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GOOSE GAMES > CH 6 Infection > Flashcards

CH 6 Infection Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:

a. bacilli.
b. diplococci.
c. staphylococci.
d. streptococci.

A

C

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2
Q
  1. A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?

a. A dry environment
b. An acidic medium
c.
Air at a temperature less than 61° F/16° C
d. The absence of oxygen

A

D

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3
Q
  1. The presence of the bacterial capsule:

a. aids in the release of endotoxins.
b. protects the microbe from phagocytosis.
c. increases the release of toxins and enzymes.
d. prevents replication of the bacterium.

A

B

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4
Q
  1. Microbial mutation means that:

a. genetic information has changed.
b. pathogens become nonpathogens.
c. the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate.
d. the immune response to that microbe is strengthened.

A

A

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5
Q
  1. A bacterial endospore can:

a. also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
b. exist in latent form inside a host cell.
c. reproduce very rapidly.
d. survive high temperatures and a dry environment.

A

D

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6
Q
  1. The structure of a virus includes:

a. a cell wall and membrane.
b. metabolic enzymes for replication.
c. a protein coat and either DNA or RNA.
d. a slime capsule and cilia.

A

C

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7
Q
  1. What method do viruses use to replicate?

a. Binary fission
b. Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
c. Producing reproductive spores
d. Using a host cell to produce and assemble components

A

D

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8
Q
  1. A retrovirus such as HIV contains:

a. RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
b. a double strand of DNA.
c. many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
d. numerous mitochondria.

A

A

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9
Q
  1. How do antiviral drugs act?

a. They interfere with cell wall development.
b. They decrease cell membrane permeability.
c. They destroy new, immature viral particles.
d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.

A

D

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10
Q
  1. Which statement applies to yeasts?

a. They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
b. They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
c. They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
d. They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.

A

C

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11
Q
  1. Fungi reproduce by:
  2. budding.
  3. extension of hyphae.
  4. binary fission.
  5. production of spores.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 3, 4

A

C

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?

a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Tinea pedis
d. Entamoeba histolytica

A

C

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?

a. It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.
b. It exists in three forms.
c. It causes sexually transmitted disease.
d. It reproduces by budding.

A

A

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14
Q
  1. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following?

a. Mosquitoes (bites)
b. Inhaling contaminated particles
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Cysts in feces

A

D

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?

a. It exists in all areas of the body.
b. Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
c. It is of no benefit to the human host.
d. It consists only of bacteria.

A

B

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is normally considered sterile?

a. Urine
b. Pharynx
c. Distal urethra
d. Vagina

A

A

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17
Q
  1. The term nosocomial infection means:

a. transmission involves an insect or animal host.
b. acquired in a hospital or medical facility.
c. transmitted by a fomite.
d. spread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion.

A

B

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18
Q
  1. Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:

a. touching a contaminated countertop.
b. sexual intercourse.
c. drinking contaminated water.
d. inhaling dust-borne microbes.

A

B

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19
Q
  1. What does the term carrier mean?

a. A person with active infection who acts as a reservoir for microbes
b. Animals, insects, objects, or surfaces contaminated by pathogens
c. An individual who is contagious through infected secretions on the hands
d. An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others

A

D

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20
Q
  1. Opportunistic infection may develop when:

a. pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry.
b. an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora.
c. host resistance increases, and the balance of resident flora is restored.
d. contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested.

A

B

21
Q
  1. Host resistance is promoted by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. prescribed immunizations.
b. chronic respiratory disease.
c. vitamin and mineral supplements.
d. appropriate inflammatory or immune response.

A

B

22
Q
  1. Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?

a. Secretion of endotoxin
b. Presence of a bacterial capsule
c. Production of interferons
d. Secretion of invasive enzymes

A

C

23
Q
  1. That time in the course of an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?

a. Subclinical period
b. Eclipse period
c. Prodromal period
d. Presymptomatic period

A

C

24
Q
  1. The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:

a. using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections.
b. not touching any open or bleeding lesions.
c. sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use.
d. assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

A

D

25
Q
  1. The “incubation period” refers to the time period between:

a. entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease. b. the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
c. the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
d. the acute period and establishment of chronic infection.

A

A

26
Q
  1. What does “bacteremia” refer to?

a. Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
b. Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
c. Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body
d. Microbes present in the blood

A

D

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

a. Fever and leukocytosis
b. Headache and anorexia
c. Pain, erythema, and swelling
d. Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue

A

C

28
Q
  1. What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?

a. To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
b. To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
c. To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
d. To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication

A

C

29
Q
  1. A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:

a. destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. b. destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent.
c. reduce the replication of many bacteria.
d. inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria.

A

A

30
Q
  1. How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?

a. It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.
b. It blocks protein synthesis.
c. It increases cell membrane permeability.
d. It prevents DNA replication.

A

A

31
Q
  1. Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:

a. patient is allergic to the drug.
b. balance of species in the resident flora is upset.
c. mucosa of the stomach is irritated.
d. infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas.

A

B

32
Q
  1. All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:

a. interference with attachment to host cell.
b. block assembly of viral particles.
c. interference with mitosis.
d. shedding of protein coat.

A

C

33
Q
  1. Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:

a. antiviral drugs lower host resistance.
b. the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.
c. respiratory droplets transmit infections.
d. the viral infection is usually self-limiting.

A

B

34
Q
  1. The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:

a. destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract.
b. replication of the virus in respiratory secretions.
c. destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs.
d. inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

A

D

35
Q
  1. What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?

a. Immunosuppression
b. Bone marrow damage
c. Presence of bacterial infection
d. An allergic or autoimmune reaction

A

C

36
Q
  1. When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Allergic reaction
d. Septicemia

A

B

37
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?

a. The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
b. It causes a common STD.
c. It possesses many flagella.
d. It is excreted in feces.

A

B

38
Q
  1. Which of the following microbes is classified as an obligate intracellular parasite?

a. Fungus
b. Bacterium
c. Virus
d. Protozoa

A

C

39
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
  2. It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
  3. It contains RNA.
  4. It usually causes nausea and vomiting.
  5. There are three subtypes: A, B, C.

a. 1, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4

A

D

40
Q
  1. The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:

a. severe anemia.
b. secondary infections.
c. asthma.
d. emphysema.

A

B

41
Q
  1. Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because:

a. they take so long to grow.
b. they require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients. c. they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.
d. they are viruses that don’t grow on conventional media.

A

C

42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?

a. It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations.
b. It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever.
c. Infection is common in the elderly.
d. It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.

A

D

43
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?

a. Capacity for opportunism
b. Production of toxins
c. Ability to mutate
d. Invasive qualities

A

A

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of interferons?

a. They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
b. They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
c. They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
d. They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.

A

C

45
Q
  1. Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because:

a. the immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue.
b. the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth.
c. phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas.
d. capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.

A

B

46
Q
  1. When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:

a. sporadic occurrence.
b. epidemic.
c. pandemic.
d. emerging disease.

A

C

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant?

a. Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving
surfaces.
b. Antiseptic is much stronger than the potency of a disinfectant.
c. Antiseptic often causes allergic skin reactions, whereas disinfectant is always
hypoallergenic.
d. Antiseptic is effective against endospores; disinfectants are not effective against
endospores.

A

A

48
Q
  1. Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:

a. ineffective.
b. bacteriostatic.
c. narrow-spectrum.
d. bactericidal.

A

B

GOOSE GAMES (8 decks)

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