Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BR 3rd Ed > Ch 6 - Prosthetic and Orthotics: Lower Limb > Flashcards

Ch 6 - Prosthetic and Orthotics: Lower Limb Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of lower extremity amputation?

A

Peripheral arterial disease (PAD), also referred to as peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)?

A

Ratio of brachial systolic pressure to ankle systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the scales of Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)?

A

– ABI 0.91 to 1.30: Normal
– ABI 0.71 to 0.90: Mild PAD
– ABI 0.41 to 0.70: Moderate PAD
– ABI 0.00 to 0.40: Severe PAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) >1.30 suggest??

A

Calcified, noncompressible vessels, which can produce false negative results. This is common in diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is Doppler velocity waveform analysis used?

A

If screening ABI is abnormal, Doppler waveform analysis is performed to localize the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe Doppler velocity waveform analysis.

A

Doppler waveforms are obtained at multiple sites and a change in waveform from one level to the next is indicative of PAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the gold standard imaging for PAD?

A

Intraarterial contrast angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Myodesis?

A

Muscles and fasciae are sutured directly to bone through drill holes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is Myodesis contraindicated?

A

Severe dysvascularity in which the blood supply to the bone may be compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Myoplasty?

A

Opposing muscles are sutured to each other and to the periosteum at the end of the cut bone with minimal tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the procedure of choice in severe dysvascular residual limbs?

A

Myoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe a partial toe amputation.

A

Excision of any part of one or more toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe a toe disarticulation.

A

Disarticulation at the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe a Partial foot/ray resection.

A

Resection of a portion of up to three metatarsals and digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe a Transmetatarsal amputation (TMA).

A

Amputation through the midsection of all metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe a Lisfranc amputation.

A

Amputation at the tarsometatarsal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe a Chopart amputation.

A

Midtarsal amputation—only talus and calcaneus remain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe a Syme’s amputation.

A

Ankle disarticulation with attachment of heel pad to distal end of tibia; may include removal of malleoli and distal tibial/fibular flares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe a Long BKA (transtibial) amputation.

A

> 50% of tibial length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe a standard BKA (transtibial) amputation.

A

20% to 50% of tibial length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe a Long BKA (transtibial) amputation.

A

<20% of tibial length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe a knee disarticulation.

A

Amputation through the knee joint, femur intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe a Long AKA (transfemoral) amputation.

A

> 60% of femoral length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe a Standard AKA (transfemoral) amputation.

A

35% to 60% of femoral length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe a Short AKA (transfemoral) amputation.

A

<35% of femoral length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe a hip disarticulation.

A

Amputation through hip joint, pelvis intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe a hemipelvectomy.

A

Resection of lower half of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe a hemicorporectomy.

A

Amputation of both lower limbs and pelvis below L4, L5 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are unsatisfactory levels for elective sites of lower limb amputation?

A

Distal 2/5’s of tibia
Very short BKA proximal to tibial tubercle
Very high AKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are causes of toe, metatarsal ray or TMA amputations?

A 
Trauma to the toes
Loss of tissue due to an infection, or gangrene
Frostbite
Diabetes
Arterial sclerosis
Scleroderma
Buerger’s disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What function does a TMA amputation maintain?

A

Preserves the attachment of the dorsiflexors and plantar flexors and their function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a Pirogoff amputation?

A

Vertical calcaneal amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a Boyd amputation?

A

Horizontal calcaneal amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do patients with Lisfranc and Chopart amputations develop?

A

Foot often develops a significant equinovarus deformity resulting in excessive anterior weight bearing with breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can prevent equinovarus deformity in amputees?

A

Adequate dorsiflexor tendon reattachment with Achilles tendon lengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are pros to a Symes amputation?

A
  1. Maintains length
  2. Heel pad for WB
  3. Early fitting of prosthesis
  4. Partial WB after the procedure with a proper rigid casting (~ 24 hours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are cons to a Symes amputation?

A

Poor cosmesis

Prosthesis fitting difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe functional ability of elderly patients after BKA.

A

50% worse function

5% improve function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are advantages of BKA over AKA?

A

Dec energy expenditure

Dec mortality rates d/t better healing and tissue viability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the proper cuts through bone in BKA.

A

Fibula cut 2 to 3 cm shorter than the tibia

Tibia beveled anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is a knee disarticulation preferred over BKA?

A

Severe flexion contracture (> 50°)

Limb is ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a Modified knee disarticulation?

A

Moderate trimming of the femoral condylar prominences and patellofemoral arthrodesis in the intercondylar notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What degree of hip flexion contracture can be accommodated in a socket?

A

20 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the ideal shape for transtibial residual limb?

A

Cylindrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the ideal shape for transfemoral residual limb?

A

Conical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a removable rigid dressing (RRD) for the transtibial amputee?

A

Plaster or fiberglass cast suspended by a stocking and supracondylar cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How should elastic bandages be applied to residual limb post op?

A

Figure-8 wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What size elastic bandages should be used on residual limbs?

A

Double length 4-inch for transtibial limb

Double length 6-inch for transfemoral limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When should elastic shrinker socks be used?

A

Once staples or sutures removed for 24 hrs/day

Fit to groin in AKA’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When can shrinker socks be stopped?

A

Once fit for definitive prosthesis

Can use for edema at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How are hip flexion contractures prevented?

A 
Avoid soft mattress
No pillow under back or thigh
No HOB elevation
No standing with AKA on crutch
Prone lying 15 min/day or supine with active extension of amputation
52
Q

How are hip abudction contractures prevented?

A

No pillows between legs

53
Q

How are knee flexion contractures prevented?

A

Do not lie with leg hanging off bed
No pillow under knee
Avoid sitting for prolonged periods
Sit with knee on board under WC cushion with towel wrapped over board

54
Q

Describe a K0 functional level.

A

Nonambulatory (bedbound)

55
Q

What prosthesis components are allowed for a KO functional level?

A

No prosthesis allowed

56
Q

Describe a K1 functional level.

A

Limited to transfers or limited household ambulator

57
Q

What prosthesis components are allowed for a K1 functional level?

A

Manual lock or stance-control knee

SACH or single-axis foot

58
Q

Describe a K2 functional level.

A

Unlimited household but limited community ambulator

59
Q

What prosthesis components are allowed for a K2 functional level?

A

Pneumatic or polycentric knee

Multiaxis foot

60
Q

Describe a K3 functional level.

A

Unlimited community ambulator

61
Q

What prosthesis components are allowed for a K3 functional level?

A

Hydraulic knee

Energy-storing foot

62
Q

Describe a K4 functional level.

A

High energy activities (sports, work)

63
Q

What prosthesis components are allowed for a K4functional level?

A

Hydraulic knee

Energy-storing foot

64
Q

When is a preparatory (temporary) prosthesis used?

A

3 to 6 months postsurgery—until maximal residual limb shrinkage has been achieved

65
Q

What does a preparatory (temporary) prosthesis allow?

A
  • Provides prosthetic fitting before the residual limb volume stabilizes
  • Helps in shrinking and shaping
  • Early prosthetic training (gait and functional training)
  • Trial when uncertainty about potential prosthesis
66
Q

Describe the socket for a Symes amputation.

A

Medial or posterior opening to allow bulbous residual limb in.

67
Q

Describe feet for a Symes amputation.

A

– Syme solid ankle cushion heel (SACH)
– Syme stationary ankle flexible endoskeleton (SAFE)
– Energy-storing carbon fiber foot (low profile)

68
Q

What are the components for a BKA prosthesis?

A

Socket
Suspension
Shank
Prosthetic foot

69
Q

What is the standard socket for an average BKA prosthesis?

A

Total-contact patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket

70
Q

Describe the total-contact patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket.

A

Custom-molded thermoplastic or laminated socket that distributes weight through convex buildups (bulges) over pressure-tolerant areas and concavities (relief areas) on pressure-sensitive areas

71
Q

What are pressure tolerant areas in the total-contact patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket?

A
  1. Patellar tendon
  2. Pretibial muscles
  3. Popliteal fossa—Gastroc-soleus muscles (via gastrocnemius depression)
  4. Lateral shaft of fibula
  5. Medial tibial flare
72
Q

What are pressure sensitive areas in the total-contact patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket?

A
  1. Tibial crest, tubercle, and condyles
  2. Fibular head
  3. Distal tibia and fibula
  4. Hamstring tendons
  5. Patella
73
Q

How is the socket aligned on the shank in total-contact patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket?

A

Slight flexion (about 5°)

74
Q

What is the maximum degree of flexion to accommodate at knee flexion contracture in total-contact patellar tendon bearing (PTB) socket?

A

Max of 25° of flexion

75
Q

What are commons suspension systems for BKA?

A
  • Supracondylar cuff suspension socket
  • Brim suspension
  • Rubber or neoprene sleeve
  • Pin suspension
  • Suction suspension
  • Thigh corset
76
Q

Describe a Suction suspension.

A

Silicone or gel insert or liner with the use of a one-way expulsion valve in the distal aspect of the socket that allows air to escape from the socket but not enter

77
Q

What does the design of a Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot allow for?

A

Compressible heel and wooden keel simulate the motions of the ankle in normal walking (plantar flexion at heel strike) without actual ankle movement occurring

78
Q

What are the main uses for Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot?

A
  • General use
  • Kids-durable
  • Limited ambulation needs
  • K1 users
79
Q

What are advantages of Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot?

A
  • Inexpensive
  • Light (lightest foot)
  • Durable
  • Reliable
80
Q

What are disadvantages of Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot?

A
  • Energy consuming
  • Rigid
  • Best on flat surface
81
Q

Describe a Single-Axis Foot.

A

Movement in 1 plane (DF and PF)

Heel height-adjustable single-axis feet available

82
Q

What is the main use of a Single-Axis Foot?

A
  • To enhance knee stability
  • AKA who needs greater knee stability (goes to flat foot quick before knee buckles); knee goes back into extension (gives stability in early stance)
  • K1 users
83
Q

What are the advantages of a Single-Axis Foot?

A
  • Adds stability to prosthetic knees

* Increased weight (70% heavier than SACH)

84
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Single-Axis Foot?

A
  • Increased cost

* Increased maintenance

85
Q

Describe a Multi-Axis Foot.

A

Allow PF, DF, inversion, eversion, and rotation

86
Q

What is the main use of a Multi-Axis Foot?

A
  • Used for ambulation on uneven surfaces
  • Absorbs some of the torsional forces created in ambulation
  • K2 users
87
Q

What are the advantages of a Multi-Axis Foot?

A
  • Multidirectional motion
  • Permits some rotation
  • Accommodates uneven surfaces
  • Relieves stress on skin and prosthesis
88
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Single-Axis Foot?

A
  • Relatively bulky
  • Heavy
  • Expensive
  • Increased maintenance
  • Greater latitude of movement may create instability in patients with ↓ coordination
89
Q

Describe a SAFE Flexible Keel.

A

SAFE (stationary ankle flexible endoskeleton)

90
Q

What is the main use of a SAFE Flexible Keel?

A
  • Used for ambulation on uneven surfaces

* K2 users

91
Q

What are the advantages of a SAFE Flexible Keel?

A
  • Flexible keel
  • Multidirectional motion
  • Moisture and grit resistant
  • Accommodates uneven surfaces
  • Absorbs rotary torques
  • Smooth rollover
92
Q

What are the disadvantages of a SAFE Flexible Keel?

A
  • Heavy
  • Increased cost
  • Not cosmetic
  • Does not offer inversion/eversion
93
Q

What are uses for a STEN (stored energy) flexible keel?

A
  • Used when smooth roll-over needed

* K2 users

94
Q

What are advantages of a STEN (stored energy) flexible keel?

A
  • Elastic keel
  • Moderate cost
  • Accommodates numerous shoe styles
  • ML stability similar to SACH
95
Q

What are disadvantages of a STEN (stored energy) flexible keel?

A
  • Moderate-heavy weight

* Cannot be used with Syme’s amputation

96
Q

Describe a Seattle foot.

A

Consists of a cantilevered plastic C- or U-shaped keel, which acts as a compressed spring

97
Q

What are uses for a Seattle foot?

A
  • Jogging, general sports, conserves energy

* K3 and K4 users

98
Q

What are advantages of a Seattle foot?

A
  • Energy storing

* Smooth roll-over

99
Q

What are disadvantages of a Seattle foot?

A
  • High cost

* No SACH heel makes it difficult to change compressibility of heel

100
Q

Describe a Flex foot.

A

– Pylon and foot incorporated into 1unit

– The flex-foot keel extends to the bottom of the transtibial socket (and in AKA, to the level of the knee unit)

101
Q

Describe a Flex-walk.

A

Shorter version of the Flex-foot, attaching to the shank at the ankle level

102
Q

What are uses for a Flex foot?

A
  • Running, jumping, vigorous sports, conserves energy

* K3 and K4 users

103
Q

What are advantages of a Flex foot?

A
  • very light
  • Most energy storing
  • Most stable mediolaterally
  • Lowest inertia
104
Q

What are disadvantages of a Flex foot?

A
  • very high cost

* Alignment can be cumbersome

105
Q

Describe a polycentric knee.

A

Unlike the single-axis knee, has an instantaneous center of rotation that changes and is proximal and posterior to the knee unit itself

106
Q

What does a polycentric knee allow for?

A

Greater knee stability
More symmetrical gait
Equal knee length when sitting

107
Q

What are other names for an ischial containment socket?

A

Narrow mediolateral socket

Contoured adducted trochanteric-controlled alignment method (CAT-CAM) socket.

108
Q

Where is weight bearing concentrated in an ischial containment socket?

A

Medial aspect of the ischium and the ischial ramus

109
Q

Describe flexion in an ischial containment socket.

A

Preflexed 5° to 7° to maximize hip extensor muscle control

Max of 20° flexion is allowed to accommodate flexion contracture

110
Q

Describe the shape of a Quad socket.

A

Narrow anteroposteriorly and relatively wide mediolaterally

111
Q

Where are there reliefs in a Quad socket?

A

Adductor longus
Hamstring
Greater trochanter
Gluteus maximus, Rectus femoris

112
Q

Describe needs of a total suction socket.

A

Worn without socks on residual limb
Provides the best suspension biomechanically but requires minimal volume fluctuation, good hand strength and dexterity, good balance, and good skin integrity.

113
Q

Describe needs of a partial suction socket.

A

Uses a socket with a suction valve, but it is worn with socks, which reduces the airtight suction fit

114
Q

Describe a Constant friction knee unit.

A

Friction mech used in swing control knee to dampen the pendular action of the prosthetic knee during swing phase, to dec the incidence of high heel rise in early swing, and dec terminal impact in late swing

115
Q

When is a Constant friction knee unit is used?

A
  • Single walking speed
  • Kids
  • No stance control; a screw used to adjust the friction to determine how fast or slow the knee swings
  • K1 ambulator
116
Q

Describe a Stance-Control knee/Safety knee/weight Activated Friction brake.

A
  • Single-axis knee with stance control

* Stance control acts as a brake system

117
Q

When is a Stance-Control knee/Safety knee/weight Activated Friction brake unit is used?

A
  1. Geriatrics
  2. Short residual limb
  3. General disability
  4. Uneven surfaces
  5. Amputees with weak hip extensors
  6. K1 ambulator
118
Q

When can a Stance-Control knee/Safety knee/weight Activated Friction brake unit is NOT be used?

A

ilateral AKA (knees won’t bend with loading) → cannot bend both knees at the same time (patient cannot sit down)

119
Q

What activities are NOT compatible with a Stance-Control knee/Safety knee/weight Activated Friction brake unit?

A

Activities that require knee motion under weightbearing, such as step-overstep stair descent

120
Q

Describe a Polycentric/4-bar knee.

A
  • No stance control, but inherently stable

* Short knee unit → can be used in knee disarticulation and long residual limb

121
Q

When is a Polycentric/4-bar knee used?

A

K1 ambulator

122
Q

Describe a Manual locking knee.

A

Spring-loaded pin that automatically locks the knee when the amputee stands or extends the knee and knee is kept extended throughout the entire gait cycle to ↑ stability

123
Q

When is a Manual locking knee used?

A

Last resort
Blind
Stroke patient with amputation
K1 ambulator

124
Q

Describe a Fluid-Controlled knee.

A
  1. Hydraulic (oil)
  2. Pneumatic (air)
    •Cadence-responsive knee units through cadence-dependent resistance
125
Q

When is a Fluid-Controlled knee used?

A
  1. For patients who vary cadence frequency
  2. Active walkers
  3. Ambulation in uneven terrain
  4. K3 and K4 ambulators
126
Q

What is the standard prosthesis for a hip disarticulation?

A

Canadian hip disarticulation prosthesi

BR 3rd Ed (92 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions