CH 7 Immunity

Question 1

1. Neutrophils:
   a. are phagocytic cells.
   b. produce histamine.
   c. produce antibodies.
   d. are elevated during an allergic response.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

2. Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
   a. T–helper cells
   b. Macrophages
   c. Eosinophils
   d. Monocytes

Answer 2

B

Question 3

3. Humoral immunity is mediated by:

a. natural killer cells.
b. T lymphocytes (T cells).
c. B lymphocytes (B cells).
d. neutrophils.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

4. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
b. it is slower than the primary response and doesn’t change the antibody levels.
c. it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in
antibodies.
d. it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.

Answer 4

A

Question 5

5. Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?

a. Active natural
b. Active artificial
c. Passive natural
d. Passive artificial

Answer 5

B

Question 6

6. When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:
   a. cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
   b. immune complex hypersensitivity.
   c. type I hypersensitivity.
   d. type IV hypersensitivity.

Answer 6

C

Question 7

7. The role of memory cells is to:
   a. change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
   b. immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
   c. recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.
   d. bind complement to the antibody.

Answer 7

C

Question 8

8. Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?

a. It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
b. It may result from ingested foods.
c. Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
d. A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.

Answer 8

D

Question 9

9. Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?

a. A severe, systemic allergic reaction
b. Type III hypersensitivity
c. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
d. Immune complex deposits in many tissues

Answer 9

A

Question 10

10. Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?

a. Agglutination
b. Double immunodiffusion test
c. Western blot test
d. Sedimentation rate test

Answer 10

C

Question 11

11. Incompatible blood transfusions result in:

a. hemolysis of erythrocytes.
b. a type I immune response.
c. deposits in multiple organs.
d. immune deficiency.

Answer 11

A

Question 12

12. An autoimmune disease is:

a. excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
b. an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
c. an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
d. failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

Answer 12

D

Question 13

13. Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:

a. a chronic allergic condition.
b. development of an immune-deficient state.
c. a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
d. immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

Answer 13

D

Question 14

14. Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include:

a. inflammation in multiple organs.
b. lack of a specific diagnostic blood test.
c. acute onset and nonprogressive course.
d. typical skin rash on the chest and back.

Answer 14

A

Question 15

15. Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?

a. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)
b. B lymphocytes
c. Natural killer cells
d. Macrophages

Answer 15

A

Question 16

16. A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:

a. the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
b. significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
c. the individual has AIDS.
d. the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

Answer 16

D

Question 17

17. HIV infection impairs:

a. humoral immunity.
b. cell-mediated immunity.
c. both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
d. neither type of immunity.

Answer 17

C

Question 18

18. Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:

a. opportunistic.
b. prophylactic.
c. abnormal.
d. transient.

Answer 18

A

Question 19

19. Serious infections frequently occurring in patients with AIDS include:
20. tuberculosis.
21. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
22. influenza.
23. tetanus.

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 4

Answer 19

A

Question 20

20. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins or molecules?

a. They are genes on chromosome 6.
b. All members of a family have identical MHCs.
c. They alert the immune system to virus-infected cells.
d. A close match is essential for successful tissue transplants.

Answer 20

B

Question 21

21. CD4-positive helper T cells function by:

a. direct cytotoxic action.
b. facilitating all immune system activity.
c. producing immunoglobulins.
d. inactivating allergens.

Answer 21

B

Question 22

22. Host-versus-graft disease refers to:

a. hyperacute rejection of tissue.
b. T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
c. infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
d. transplant rejection by the recipient’s immune system.

Answer 22

D

Question 23

23. Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?

a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Wasting syndrome
c. Lymphoma
d. Polyarthritis

Answer 23

D

Question 24

24. Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV?
25. It contains two strands of DNA.
26. It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains.
27. The incubation period is extremely short.
28. It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants.

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 4

Answer 24

C

Question 25

25. In cases of HIV infection, the “window period” refers to the time between: a. entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations. b. entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood. c. entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count. d. diagnosis of “HIV positive” and diagnosis of “AIDS.”

Answer 25

B

Question 26

26. Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They: a. activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes. b. destroy antigens quickly. c. increase the rate of mitosis in tumors. d. cause immediate pain.

Answer 26

A

Question 27

27. What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS? a. The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids. b. Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood. c. HIV was found in lymphocytes. d. Active infection has developed in the patient.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

28. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive? a. No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range. b. Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others. c. Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others. d. Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.

Answer 28

C

Question 29

29. The term tolerance refers to: a. surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system. b. the ability of the immune system to ignore “self” cells. c. the ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together. d. the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses.

Answer 29

B

Question 30

30. Which of the following statements applies to the complement system? a. It is activated by IgE. b. It blocks the inflammatory response. c. It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated. d. It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

31. Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE? a. They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids. b. They are produced in the red bone marrow. c. They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body. d. IgA binds to allergens.

Answer 31

A

Question 32

32. Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency? a. Hypoplasia of the thymus b. Delayed hypersensitivity c. Immunosuppressive drugs d. Atrophy of the lymph nodes

Answer 32

B

Question 33

33. Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV-infected mothers? a. Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth. b. There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery. c. Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies. d. Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies.

Answer 33

D

Question 34

34. The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is: a. HIV encephalopathy. b. tuberculosis. c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. d. Candida infection.

Answer 34

C

Question 35

35. Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an: a. allograft. b. syngraft. c. isograft. d. autograft.

Answer 35

C