Ch 7 - Normal Procedures

Question 1

How do you know your regulator is faulty during checks with supply lever off

Answer 1

Ability to breathe

Question 2

Required APU warmup and cooldown times before/after applying a bleed air load.

Answer 2

1 minute

Question 3

RAD ALT - Precision approach setting

Answer 3

50 feet below HAT (not always 150)

Question 4

RAD ALT - Circling/Visual approach

Answer 4

300 feet

Question 5

RAD ALT - Non-Precision approach

Answer 5

250 feet

Question 6

What is Mode C (Military Mode 3)

Answer 6

Refers to aircraft equipped with an altitude encoder and altimeter. With Mode C, ATC will actually see the flight level altitude (pressure altitude) on their radar screen if the transponder is operating in the Mode C or “ALT” (altitude) Mode. ATC receives it at 29.92 and their computer applies the current altimeter setting.

Question 7

What is Military Mode 1

Answer 7

Provides 2-digit 5-bit mission code (cockpit selectable)

Question 8

What is Military Mode 2

Answer 8

Provides 4-digit octal unit code (set on ground for fighters, can be changed in flight by transport aircraft)

Question 9

What is Military Mode 4

Answer 9

Provides a 3-pulse reply, delay is based on the encrypted challenge

Question 10

What is Mode S

Answer 10

Provides multiple information formats to a selective interrogation. Each aircraft is assigned a fixed 24-bit address. TCAS compatible. Mode S provides improved surveillance quality, discrete aircraft addressing function, and digital capability.

Question 11

APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. What would you do?

Answer 11

Maintenance is required prior to APU restart

Question 12

Why do we start all engines in LSGI.

Answer 12

A more gradual heating of engine components, although HSGI can still be used if needed.

Question 13

On the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition,
motor the engine for at least _____ seconds with the engine start switch in the
_____ position. On subsequent start, it is acceptable to have flames out the tailpipe for a few seconds due to residual fuel.

Answer 13

30, motor

Question 14

The engine can be started with the propeller at any blade angle. The typical
time from starter activation until NP is on speed is _____ seconds. Allow up to
two minutes after NG is on speed for onset of propeller rotation. Fuel flow
is indicated at approximately _____ percent NG.

Answer 14

30 sec, 40%

Question 15

If a start is not successful, the FADEC will shut fuel off after _____ seconds from starter switch activation. If
an automatic shutdown occurs, place the ENGINE START switch to _____
and allow NG to decrease to zero then wait _____ seconds before attempting a
restart.

Answer 15

70 sec, STOP, 30 seconds

Question 16

What is the minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining a start?

Answer 16

22 PSI, but a momentary drop below when the starter valve opens is acceptable

Question 17

Before attempting ground restarts, wait _____ seconds after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the ________________________

Answer 17

30 sec, NG independent over-speed protection

circuit.

Question 18

The ENGINE START switch can be moved from _____ to _____ after an
aborted start before NG reaches zero. The FIRE handle shall be ___ to allow
the MOTOR operation.

Answer 18

STOP to MOTOR, IN

Question 19

1 of 2 engine shutdown categories: For all ACAWS Warnings (red master warning light and tone), during start you should

Answer 19

Pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.

Question 20

2 of 2 engine shutdown categories: For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shutdowns and shutdowns for ACAWS Cautions and Advisories, _________________________. Although pulling the engine FIRE handle on the
ground does not damage equipment, it does cycle numerous valves and the
auxiliary feather pump.

Answer 20

Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP

Question 21

If any of the following Warnings occur, pull the engine FIRE handle and place the ENGINE START
switch to STOP:

Answer 21

(1) ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) FIRE.
(2) ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) MGT HI.
(3) START VLV 1 (2, 3, or 4) OPEN.
(4) Visible indications of a fire.
(5) Visible fluid leak.

Question 22

If any of the following conditions are observed, discontinue the start by placing the ENGINE START
switch to STOP:

Answer 22

(1) No NG within 10 seconds after actuation of the ENGINE START switch to START.
(2) No indication of oil pressure within 15 seconds of NG rotation (ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS
ACAWS Caution).
(3) No indication of oil pressure within 15 seconds of NP rotation (GEARBOX 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO OIL
PRESS ACAWS Caution).
(4) ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) FLAMEOUT ACAWS Caution, ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO LIGHTOFF ACAWS
Advisory and ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) STAGNATED START ACAWS Advisory. (The FADEC
automatically aborts the start for these, but still place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.)

Question 23

Normal hydraulic system operating pressure should be indicated within _____
seconds after the propeller is on speed. If the control column is in the full
forward position this pressure may not be reached because of internal bypass
of fluid in the elevator boost package. Pulling the control column off its stop
___ to ___ inches will eliminate this bypass.

Answer 23

30 sec, 2-3 inches

Question 24

If OAT is above _____ and the wing/empennage anti-ice test must be repeated, wait at least _____ minutes before repeating test to prevent overheating the _____

Answer 24

70 °F (21 °C), 10 min, Vertical tail

Question 25

If the stick pusher test is attempted _____ consecutive times, allow a
minimum of _____ minutes of cooling time before attempting another test.
This is to prevent failure of the ______

Answer 25

5, 5 min, stick pusher servo

Question 26

Engine anti-ice must be ON if OAT _____ with _____

Answer 26

≤10 °C, visible moisture

Question 27

What are you checking during the Instrument check in the Before takeoff flow?

Answer 27

1. ) Correct tracking of HUD heading indications
2. ) PFD RAD ALT -3 - 1 ft
3. ) HUD Lateral guidance mode for departure

Question 28

When HP is within _____ of the TAKEOFF prediction the Pilot Monitoring will call “Power Set”. This should occur no later than _____ seconds after the power levers reach TAKEOFF.

Answer 28

200, 5 sec

Question 29

An abrupt release of deflected brake pedals could possibly cause the brakes
on the _____ side of the aircraft to remain partially engaged, and could result in directional control difficulties during takeoff or landing roll. The pilot should smoothly release fully applied brake pedals over approximately _____ seconds.

Answer 29

left, 2 sec

Question 30

If predicted 4-engine climbout flight path is

required, continue rotating past target pitch attitude, as required, to capture _____

Answer 30

VOBS and its only necessary if an engine fails and clearing obstacles is required

Question 31

Because of the large surface area of the KC-130J, pilots should determine the maximum crosswind component permitted during pre-mission planning if reported and forecast winds exceed _____ knots with a crosswind component
exceeding _____ degrees off the relative nose position based on the runway in use.

Answer 31

22 knots, 45 degrees

Question 32

An increasing _____ _____ and a positive vertical velocity can be
used to verify a positive rate of climb. The radar altimeter passing _____ feet
can also be used to verify a positive rate of climb.

Answer 32

barometric altimeter, 15 feet

Question 33

Flap Retraction: <100,000 pounds

Answer 33

Raise flaps passing FUSS, (135 KIAS)

Question 34

Flap Retraction: 100,000 to 140,000 pounds

Answer 34

Begin flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS, (VOBS +25)

Question 35

Flap Retraction: >140,000 pounds

Answer 35

Raise flaps in 10-percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (VOBS +5) and ending at FUSS (VOBS +25).

Question 36

Airspeed climb out schedule

Answer 36

180 KIAS to 10,000
170 KIAS to 15,000
160 KIAS to 25,000
Four Engine Climb > 25,000

Question 37

Can VD be exceeded?

Answer 37

VD shall not be exceeded, even in an emergency. Flutter may be encountered
which could cause structural damage and the aircraft may pitch nose down into an unrecoverable dive

Question 38

When shall VH not be exceeded

Answer 38

VH shall not be exceeded in greater than light turbulence, or structural
damage may occur.