids.

A

Premature epiphyseal plate closure
Increased risk of tendon tears
Intramuscular abscess

65
Q

(4) Psychological side effects of anabolic steroids.

A

Mania
Depression
Aggression
Mood Swings

66
Q

__________ _________ (prohormones) may not lead to performance changes, but there is a ________ risk for adverse side effects.

A

Testosterone Precursors - HIGHER risk

67
Q

HCG can increase testosterone production in men. (what is HCG?)

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

68
Q

Another hormone that increases protein synthesis, but can cause fatal hypoglycemia side effects

A

Insulin

69
Q

Main side effect of HGH

A

Acromegaly

70
Q

EPO

A

Erythropoietin

71
Q

(4) Health risks of EPO injections.

A

Blood Clotting
Elevations in Systolic Pressure
Compromised Thermoregularity System
Dehydration

72
Q

HMB

A

Hydroxy-Methylbutyrate

73
Q

Hydroxy-Methylbutyrate has both ________ and ________ effects.

A

Anabolic and Lipolytic effects

74
Q

The ability to rapidly rephosphorylate ADP is dependent upon the enzyme _________ _______ and the availability of _______ __________ within the muscle.

A

Creatine Kinase

Creatine Phosphate

75
Q

Ephedrine is only effective in combination with _________.

A

caffeine

76
Q

Three important classes of macronutrients.

A

Protein, carbohydrates and lipids

77
Q

High quality (complete) protein contains an adequate proportion of ________ ______ _____.

A

essential amino acids

78
Q

Protein requirements - . g/kg (_.__ g/pound)

A
  1. 8 g/kg

0. 36 g/pound

79
Q

Daily Recommended Intake for men and women.

A

38 g/day for men

25 g/day for women

80
Q

Carbs should account for __% to __% of total daily calories

A

50% to 55%

81
Q

Long duration aerobic endurance athletes require __ to __ g/kg of body weight in carbohydrates per day.

A

8 to 10 g/kg of body weight

82
Q

Lipids (fat) requirements…

A
83
Q

Of the daily required lipids (30% of calories), 2/3 should be ____________ and 1/3 __________

A

2/3 monounsaturated (20%)

1/3 saturated (10%)

84
Q

Two primary types of micronutrients.

A

Vitamins & Minerals

85
Q

1 _____ of weight lost during practice represents 1 _____ of fluid loss

A

1 pound lost represents 1 pint lost

86
Q

The major electrolytes lost in sweat are _______ _______ and, to a lesser extent, _________.

A

Sodium Chloride

Potassium (lesser)

87
Q

During training, athletes should drink _ to _ ounces every __ mins.

A

6 to 8 ounces every 15 minutes

88
Q

Athletes should eat _ to _ hours before training or competition

A

3 to 4 hours before

89
Q

About _____ extra kilocalories are required for each 1-pound increase in lean tissue

A

2,500 extra kilocalories for each 1-pound lean tissue

90
Q

Deficit of ______ kcal results in 1lb fat loss

A

3,500 kcal for alb of fat

91
Q

The most important goal for weight loss is to achieve a _______ _______ _______.

A

Negative Calorie Balance

92
Q

First case of eating disorder was ___ years ago

A

300 years ago

93
Q

Four steps of eating disorder management and care.

A

Fact Finding
Confronting
Referring
Following Up

94
Q

The most important characteristic of testing.

A

Validity

95
Q

The ability of a test to represent the underlying theory.

A

Construct validity

96
Q

The test appears to casual observers to measure what it is supposed to measure.

A

Face validity

97
Q

Expert assessment that the test covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities.

A

Content validity

98
Q

The extent to which test scores with scores on a different test of the same ability

A

Criterion-Referenced validity

99
Q

A measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test.

A

Reliability

100
Q

The lack of consistent performance by the person tested.

A

Intrasubject Variability

101
Q

The degree to which different raters agree

A

Interrater Reliability

102
Q

The last of consistent scores by a given tester.

A

Intrarater Variability

103
Q

The more similar the test is to an important movement in the sport, the better.

A

Biomechanics Movement Pattern Specificity

104
Q

Allow _ to _ minutes of rest between attempt that are NOT close to the athlete’s maximum

A

2 to 3 mins of rest

105
Q

Allow _ to _ minutes of rest between attempts that are close to the athlete’s maximum

A

3 to 5 mins of rest

106
Q

Sequence of tests (7)

A 
Nonfatiguing
Agility
Max Power
Sprint
Local Muscle Endurance
Fatiguing anaerobic capacity
Aerobic capacity
107
Q

Speed tests are not usually conducted over _____

A

200m

108
Q

Margaria-Kalamen Test

A

Sprint to the stairs, then up the stairs 3 at a time - calculates power in watts

109
Q

A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscu- lar power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power?

a. vertical jump
b. 1RM bench press
c. 5RM squat
d. 100 m (109-yard) sprint

A

a. vertical jump

110
Q

When measuring maximal strength of an American football lineman, which of the fol- lowing could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results?
I. using multiple testers
II. retesting at a different time of day
III. an athlete’s inexperience with the tested exercise
IV. using an established testing protocol

A

I, II and III
multiple testers
retest at different times of day
athlete’s inexperience with the tested exercise

111
Q

Allofthefollowingproceduresshouldbefol- lowed when testing an athlete’s cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT

a. perform the test in an indoor facility.
b. use salt tablets to retain water.
c. schedule the test in the morning.
d. drink fluids during the test.

A

b. use salt tablets to retain water

112
Q

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10 m (11- yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions?

a. quarterback
b. defensive back
c. wide receiver
d. defensive lineman

A

d. defensive lineman

113
Q

Whichofthefollowingsequenceswillproduce the MOST reliable results?

  1. T-test
  2. 1RM bench press
  3. 1RM power clean
  4. 1-minute sit-up test
    a. 3, 1, 4, 2
    b. 1, 3, 2, 4
    c. 4, 2, 1, 3
    d. 2, 3, 1, 4
A 
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
T-test
1RM Power Clean
1RM Bench Press
1-min sit-up test
114
Q

Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maxi- mal power output achieved during activity lasting

a. less than 10 seconds.
b. 30 to 90 seconds.
c. 2 to 3 minutes.
d. longer than 5 minutes.

A

b. 30 to 90 seconds

115
Q

All of the following tests are used to measure maximum muscular power EXCEPT the

a. Margaria-Kalamen test.
b. vertical jump.
c. 40-yard (37 m) sprint.
d. 1RM power clean.

A

c. 40-yrd sprint

116
Q 
Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test?
I. hamstrings
II. erector spinae
III. lumbar spine 
IV. hip flexors
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II, and III only 
d. II, III, and IV only
A

c. I, II and III
Hamstrings
Erector Spinae
Lumbar Spine

117
Q

Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified (see figure 12.7)?

a. touching the base of cone D
b. shuffling from cone C to cone D
c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C
d. running forward from cone A to cone B

A

c. crossing the feet from B to C

118
Q

Which of the following is the correct arm posi- tion when measuring the girth of the upper arm?
a. neutral shoulder with elbow flexed to 90 degrees
b. elbow extended with forearm pronated
c. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with
elbow extended
d. elbow flexed to 90 degrees with forearm
supinated

A

c. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended

119
Q 
Ofthelocationsmeasuredinthe3-siteskinfold protocols, which of the following are only measured on women?
I. thigh
II. suprailiac
III. abdomen 
IV. triceps
A

II and IV

Suprailiac & Tricept

120
Q

When compiling results from the volleyball team’s vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group?

a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. variance

A

b. median

Exercise Science (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions