Ch 5: Genetic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three categories of human genetic disorders?

A

Mutations in single gene w/ large effects - highly penetrant, ie sickle cell anemia

Chromosomal Disorders - structural or numerical alteration (ie trisomy 21)

Complex multigenic disorders - disease in which a polymorphism changes the extent to which the likelihood changes with that gene (ie T2DM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mutations to what type of cells are transmitted to the progeny and can give rise to inherited diseases?

A

germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define mutation

A

a permanent change in the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A mutation that introduces a stop codon prematurely is best described as what type of mutation?

A. conserved missense mutation

B. Non-conserved missense mutation

C. Nonsense mutation

D. polysense mutation

A

C. Nonsense mutation - B-thalassemia

A. conserved missense mutation - change in AA that is biochemically similar, function preserves

B. Non-conserved missense mutation - change in AA that is biochemically not similar, function reduced or altered

D. polysense mutation - DFE (dont fuckin exist m8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How could a mutation in a noncoding sequence influence protein synthesis in a cell?

A

The mutation could cause problematic splicing, disturbed promoter or enhancer regions which would alter mRNA production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 27 year old male comes into his providers office for a very expensive, non-existent DNA test to figure out why his shit so busted. Which of the following situations, if found, would count as a frameshift mutation?

A. 3 bp deletion

B. 3 bp insertion

C. 1 bp deletion

D. 6 bp insertion

A

C. 1 bp deletion

if a multiple of 3 occurs it is not a frameshift becasue the reading frame is maintained p. 139. as far as severity… it seems that yo shit gets busted no matter what’s deleted or inserted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the mechanism of trinucleotide-repeat mutations.

A

An increase in three nucleotides, usually G’s and C’s. Some examples are Huntington’s or Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 24 year old woman presents markedly unhinged. She says her mother and her mother’s siblings were all unhinged and her grandmother was unhinged. What are the odds that her grandchild by her son will be unhinged.

A

0%

I was trying to hint mitochondrial inheritance and now i realize questions are hard. Allison’s son will be unhinged but his kids won’t be. If this is a dumb question, hit 5 and move on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or false: all congenital disorders are genetic

A

False: congenital syphilis

congenital just means born with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define pleiotropism and give an example.

A

a single mutation that leads to many end effects - sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance

A

disease is manifested in the heterozygous state, can occur in both males and females, and can be passed on by both males and females.

  • 1 parent is affected
  • 1/2 chance
  • effects non-enzymatic proteins and receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does incomplete penetrance affect autosomal dominant disorders?

A

incomplete penetrance would mean that only portion of the people who carry the mutation will express the mutation. This leads to variable expressivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differentiate between loss of function and gain of function mutations in autosomal dominant mutations?

A

Loss of function occurs when the mutation makes a defective protein or depletes a protein entirely rengering the process non-functional

Gain of function - less common, is characterized by excessive proteinfunction such as the over production of huntingtin in huntington’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the pattern of autosomal recessive inheritance

A

largest category of mendelian disorders, must have both alleles mutated in order to present with the disorder.

  • parents dont show it
  • children have 1/4 chance
  • if there is low occurrence in gen pop then consanguineous marriage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the most common features of autosomal recessive interitance

A
  • expression is more uniform
  • complete penetrance is common
  • early onset
  • new mutations can occur but are often undiagnosed
  • many mutated products are equally matched by functional products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does y-linked inheritance not happen?

A

most mutations on Y chromosome result in infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the X-linked pattern of inheritance

A

predominantly boys due to hemizygosity and inability to compensate with second X chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characterize X-linked recessive features

A
  • Passed down by heterozygous mother to son.

- Daughters of affected man are all carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four mechanisms categories involved in single-gene disorders?

A
  • Enzyme defects and their consequences
  • Defects in membrane receptors and transport systems
  • Alterations in the structure, function, or quantity or quantity of nonenzyme proteins
  • mutations resulting in unusual reaction to drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain how an enzyme deficiency or dysfunction would result in accumulation of substrate.

A

depending on where the block is, the lack of the reaction will cause substrate to accumulate or will shuttle the substrate into parallel pathways with a potential accumulation of a different product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe Marfan syndrome

A

a disorder of connective tissue, manifested by changes in skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes marfan syndrome and what are the two mechanisms in which the deficiency causes symptoms

A

results from inherent defect in an extracellular glycoprotein called fibrillin-1. Causes loss of structural support in microfibril rich connective tissues and excessive TGF-B activation

mechanisms

  • fibrillin is major component of microfibrils. These are found in aorta, ligaments, and ciliary zone around lens. FBN-1 underlies marfans, FBN-2 underlies contractural arachnodactyly
  • loss of fibrillin activates TGF-B which activates metalloproteases and destroys ECM.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the morphology of marfan syndrome

A

patient is tall, long extremities, lax joints in extremities and fingers, variety of spinal deformities.

Ocular subluxation out and superiorly

Cardiovascular lesions including aneurysm and dissection - most common are mitral valve prolapse and dilation of the ascending aorta.

Treated with B-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe ehler-danlos syndromes

A

comprise a clinically genetically heterogeneous group of disorders that result in some defect in the synthesis or structure of fibrillar collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the EDS follow an autosomal recessive pattern of genetic inheritance.

A

Kyphoscoliosis (VI) - hypotonia, joint laxity, congenital scoliosis, ocular fragility

Dermatosparaxis (VIIc) - severe skin fragility, cutis laxa bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the clinical findings of classic (I/II) EDS?

A

Skin and joint hypermobility, atrophic scars, easy bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the cause of the kyphoscoliosis (VI ) type of EDS

A

mutations in genes encoding lysyl hydroxylase - most common form of the autosomal recessive type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does the vascular form (IV) of EDS result from

A

deficiencies in type III collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do the arthrochalasia (VIIa,b) and dermatosparaxis type (VIIc) of EDS result from?

A

defect in the conversion of type I procollagen into collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the cause of classic (I) EDS

A

mutations in type V collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe familial hypercholesterolemia

A

an autosomal dominant receptor disease that is a consequence of a mutation in the LDL receptor needed for the absorption of cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the major and immediate source of plasma LDL

A

IDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are locations the five mutation classes correspond to in familial hypercholesterolemia

A

1-5 is

synthesis
transport
Binding
clustering 
recycling
34
Q

What are the two pathologic consequences of an inherited deficiency of a functional lysosomal enzyme

A
  • Catabolism of the substrate of the missing enzyme results in accumulation (primary) making the lysosome large and numerous
  • impaired autophagy gives rise to secondary accumulation of autophagic substrates such as effete mitochondria which can lead to buildup of free radicals.
35
Q

What are the three treatment approaches for lysosomal diseases?

A
  • enzyme replacement therapy
  • substrate reduction therapy
  • improving enzyme function (molecular chaperone therapy)
36
Q

What are GM2 gangliosidoses and which is the most common?

A

a group of three lysosomal storage diseases caused by an inability to catabolize GM2 gangliosides.

Tay-Sachs disease

37
Q

What is the cause of Tay-sachs disease?

A

mutations in the alpha subunit locus on chromosome 15 that cause a severe deficiency in of hexosaminidase A

main population east european ashkenazi jewish

38
Q

Describe the morphology of tay-sachs disease

A

deficiency in hexosaminidase A leads to a buildup of GM2 gangliosidoses in all tissues but the clinically relevant tissue is neural and retinal tissue. Cytoplasmic inclusions of fat globules with proliferation of microglia.

39
Q

What are the clinical features of Tay-Sachs disease?

A
  • Cherry red spot on macula
  • Manifest symptoms at 6 mo
  • motor and metal deterioration over 1-2 completely vegetative state is reached
  • death age 2-3
40
Q

What are you measuring established by a biochemical assay for Niemann-Pick Disease type A/B disease to make a diagnosis

A

sphingomyelinase

41
Q

Describe Niemann-Pick diseases A and B.

A

They are two related disorders that are characterized by lysosomal accumulation of sphingomyelin due to an inherited deficiency in sphingomyelinase

Type A

  • severe infantile form with extensive neurological involvement
  • progressive wasting and death within 3 years

Type B

  • organomegaly but no CNS involvement
  • Survive into adulthood
42
Q

Describe the morphology in Type A Niemann-Pick disease.

A
  • missense mutation causes complete loss of sphingomyelinase
  • Affected cells become large due to accumulation in lysosomes
  • vacuolation and ballooning of neurons, retinal cherry-red spot present in 1/3 of people
43
Q

Describe Niemann-Pick disease type C

A

more common than types A and B combined, mutations in NPC1 and NPC2 with NPC 1 causing 95% of cases.

responsible for transporting free cholesterol. results in hydrops fetalis or stillbirth. If survive to childhood, ataxic, vertical supranuclear gaze, dystonia, dysarthria, and psychomotor regression.

44
Q

Describe gaucher disease

A

cluster of autosomal recessive disorders resulting from mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase
(cleaves glucose from ceramide). activation of macrophages to clear these out also activate IL-1, IL-6, TNF

45
Q

Explain the clinical subtype I of gaucher disease

A
  • Most common
  • chronic nonneuronopathic form
  • glucocerebrosides is limited to mononuclear phagocytes
  • less but present levels of glucocerebrosidase and shorter longevity
46
Q

Explain the clinical subtype II of gaucher disease

A
  • acute neuronopathic gaucher
  • infantile acute cerebral pattern
  • no detectable enzyme activity
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • CNS involvement leading to early death
47
Q

Explain the clinical subtype III of gaucher disease

A

Intermediate between type one and 2

CNS involvement begins in adolescence or early adulthood

48
Q

Describe the morphology of Gaucher disease

A
  • accumulation of glucocerebrosides
  • distended phagocytic cells known as gaucher cells are found in spleen, liver, bone marrow, lymph nodes, tonsils, thymus, and peyer patches
  • In type I spleen is enlarged up to to 10 Kg, bone erosion, neuronal atrophy
49
Q

What are the clinical features of gaucher disease

A

type I

  • symptoms appear in adult life and are related to splenomegaly and bone problems
  • compatible with long life though progressive

Type II/III

  • CNS dysfunction and complete lack of enzyme
  • Replacement therapy with recombinant enzymes shows promise
50
Q

Describe MPS (mucopolysaccharidoses)

A

group of closely related syndromes that result from genetically determined deficiencies of enzymes involved in the degradation of mucopolysaccharides (glycosaminoglycans)

In general

  • coarse facial features
  • clouding of cornea
  • Joint stiffness
  • Mental Retardation
51
Q

What are the glycosaminoglycans that accumulate in MPSs

A

dermatan sulfate, heparan sulfate, keratin sulfate, and chondroitin sulfate.

52
Q

Which of the MPSs is not inherited by an autosomal recessive pattern

A

Hunter Syndrome (MPS II) - no corneal clouding and milder in clinical course

53
Q

Describe the morphology of MPSs

A
  • mucopolysaccharides are found in mononuclear phagocytic cells, endothelial cells, intimal smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts
  • Hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformities, valvular lesions and subendothelial arterial deposits (particularly coronary arteries),and lesions in the brain are common threads
54
Q

what deficiency occurs in Hurler’s syndrome

A

1-a-iduronidase

most severe form of MPS

death at 6-10

55
Q

Describe the glycogen storage diseases

A

result in a hereditary deficiency of one of the enzymes involved in the synthesis or sequential degradation of glycogen

56
Q

What type of GSD is predominant in the liver and what enzyme is deficient

A

Von Gierke’s type I

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Hepatomegally and hypoglycemia

57
Q

What type of GSD is predominant in the myopathic forms

A

McArdles disease (GSD V)

Muscle Phosphorylase

Painful cramps, exercise intolerance

58
Q

What type of GSD is associated with death early in life by a deficiency of a-glucosidase and lack of branching enzyme?

A

Pompe Disease (GSD II)

cardiomegaly most prominent feature

59
Q

What are the usual causes of aneuploidy?

A

Non-disjunction

anaphase lag

aneuploidy is any deviation from normal 46, XX/XY

60
Q

Is monosomy or trisomies of autosomal chromosomes more likely to lead to death?

A

monosomies

61
Q

Describe the phenomenon of genetic mosaicism

A

mitotic errors early in development give rise to two or more populations of cells with different chromosomal complement in the same individual.

62
Q

Describe the incidence and associated karyotypes of trisomy 21

A

most common cause of chromosomal disorders and it is a major cause of MR.

  • 1 in 700
  • Maternal age important
    • 1:1550 <20
    • 1:25 >45
63
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of Down Syndrome

A
  • Flat facial profile
  • oblique palpebral fissure
  • epicanthic folds
  • 40% have congenital heart disease
  • 10-20X increase in developing acute leukemia
  • abnormal immune responses
64
Q

Describe clinical findings in trisomy 18 (edwards syndrome)

A
  • prominent occiput
  • low set ears
  • micrognathia
  • MR
  • rocker bottom feet
65
Q

Describe the clinical findings in trisomy 13 ( patau syndrome)

A
  • microphthalmia
  • cleft lip and palate
  • Microcephaly and MR
  • Rocker bottom feet
66
Q

What is the group of chromosomal disorders to which both DiGeorge Syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome belong

A

Chromosome 22q11.2 deletion syndrome.

67
Q

Describe Digeorge syndrome

A

Thymic hypoplasia with diminished T-cell immunity and parathyroid hypoplasia (hypocalcemia)

characterized by low set ears

68
Q

Describe velocardiofacial syndrome

A

congenital heart disease involving outflow tracts, facial dysmorphism, and developmental delay.

69
Q

What is the lyon hypothesis

A

AKA X-inactivation

  • only 1 X is genetically active
  • the other of maternal or paternal origin is silenced randomly
  • happens in all cells of the blastocyst
  • each cell therefore derived has the same pattern of inactivation.
70
Q

What is the incidence and karyotype of Kleinfelter syndrome?

A
  • 1:660 live male births

Presence of 2+ X chromosomes with 2+ Y chromosomes

71
Q

Describe the clinical findings of Kleinfelter syndrome

A
  • hard to diagnose before puberty
  • underdeveloped secondary sex characteristics
  • gynecomastia
  • Infertility
72
Q

What is the incidence and karyotype of turner syndrome

A
  • 1:2500

- X0

73
Q

Describe the clinical findings of Turner syndrome

A

low posterior hairline

  • webbed neck
  • broad chest and wide nipples
  • cubitus valgus
  • streak ovaries
  • coarctation of the aorta
74
Q

Define hermaphrodite compared to pseudohermaphrodite

A

Hermaphrodite - contains both testicular and ovarian tissues

Pseudohermaphrodite - disagreement between the phenotypic and gonadal sex (androgen insensitivity)

75
Q

What nucleotides are involved in trinucleotide repeats.

A

CAG

Fragile X is CGG

76
Q

Describe the clinical features for fragile X syndrome

A

2nd most commom cause of MR due to mutation in FMR1 gene.

77
Q

What does anticipation refer to with respect to fragile X

A

observation that clinicala features of fragile X syndrome worsen with each successive generation, as if the mutation becomes increasingly deleterious.

78
Q

describe the threshold effect in mitochondrial diseases

A

A certain number of diseased mitochondria must be present in a cell to make that cell diseased.

79
Q

What is genomic imprinting

A

Selective inactivation of either the maternal or paternal allele. It is then transmitted throughout the somatic cells.

80
Q

Describe prader-willi syndrome

A
  • MR
  • short stature
  • hypotonia
  • profound hyperphagia
  • small hands and feet
  • hypogonadism

Paternal deletion/silence chromosome 15 q12

81
Q

Describe Angleman syndrome

A
  • MR
  • ataxic gait
  • seizures
  • inappropriate laughter

Deletion of maternal chromosome 15 q12

82
Q

What is uniparental disomy

A

When a cell has two copies of a chromosome from one parent and no copies of that chromosome from the other parent.