Ch 6 Pathoma WBC Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Hematopoiesis occurs via a stepwise maturation of CD__ hematopoietic stem cells. From the stem cell, they can become either __ stem cells or __ stem cells.

A

34+; myeloid; lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ stem cells give rise to erythroblasts, myeloblasts, monoblasts, and megakaryoblasts.

A

Myeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ stem cells give rise to B lymphoblast and T lymphoblast

A

lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ give rise to neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

A

Myeloblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A normal WBC count is ___ K/microL. A low WBC is less than ___ and called ___. A high WBC count is greater than ___ and called ____. A low or high WBC count is usually due to a decrease or increase in ONE particular cell lineage

A

5-10; 5; leukopenia; 10; leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the 2 main causes of neutropenia and the 2 tx.

A

drug toxicity (e.g. chemo with alkylating agents - cause damage to stem cells); severe infection (e.g. gram negative sepsis - increased mvmc of neutrophils into tissues results in decreased circulating neutrophils); GM-CSF or G-CSF boost granulocyte production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 4 main causes of lymphopenia.

A

1) Immunodeficiency (eg DiGeorge’s or HIV); 2) high cortisol state (exogenous corticosteroids or Cushings - induce apoptosis of lymphocytes); 3) autoimmune destruction (e.g. SLE produces ABs against blood); 4) whole body radiation (lymphocytes are highly sensitive to radiation - its the earliest change after WBodRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the 3 major causes of neutrophilic leukocytosis.

A

Bacterial infection; tissue necrosis; high cortisol state (all 3 induce release of marginated pool (cortisol impairs leukocyte adhesion) (1st two also induce bone marrow neutrophils including immature forms (left shift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bacterial infection or tissue necrosis can both induce release of bone marrow ___, including immature forms (right/left shift). Immature cells are characterized by decreased ___ (CD__)

A

neutrophils; left; Fc receptors; CD16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Monocytosis is seen in ___ and ___

A

chronic inflammatory states (e.g. autoimmune and infectious); malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eosinophilia is caused by allergic reactions (type __ hypersensitivity), ___ infections, and this malignancy (due to increased IL-__). Eosinophilia is driven by increased ____ factor.

A

I; parasitic; Hodgkin lymphoma (mixed cellularity type); IL5; eosiniphil chemotactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Basophilia is classically seen in ____.

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 2 causes of lymphocytic leukocytosis

A

Viral infections (T lymphocytes undergo hyperplasia in response to virally infected cells); bordetella pertussis (*exception since it’s a bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bordella pertussis (bacteria) infection causes lymphocytic leukocytosis (usually bacteria cause ___ leukocytosis), because it produces ___, which blocks circulating lymphocytes from leaving the blood to enter the ___.

A

neutrophilic; lymphocytosis-promoting factor; LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Infectious mononucleosis is a __ infection that results in ___ leukocytosis comprised of ____. ___ is a less common cause. It is transmitted by ___, and classically infects ___.

A

EBV; lymphocytic; reactive CD8+ t cells; CMV; saliva; teenagers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

EBV primarily infects these 3 places

A

oropharynx (resulting in pharyngitis); liver (resulting in hepatitis w/hepatomegaly and elevated liver enzymes); B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The CD8+ T cell response in infectious mononucleosis leads to these 3 clinical/lab findings (and why)

A

1) Generalized lymphadenopathy (due to T cell hyperplasia in LN paracortex); 2) splenomegaly (due to T cell hyperplasia in the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)); 3) high WBC count with atypical lymphocytes (reactive CD8+ t cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The CD8+ T cell response causes splenomegaly due to T cell hyperplasia in the ____ of the spleen, and causes generalized LAD due to t-cell hyperplasia in the lymph node ___.

A

periarterial lymphatic sheath; paracortex (outer layer is cortex, middle is paracortex, inner is medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In infectious mononucleosis, the ___ test is used for screening. It detects ___ that cross react with horse or sheep red blood cells, and usually turns positive within 1 hour/day/week after infection. A negative test suggests __ as possible cause of IM. Definitive dx is ___.

A

monospot; IgM antibodies (heterophile antibodies); week; CMV; serologic testing for EBV viral capsid antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the 3 complications of infectious mononucleosis.

A

1) splenic rupture (advised to avoid contact sports); 2) rash if exposed to ampicillin; 3) dormancy of virus in B cell can lead to recurrence and/or B cell lymphoma (esp if pt is immunodeficient (HIV))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute leukemia is a neoplastic proliferation of ___, defined as the accumulation of greater than __% ___ in the bone marrow.

A

blasts; 20; blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In acute leukemia, increased blasts “crowd out” normal hematopoiesis, resulting in “acute” presentation with these 3 things (and symptoms)

A

anemia = fatigue; thrombocytopenia = bleeding; neutropenia = infxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In acute leukemia, blasts usually enter the blood stream, resulting in a high ___ count. Blasts are large/small, immature/mature cells, often with ___. Acute leukemia is subdivided into ___ or ___ based on the phenotype of the blasts.

A

WBC; large; immature; punched out nucleoli; acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL); acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ is a neoplastic accumulation of lymphoblasts (greater than __%) in the bone marrow. Lymphoblasts have positive nuclear staining for ___, a DNA polymerase (found in the ___). It is absent in ___ and ___.

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia; 20; TdT; nucleus; myeloid blasts; mature lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia most commonly arises in ___, and is associated with ____. It can be sub-classified into ___ and ___ based on ___ (which one is more common?).

A

children; Down syndrome (after age of 5); B-ALL; T-ALL; surface markers; B-ALL is more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which leukemia is seen in down syndrome before age of 5 and which one after?

A

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (under the umbrella of acute myeloid leukemia); after 5 is acute lymphoblastic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

B-ALL is characterized by lymphoblasts (__+), that express these 3 markers. There is excellent/poor response to chemo, and it requires prophyalxis to __ and __.

A

TdT; CD10, CD19, and CD20; excellent; scrotum; CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

There are 2 common cytogenic abnormalities in B-ALL, ___ has a good prognosis and is more commonly seen in children; __ has a poor prognosis and is more commonly seen in adults.

A

t(12;21); t(9;22) (Philadelphia+ ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T-ALL is characterized by lymphoblasts (__+) that express markers ___. The blasts do not express ___. T-ALL usually presents in ___ as a ___ mass (and is therefore called acute lymphoblastic __, since the malignant cell form a mass)

A

TdT; CD2 to CD8; CD10; teenagers; mediastinal (thymic); lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ (greater than __%) in the bone marrow. Myeloblasts are usually characterized by positive cytoplasmic staining for ___, which can form crystal aggregates called ___.

A

myeloid cells; 20; myeloperoxidase (MPO); Auer rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A ___ shift, is a shift to a more immature cell in the maturation process

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia most commonly arises in ___. Subclassifcation is based on ___ abnormalities, ___ of immature myeloid cells, and ___ markers.

A

older adults (50-60 yrs); cytogenetic; lineage; surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name 3 common subtypes of acute myeloid leukemia

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL); acute monocytic leukemia; acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is characterized by a ___ translocation, which involves disruption of the ___ (move it from chromosome __ to __). This disruption blocks ___ and ___ accumulate.

A

t(15;17); retinoic acid receptor (RAR); 17; 15; maturation; promyelocytes (blasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In acute promyelocytic leukemia, abnormal promyelocytes contain numerous ___ that increase the risk for ___. Treatment is with ___ (a vitamin A derivative), which binds the altered retinoid acid receptor and causes the blasts to ___.

A

primary granules (Auer rods); DIC; all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA); mature/differentiate (and eventually die)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

____ is a proliferation of mono blasts (usually lack ___). The blasts classically infiltrate ___.

A

Acute monocytic leukemia; MPO; gums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

___ is a proliferation of megakaryoblasts (lack ___); it is associated with ____.

A

acute megakaryoblastic leukemia; MPO (since plts don’t need to do oxygen dependent killing); Down syndrome (before age 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia may arise from pre-existing ___ (___ syndromes), especially with prior exposure to ___ or ___.

A

dysplasia; myelodysplastic; alkylating agents; radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes usually present with ___, ___ bone marrow, abnormal ___ of cells, and increased ___ (less than __%). Most patients die from __ or __, though some progress to ___.

A

cytopenias, hypercellular (though its hyper cellular, its being formed poorly so cells don’t get out into blood); maturation; blasts; 20% (greater than would be leukemia); infection or bleeding; acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Chronic leukemia is a neoplastic proliferation of ___. It is characterized by a high/low WBC count. Usually insidious (slow) in onset and seen in ___.

A

mature circulating lymphocytes; high; older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most common leukemia overall?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (naive B cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

___ is a neoplastic proliferation of naive B cells that co-express CD__ and CD__.

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia; CD5 and CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), increased ___ and ___ are seen on blood smear. Involvement of lymph nodes leads to generalized ___, and is called ___.

A

lymphocytes; smudge cells; lymphadenopathy; small lymphocytic lymphoma
(naive B cell proliferation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Name 3 complications of chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and what is the most common cause of death in CLL?

A

1) hypogammaglobulinemia (B cells are not turning in to plasma cells to make Ig; infxn is the most common cause of death); 2) autoimmune hemolytic anemia (if cell manages to make Ig, it attacks RBCs); 3) transformation to diffuse large B cell lymphoma (Richter transformation - marked by enlarging LN or spleen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The transformation of chronic lymphocytic leukemia to diffuse large B cell lymphoma is called the ____. It is marked clinically by an enlarging ___ or ___.

A

Richter transformation; LN; spleen

46
Q

Hairy cell leukemia is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ characterized by ____. Cells are positive for ____. There is an excellent response to ____, an adenosine deaminase inhibitor, which causes adenosine accumulation to toxic levels in neoplastic ____.

A

mature B cells; hairy cytoplasmic processes; tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP); 2-CDA (cladribine); B cells

47
Q

Name the 3 clinical features of hairy cell leukemia

A

1) splenomegaly (accumulation of hairy cells in RED pulp); 2) dry tap on BMA (marrow fibrosis); 3) LAD is absent
(TRAP - TRAP+ cells, trapped in red pulp and marrow, so can’t get to LN’s to cause LAD)

48
Q

Name the Chronic Leukemia which involves neoplastic proliferation of naive B cells, mature CD4+ T cells, and mature B cells.

A

1) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
2) Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma and mycosis fungoides
3) Hairy cell leukemia

49
Q

___ is a neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells associated with HTLV-1. It is most commonly seen in these 2 regions.

A

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL); Japan, Caribbean

50
Q

Name the 3 clinical features of Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL)

A

Rash (CD4+T cells like to go to skin!); generalized LAD with hepatosplenomegaly; lytic (punched out) bone lesions with hypercalcemia (when you see this, think multiple myeloma, but the rash helps you know it’s ATLL)

51
Q

Mycosis fungoides is a neoplastic proliferation of ____ that infiltrate the skin, producing localized skin rash, plaques, and nodules. Aggregates of neoplastic cells in the epidermis are called ____.

A

mature CD4+ t cells; Pautrier microabscesses

52
Q

In mycosis fungoides, cells can spread to involve the blood, producing ___ syndrome. Characteristic lymphocytes with ___ nuclei (__ cells) are seen on blood smear.

A

Sezary; cerebriform; Sezary

mature CD4+ t cell proliferation

53
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders are neoplastic proliferations of ___ cells of ___ lineage. It is a disease of early/late childhood/adulthood (avg age is ___). Cells of all ___ lineages are increased, and each disorder is characterized based on the dominant __ cell produced.

A

mature; myeloid; late adulthood; 50-60; myeloid; myeloid

high WBC count with hyper cellular bone marrow

54
Q

Myeloid stem cells give rise to these 4 cell types

A

erythroblasts, myeloblasts (granulocytes), monoblasts, megakaryoblasts

55
Q

Name 3 complications of myeloproliferative disorders

A

1) increased risk for hyperuricemia/gout due to high turnover of cells; 2) progression to marrow fibrosis; 3) transformation to acute leukemia

56
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells, especially ___ and their precursors. ___ are characteristically increased. It is driven by ___ translocation, which generates a ___ protein. First line tx is ___, a ___ inhibitor.

A

mature myeloid; granulocytes; basophils; t(9;22) (philadelphia chromosome); BCR-ABL fusion; imatinib; tyrosine kinase

57
Q

In chronic myeloid leukemia, ___ is common. Enlarging ___ suggests progression to accelerated phase of disease. Transformation to ___ usually follows shortly. CML can transform to ___ (2/3 of cases) or ___ (1/3 of cases) since mutation is in a ____ cell.

A

splenomegaly; spleen; acute leukemia; AML; ALL; pluripotent stem

58
Q

CML can be distinguished from a leukemia reaction (reactive neutrophilic leukocytosis) by these 3 things.

A

negative leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain (+ in leukemoid rxn); increased basophils (absent); t(9;22) (absent)

59
Q

___ is a neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially RBCs (___ and ___ are also increased). Associated with a ___ mutation. Tx is ___; 2nd line tx is ___. W/o tx death usually occurs within one day/month/year.

A

Polycythemia Vera (PV); granulocytes; platelets; JAK2 kinase; phlebotomy; hydroxyurea (suppress BM); year

60
Q

Clinical symptoms of PV are mostly due to hyper/hypo-viscosity of blood. Name 4.

A

1) blurry vision/headache; 2) inc risk of venous thrombosis (Budd chiari - hepatic vein - infarction of liver; portal vein, dural sinus); 3) flushed face due to congestion (plethora); 4) itching, esp after bathing (due to inc mast cells releasing histamine)

61
Q

PV must be distinguished from reactive polycythemia. In PV, EPO levels are H/N/L and SaO2 is H/N/L. In reactive polycythemia due to lung disease or high altitude, SaO2 is H/N/L and EPO is H/N/L. In reactive due to ectopic EPO production from this cancer, EPO and SaO2 are H/N/L.

A

low EPO; normal SaO2; low SaO2; high EPO; renal cell carcinoma; high EPO; normal SaO2

62
Q

Name 4 myeloproliferative disorders and the dominant myeloid cell produced

A

CML (granulocytes, esp basophils); PV (RBCs); ET (platelets); myelofibrosis (megakaryocytes)

63
Q

Which 3 disorders are associated with a JAK2 kinase mutation?

A

PV, ET, and myelofibrosis (seen in 50% of cases)

64
Q

Essential thrombocythemia (ET) is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells, especially ___. Also see increased __ and ___. Associated with a __ mutation.

A

mature myeloid; platelets; RBCs; granulocytes; JAK2 kinase

65
Q

Symptoms of essential thrombocythemia are related to an increased risk of ___ and/or ___. It commonly/rarely progresses to marrow fibrosis or acute leukemia. There is no significant risk for ___ or ___.

A

bleeding; thrombosis (depends if plts are functioning or not); rarely; hyperuricemia; gout (no nuclear material being turned over)

66
Q

_____ is a neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially megakaryocytes. Associated with a ___ mutation (50% of cases). Megakaryocytic produce excess ___ causing ___.

A

Myelofibrosis; JAK2 kinase; platelet derived growth factor (PDGF); marrow fibrosis

67
Q

Name 3 clinical features of myelofibrosis

A

1) splenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis (BM is all fibrosed); 2) leukoertyoroblastic smear (tear drop RBCs, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes); 3) inc risk of infxn, thrombosis, and bleeding (spleen can’t keep up with producing cells needed)

68
Q

Tear drop RBCs are seen in which disorder and why?

A

myelofibrosis; fibrosed BM can still produce some RBCs, but they are stretched and squeezed when trying to get out from all the fibrosis

69
Q

Lymphadenopathy refers to ___. Painful LAD is usually seen in lymph nodes draining a region of ___. Painless LAD can be seen with ___, ___, or ___.

A

enlarged lymph nodes; acute infection (acute lymphadenitis); chronic inflammation (chronic lymphadenitis); metastatic carcinoma; lymphoma

70
Q

In inflammation, lymph node enlargement is due to ___ of particular regions of the LN. Follicular hyperplasia (__ cell region), is seen with ___ and early stages of ___. Paracortex hyperplasia (__ cell region), is seen with ___. Hyperplasia of ___ is seen in LN’s that are draining a tissue with cancer.

A

hyperplasia; B-cell; rheumatoid arthritis; HIV infxn (follicular cells can be CD4+); t cell; viral infxns (e.g. infectious mononucleosis); sinus histiocytes (found in medulla)

71
Q

Which types of cells are found in the cortex, paracortex, and medulla of the LN?

A

b-cells; t-cells; reticular cells and macrophages (aka sinus histiocytes)

72
Q

Lymphoma is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells that forms a ___. May arise in a __ or in __ tissue. Divided into ___ (60%) and ___ (40%).

A

lymphoid cells; mass; lymph node; extra nodal tissue; non-Hodgkin; Hodgkin

73
Q

Non-hodgkin lymphoma can be classified based on cell type (__ vs __), cell size (__, __, or __), pattern of cell growth (__ or __), expression of surface markers (help determine __ or __), and cytogenetic translocations.

A

b-cell vs t-cell; small, intermediate, large; diffuse sheets or follicular; b-cell or t-cell

74
Q

Of the Non-hodgkin lymphoma, name the 4 small B cells, the 1 intermediate B cell, and the 1 large B cell

A

1) follicular lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma, small lymphocytic lymphoma (when CLL moves in to LNs); 2) Burkitt lymphoma; 3) diffuse large b-cell lymphoma

75
Q

Follicular lymphoma is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells (CD__) that form ___-like nodules. Present in early/late childhood/adulthood with painful/painless LAD. Treatment is reserved for symptomatic pts and involves low dose ___ or ___ (anti-CD__ antibody)

A

small B cells; 20+; follicle; late adulthood; painless; chemotherapy; rituximab; 20

76
Q

___ is driven by t(14;18). BCL2 on chromosome __ translocates to the Ig heavy chain locus on chromosome __, which results in overexpression of ___, which inhibits ___.

A

Follicular lymphoma; 18; 14; Bcl2; apoptosis

77
Q

An important complication of follicular lymphoma is progression to ___, which presents as an enlarging __.

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma; lymph node

78
Q

Follicular lymphoma is distinguished from reactive follicular hyperplasia (due to infxn) by these 4 things.

A

1) disruption of normal LN architecture (follicles move deep into LN); 2) lack of tangible body macrophages in germinal centers (normally see them cause they eat up the apoptosing failed hyper mutated b cells); 3) Bcl2 expression in follicles (normally don’t want Bcl2 so cells can apoptose); 4) monoclonality (20:1 kappa lambda ratio; normal is 3:1)

79
Q

In a normal follicle of a LN, b-cells challenged by antigen come in and undergo ___ in a ___. If they can then bind antigen they leave to participate in fight. If they fail, they ___, which they cannot do if __ is over expressed as in follicular lymphoma.

A

somatic hypermutation (seen in class switching); germinal center; apoptose; Bcl2

80
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma is a neoplastic proliferation of __ cells (CD__), that expands the mantle zone (immediately adjacent to the ___). Presents in early/late adulthood/childhood with painful/painless LAD.

A

small B cells; 20+; follicle; late adulthood; painless

81
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma driven by a __ translocation, in which the ___ gene on chromosome 11 translocates to the ___ locus on chromosome 14. Overexpression of __ promotes __ transition in the cell cycle.

A

t(11;14); cyclin D1; Ig heavy chain; cyclin D1; G1/S

82
Q

Name the translocations and what is overexpressed seen with follicular lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma, and burkitt lymphoma

A

t(14;18) - Bcl2 (cell does not apoptose); t(11;14) - Cyclin D1 (cell goes from G1 to S); none!; t(8;14) - c-myc (nuclear regulator that promotes cell growth)

83
Q

Marginal zone lymphoma is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells (CD__) that expands the marginal zone. It is associated with chronic inflammatory states such as these 3. The marginal zone is formed by ___ B cells

A

small B cells; 20+; Hashimoto thyroiditis, Sjogren syndrome, H pylori gastritis; post-germinal center (B cells that have left the germinal center)

84
Q

MALToma is ___ lymphoma in __ sites. Gastric MALToma may regress with tx of ___.

A

marginal zone; mucosal; H pylori

85
Q

Burkitt lymphoma is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells (CD__); associated with ___. It classically presents as a ___ mass in children/young adult/elderly adult. __ form usually involves the jaw, and __ form usually involves the abdomen.

A

intermediate sized b cells; 20+; EBV; extra nodal; children and young adults (unique to the NHLs); African; sporadic

86
Q

Burkitt lymphoma is driven by a __ translocation, in which __ on chromosome __ gets translocated to __ locus on chromosome __. Overexpression of ___ oncogene promotes cell growth. Burkitt lymphoma is characterized by a H/N/L mitotic index and ‘____’ appearance on microscopy.

A

t(8;14); c-myc; 8; Ig heavy chain locus; 14; c-myc (it’s a nuclear regulator that promotes growth); low; starry-sky

87
Q

What is the most common form of non-hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Diffuse large b-cell lymphoma

88
Q

___ is a neoplastic proliferation of large B cells (CD__) that grow diffusely in sheets. It is clinically aggressive (low/high grade). It arises in these 2 ways. It presents in early/late adulthood/childhood as an enlarging ___ or an ___ mass.

A

Diffuse large b-cell lymphoma (DLBCL); 20+; high; sporadically or transformation from a low-grade lymphoma (e.g. follicular); late adulthood; LN; extra nodal

89
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma is a neoplastic proliferation of ___ cells, which are large B cells with ___ nuclei and prominent ___ (‘___’ nuclei). They are classically positive for CD__ and CD__ and NOT positive for CD__.

A

Reed-Sternberg (RS); multilobed; nucleoli; owl-eyed; 15; 30; 20.

90
Q

Reed sternberg cells are positive for CD__ and __, and secrete ___. This can result in __ symptoms (such as these 4). It also attracts these 4 cells. And can lead to ___.

A

15; 30; cytokines; B symptoms; fever, chills, weight loss, night sweats; reactive lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophils (reactive inflammatory cells); fibrosis

91
Q

In Hodgkin lymphoma, ___ makes up a bulk of the tumor and form the basis for classification. Name the 4 subtypes and the most common type

A

reactive inflammatory cells; nodular sclerosis (most common - 70%); lymphocyte rich; mixed cellularity; lymphocyte depleted

92
Q

Nodular sclerosis (a subtype of HL) classically presents as an enlarging ___ or ___ in a young/old adult/child female/male. The lymph node is divided by bands of ___. __ cells are present in __-like spaces (__ cells)

A

cervical or mediastinal LN; young adult female; sclerosis; Reed-sternberg; lake; lacunar

93
Q

Which subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma has the best prognosis, the worst prognosis, is associated with abundant eosinophils (due to RS cells producing __)? Which one is usually seen in the elderly and HIV positive individuals?

A

lymphocyte-rich; lymphocyte-depleted; mixed cellularity; IL-5; lymphocyte-depleted

94
Q

In which, NHL vs HL, is staging less important? Which one has more constitutional symptoms? Which one is strongly associated with EBV? Which one has a leukemic phase? Which one is rarely extra nodal? Which one has the better prognosis?

A

NHL; HL has B symptoms; HL; NHL; HL (usually single group of nodes); HL

95
Q

Name 3 plasma cell disorders (aka ___).

A

dyscrasias; 1) multiple myeloma; 2) monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significans (MGUS); 3) waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

96
Q

What is the most common primary malignancy of bone?

A

multiple myeloma (metastatic cancer, carcinomas specifically, is the most common malignant lesion of bone overall)

97
Q

Multiple myeloma is a malignant proliferation of ___ cells in the ___. High serum __ may be present, which stimulates __ cell growth and __ production.

A

plasma; bone marrow; IL-6; plasma; immunoglobulin

98
Q

Name the 6 clinical features of multiple myeloma and the most common cause of death.

A

1) bone pain w/hypercalcemia; 2) elevated serum protein (Ig); 3) inc risk of infxn (monoclonal ABs only- most common cause of death); 4) Rouleaux formation of RBCs on blood smear (due to inc. protein, which decreases charge btwn RBCs); 5) primary AL amyloidosis (excess free light chains deposit); 6) proteinuria (free light chains)

99
Q

In multiple myeloma, you see bone pain with hypercalcemia, because neoplastic plasma cells activate the ___ on osteoclasts, leading to __ skeletal lesions seen on x-ray, especially in these two bones. You therefore have an increased risk for ___.

A

RANK receptor; lytic (punched out); vertebrae and skull; fracture

100
Q

In multiple myeloma, there is elevated serum protein since the neoplastic plasma cells produce ___. A __ is present on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP), most commonly due to ___ (and a little ___)

A

immunoglobulin; M-spike; IgG; IgA

101
Q

In multiple myeloma, you have proteinuria because ___ is excreted in the urine as ___ protein. If it deposits in the kidney tubules, it leads to risk for ___ (___ kidney)

A

free light chain; Bence Jones; renal failure; myeloma

102
Q

In monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), you see increased ___ with ___ on SPEP. Other features of multiple myeloma are absent (name 4)

A

serum protein; M-spike; no lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia, AL amyloid, or Bence Jones protein

103
Q

MGUS is common in ___ (seen in 5% of __ yo individuals); __% of patients develop multiple myeloma each year. Acute complications are treated with ___.

A

elderly; 70; 1; plasmapheresis (removes IgM from the serum)

104
Q

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia is a __-cell lymphoma with ____ production. Name 4 clinical features

A

B; IgM; 1) generalized LAD (no lytic bone lesions); 2) increased serum protein with M spike (comprised of IgM); 3) visual and neurologic deficits (retinal hemorrhage or stroke) due to IgM caused serum hyper viscosity; 4) bleeding (viscous serum results in defective plt aggregation)

105
Q

In which malignancy do you see an IgG M-spike and in which one do you see an IgM M-spike?

A

multiple myeloma; waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

106
Q

Name 3 langerhans cell histiocytoses (and the pneumonic trick)

A

Letterer-Siwe disease; Eosinophilic granuloma; Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
(if named after someone, it’s malignant and causes skin rash; if 2 people’s names it’s in children less than 2, and if 3 names, children greater than 3)

107
Q

Langerhans cells are specialized ___ cells found predominantly in the ___. Derived from bone marrow ___. They present antigen to ___.

A

dendritic; skin; monocytes; naive T cells

108
Q

In Langerhans cell histiocytosis, characteristic ___ are seen on electron microscopy. The cells are __+ and __+ by IHC

A

Birbeck granules (tennis racket); CD1a; S100

109
Q

___ disease is a malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells that presents with skin rash, cystic skeletal defects, in an infant less than 2 years old. Multiple organs may be involved, and it is rapidly curable/fatal.

A

Letterer-Siwe disease; fatal

110
Q

___ is a benign proliferation of Langerhans cells in bone, that classically presents with pathologic fracture in an adolescent. Skin is not involved. Bx shows langerhans cells with mixed inflammatory cells, including numerous ___.

A

Eosinophilic granuloma; eosinophils

111
Q

____ is a malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells that classically presents with a scalp rash, lytic skull defects, diabetes insipidus, and exopthalmos in a child (greater than 3)

A

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease