Ch. 8 - 12 Review Flashcards

1
Q

During the closing seconds of a basketball game, an athlete’s team is down by one point and he has been awarded two free throw shots. The player is apprehensive about the outcome of the game. Which of the following best describes the athlete’s situation?
a. He will not be able to make the free throws.
b. He is experiencing state anxiety.
c. He is in control of his arousal.
d. His anxiety will improve his
performance.

A

b. He is experiencing state anxiety.

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2
Q

An Olympic weight lifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to con- centrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise?

a. selective attention
b. somatic anxiety
c. successive approximation
d. dissociation

A

a. selective attention

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3
Q

Prior to performing the long jump, an athlete reviews and concentrates on the technique required to jump as far as possible. Which of the following strategies is the athlete using to prepare for the jump?

a. focus on task-relevant cues
b. reliance on experience
c. association
d. trait anxiety

A

a. focus on task-relevant cues

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4
Q
Which of the following is MOST important to
achieve the ideal performance state?
a. fear of failure
b. analyzing performance
c. broad focus on the activity and the
environment
d. personal control
A

d. personal control

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5
Q

An athlete’s desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of

a. the motive to avoid failure.
b. dissociation.
c. intrinsic motivation.
d. achievement motivation.

A

c. intrinsic motivation

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6
Q

For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of

a. negative reinforcement.
b. positive reinforcement.
c. negative punishment.
d. positive punishment.

A

b. positive reinforcement

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7
Q

Howdoesanathlete’soptimallevelofarousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity?

a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It has no effect.
d. It is not related to the activity.

A

b. it decreases

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8
Q

All of the following are ingredients that qualify as dietary supplements in the United States EXCEPT

a. EAAs.
b. vitamin C.
c. milk.
d. iodine.

A

c. milk

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9
Q

Allofthefollowingdescribecaffeine’srolein improving athletic performance EXCEPT

a. increased power production.
b. decreased glycogen depletion.
c. increased fat oxidation.
d. decreased urine production.

A

d. decreased urine production

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10
Q
Which of the following are the MOST closely linked in a logarithmic relationship?
I. intake of anabolic steroids
II. intake of androstenedione
III. increase in lean body mass
IV. increase in endogenous androgen
production
A

I & III
Intake of anabolic steroids
Increase in lean body mass

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11
Q

Which of the following substances has been shown by multiple research studies to improve strength performance?

a. androstenedione
b. creatine
c. L-carnitine
d. chromium

A

b. creatine

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12
Q

Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythro- poietin use?

a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease.
b. It may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production.
c. Resistance to infectious disease may be impaired.
d. It may reduce the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

A

b. it may cause an unregulated increase in RBC production

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13
Q

Which of the following proteins has an amino acid profile MOST similar to the body’s needs?

a. soy
b. egg
c. wheat
d. rice

A

b. egg

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14
Q

Which of the following BEST explains the requirement for increased protein intake by athletes?

a. decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise
b. increased need for tissue repair
c. restriction of calories to lose weight
d. the quality of protein consumed

A

b. increased need for tissue repair

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15
Q

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an athlete’s dietary carbohydrate requirement?

a. current average daily fat intake
b. body size and body fat percentage
c. type, duration, and frequency of exercise
d. resting blood sugar levels

A

c. type, duration and frequency of exercise

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16
Q

Which of the following BEST describes dietary
fat consumption?
a. It should be less than 15% of total calories for healthy athletes.
b. It should never be higher than 40% of total calories.
c. Its restriction can be harmful to health and performance.
d. It is not an essential nutrient.

A

c. its restriction can be harmful to health and performance

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17
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

a. normal body weight
b. very low dietary fat intake
c. preoccupation with food
d. secretive eating

A

c. preoccupation with food

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18
Q

When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should
a. monitor the athlete’s daily food intake.
b. require frequent weigh-ins.
c. encourage further assessment by an
eating disorder specialist.
d. provide nutritional information.

A

c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist

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19
Q

The experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal.

A

State Anxiety

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20
Q

A personality characteristic, which represents a latent disposition to perceive situations as threatening.

A

Trait Anxiety

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21
Q

Type of anxiety where the more an athlete experiences it, the worse their performance gets, especially when performance depends on complex decision making

A

Cognitive Anxiety

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22
Q

Relatively uncontrolled physiological arousal, which is influenced by cognitive anxiety, but can increase performance unless the cognitive anxiety is significant.

A

Somatic Anxiety

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23
Q

A continuum of psychological intensity that is not manifested as apprehension and uncertainty, but rather as a sense of activation and focus - usually positively related to sports performance unless complex decision-making tasks are involved that require lower levels of psychological arousal.

A

Psychic Arousal or Energy

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24
Q

A psychological neural intensity dimension of physical arousal. Extreme levels aid activities requiring heightened energy metabolism, especially those relying primarily on the ATP-creatine phosphate and glycolytic pathways.

A

Physiological arousal

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25
-Any disruption from homeostasis or mental and physical calm. Negative - _________ Positive - _________
STRESS Negative - DISTRESS Positive - EUSTRESS
26
The ability to focus _________ on task-relevant cues and to control distraction is a skill that can be ________.
Attention | (can be) Learned
27
Level of focus referring to the suppression of task-irrelevant stimuli and thoughts.
Selective Attention
28
____ _______ _____ - Relevant & irrelevant cues come to the athlete's awareness. ________ ______ ______ - The athlete experiences more focus because of the exclusion of task-irrelevant cues. ____ _____ ______ _____ - The athlete may not notice task-relevant cues.
Low Arousal Level - (relevant & irrelevant) Moderate Arousal Level - (more focused) Too High Arousal Level - (miss relevant cues)
29
(Attentional Styles) Ability to effectively manage many environmental stimuli simultaneously
Broad External Attentional Focus
30
(Attentional Styles) Tendency to be confused because of the intake of too many stimuli.
Overloaded by External Stimuli
31
(Attentional Styles) Ability to effectively manage many internal stimuli (autonomic response, convert thoughts, etc.).
Broad Internal Attentional Focus
32
(Attentional Styles) Tendency to be confused because of the intake of too many stimuli.
Overloaded by Internal Stimuli
33
(Attentional Styles) Ability to effectively narrow attention.
Narrow Attentional Focus
34
(Attentional Styles) Tendency to reduce attention so that task-relevant information is lost.
Reduced Attentional Focus
35
The ideal performance state is characterized by a "______ _____"
"Quiet Mind"
36
Desire to be competent and self-determining.
Intrinsic Motivation
37
Athlete's wish to engage in competition or social comparison.
Achievement Motivation
38
Athletes with high achievement motivation will be ________ athletes because they have an appetite for competition.
achievement motivation = BETTER athletes
39
Trying to increase the probability of occurrence of a behavior by following it with praise or an action or object that is positive.
Positive Reinforcement
40
Trying to increase the probability of occurrence of a behavior by removing an act, object, or event that is aversive.
Negative Reinforcement
41
___________ should be used sparingly.
Punishment
42
_________ reinforcement aids focus on task-relevant cues
POSITIVE reinforcement
43
Influence of arousal on performance - (graphing shape)
Inverted-U
44
Different people perform best with very different levels of arousal.
Optimal Functioning Theory
45
When increases in physiological arousal occur in the presence of cognitive anxiety, a sudden drop in performance occurs.
Catastrophe Theory
46
Perceived self-confidence about a given task in a specific situation may be a better predictor to ask execution than either arousal or anxiety.
Self-Efficacy
47
Goals over whose achievement the athlete has control.
Process Goals
48
Goals over which the athlete has little control (winning).
Outcome Goals
49
Goals that are relatively close to the athlete's present ability and increase likelihood of overall success.
Short-Term Goals
50
Provide relevance to short-term goals
Long-Term Goals
51
Series of alternate muscular tensing and relaxing phases. | Learns to become aware of somatic tension and thereby control it.
Progressive Muscular Relaxation
52
The PMR cycle for each muscle group is replaced with an attentional state that focuses on the sense of warmth and heaviness for a particular limb or muscle group.
Autogenic Training
53
The cognitive psychological skill in which the athlete uses all the senses to create a mental experience of an athletic performance.
Mental Imagery
54
An induced state of hypersuggestibility in which positive suggestions relating to an athlete's performance potential can be planted in the subconscious mind.
Hypnosis
55
A hybrid of cognitive and somatic techniques that allows an athlete to replace a fear response to various cues with a relaxation response.
Systematic Desensitization
56
Any substance, mechanical aid, or training method that improves sport performance.
Ergogenic Aid
57
The synthetic (man-made) derivatives of the male sex hormone, testosterone.
Anabolic Steroids
58
The ergogenic benefits of steroids are muscle mass and strength due to increased _________ ________.
Protein Synthesis
59
Psychological effects of anabolic steroid use. | _________, _________ and ________ - "____ ____"
Aggression, arousal and irritability - "roid rage"
60
(3) Cardiovascular side effects of anabolic steroids
Lipid Change Elevated Blood Pressure Decreased Myocardial Function
61
Genitourinary side effects of anabolic steroids (2 for males/3 for females)
Males - Decreased sperm count and testicular size | Females - Menstrual irregularities, clitoromegaly and masculinization
62
(2) dermatological side effects of anabolic steroids
Acne and Male Patter Baldness
63
Hepatic side effects of anabolic steroids
Increased risk of liver tumors and liver damage.
64
(3) Musculoskeletal side effects of anabolic steroids.
Premature epiphyseal plate closure Increased risk of tendon tears Intramuscular abscess
65
(4) Psychological side effects of anabolic steroids.
Mania Depression Aggression Mood Swings
66
__________ _________ (prohormones) may not lead to performance changes, but there is a ________ risk for adverse side effects.
Testosterone Precursors - HIGHER risk
67
HCG can increase testosterone production in men. (what is HCG?)
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
68
Another hormone that increases protein synthesis, but can cause fatal hypoglycemia side effects
Insulin
69
Main side effect of HGH
Acromegaly
70
EPO
Erythropoietin
71
(4) Health risks of EPO injections.
Blood Clotting Elevations in Systolic Pressure Compromised Thermoregularity System Dehydration
72
HMB
Hydroxy-Methylbutyrate
73
Hydroxy-Methylbutyrate has both ________ and ________ effects.
Anabolic and Lipolytic effects
74
The ability to rapidly rephosphorylate ADP is dependent upon the enzyme _________ _______ and the availability of _______ __________ within the muscle.
Creatine Kinase | Creatine Phosphate
75
Ephedrine is only effective in combination with _________.
caffeine
76
Three important classes of macronutrients.
Protein, carbohydrates and lipids
77
High quality (complete) protein contains an adequate proportion of ________ ______ _____.
essential amino acids
78
Protein requirements - _._ g/kg (_.__ g/pound)
0. 8 g/kg | 0. 36 g/pound
79
Daily Recommended Intake for men and women.
38 g/day for men | 25 g/day for women
80
Carbs should account for __% to __% of total daily calories
50% to 55%
81
Long duration aerobic endurance athletes require __ to __ g/kg of body weight in carbohydrates per day.
8 to 10 g/kg of body weight
82
Lipids (fat) requirements...
83
Of the daily required lipids (30% of calories), 2/3 should be ____________ and 1/3 __________
2/3 monounsaturated (20%) | 1/3 saturated (10%)
84
Two primary types of micronutrients.
Vitamins & Minerals
85
1 _____ of weight lost during practice represents 1 _____ of fluid loss
1 pound lost represents 1 pint lost
86
The major electrolytes lost in sweat are _______ _______ and, to a lesser extent, _________.
Sodium Chloride | Potassium (lesser)
87
During training, athletes should drink _ to _ ounces every __ mins.
6 to 8 ounces every 15 minutes
88
Athletes should eat _ to _ hours before training or competition
3 to 4 hours before
89
About _____ extra kilocalories are required for each 1-pound increase in lean tissue
2,500 extra kilocalories for each 1-pound lean tissue
90
Deficit of ______ kcal results in 1lb fat loss
3,500 kcal for alb of fat
91
The most important goal for weight loss is to achieve a _______ _______ _______.
Negative Calorie Balance
92
First case of eating disorder was ___ years ago
300 years ago
93
Four steps of eating disorder management and care.
Fact Finding Confronting Referring Following Up
94
The most important characteristic of testing.
Validity
95
The ability of a test to represent the underlying theory.
Construct validity
96
The test appears to casual observers to measure what it is supposed to measure.
Face validity
97
Expert assessment that the test covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities.
Content validity
98
The extent to which test scores with scores on a different test of the same ability
Criterion-Referenced validity
99
A measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test.
Reliability
100
The lack of consistent performance by the person tested.
Intrasubject Variability
101
The degree to which different raters agree
Interrater Reliability
102
The last of consistent scores by a given tester.
Intrarater Variability
103
The more similar the test is to an important movement in the sport, the better.
Biomechanics Movement Pattern Specificity
104
Allow _ to _ minutes of rest between attempt that are NOT close to the athlete's maximum
2 to 3 mins of rest
105
Allow _ to _ minutes of rest between attempts that are close to the athlete's maximum
3 to 5 mins of rest
106
Sequence of tests (7)
``` Nonfatiguing Agility Max Power Sprint Local Muscle Endurance Fatiguing anaerobic capacity Aerobic capacity ```
107
Speed tests are not usually conducted over _____
200m
108
Margaria-Kalamen Test
Sprint to the stairs, then up the stairs 3 at a time - calculates power in watts
109
A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscu- lar power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? a. vertical jump b. 1RM bench press c. 5RM squat d. 100 m (109-yard) sprint
a. vertical jump
110
When measuring maximal strength of an American football lineman, which of the fol- lowing could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? I. using multiple testers II. retesting at a different time of day III. an athlete’s inexperience with the tested exercise IV. using an established testing protocol
I, II and III multiple testers retest at different times of day athlete's inexperience with the tested exercise
111
Allofthefollowingproceduresshouldbefol- lowed when testing an athlete’s cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT a. perform the test in an indoor facility. b. use salt tablets to retain water. c. schedule the test in the morning. d. drink fluids during the test.
b. use salt tablets to retain water
112
The bench press, vertical jump, and 10 m (11- yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? a. quarterback b. defensive back c. wide receiver d. defensive lineman
d. defensive lineman
113
Whichofthefollowingsequenceswillproduce the MOST reliable results? 1. T-test 2. 1RM bench press 3. 1RM power clean 4. 1-minute sit-up test a. 3, 1, 4, 2 b. 1, 3, 2, 4 c. 4, 2, 1, 3 d. 2, 3, 1, 4
``` b. 1, 3, 2, 4 T-test 1RM Power Clean 1RM Bench Press 1-min sit-up test ```
114
Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maxi- mal power output achieved during activity lasting a. less than 10 seconds. b. 30 to 90 seconds. c. 2 to 3 minutes. d. longer than 5 minutes.
b. 30 to 90 seconds
115
All of the following tests are used to measure maximum muscular power EXCEPT the a. Margaria-Kalamen test. b. vertical jump. c. 40-yard (37 m) sprint. d. 1RM power clean.
c. 40-yrd sprint
116
``` Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test? I. hamstrings II. erector spinae III. lumbar spine IV. hip flexors a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only ```
c. I, II and III Hamstrings Erector Spinae Lumbar Spine
117
Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified (see figure 12.7)? a. touching the base of cone D b. shuffling from cone C to cone D c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C d. running forward from cone A to cone B
c. crossing the feet from B to C
118
Which of the following is the correct arm posi- tion when measuring the girth of the upper arm? a. neutral shoulder with elbow flexed to 90 degrees b. elbow extended with forearm pronated c. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended d. elbow flexed to 90 degrees with forearm supinated
c. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees with elbow extended
119
``` Ofthelocationsmeasuredinthe3-siteskinfold protocols, which of the following are only measured on women? I. thigh II. suprailiac III. abdomen IV. triceps ```
II and IV | Suprailiac & Tricept
120
When compiling results from the volleyball team’s vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? a. mean b. median c. mode d. variance
b. median