Ch. 4 Hemodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Edema

A

Accumulation of fluid in Tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Effusions

A

Accumulation of fluid in body cavities:

  • Pleural
  • Pericardial
  • Peritoneal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 primary causes of fluid accumulation

A
  1. Increased hydrostatic pressure

2. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Under normal conditions, what system removes the fluid that naturally accumulates in tissue?

A

Lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the fluid that accumulates in a non-inflammatory state of edema

A

Protein-poor (Transudate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of Pathologies caused by increased hydrostatic pressure causing edema/effusion

A

CHF
Ascites
Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of pathologies caused by reduced oncotic pressure (hypoproteinemia)

A

Nephrotic syndrome

Malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome

A

Loss of protein in urine due to abnormally permeable glomerular capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Factors that can cause lymphedema

A

Trauma
Fibrosis
Tumors
Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patient presents with edema of the external genitalia and lower limbs bilaterally. What is the name of this presentation and what is caused by?

A

Elephantiasis caused by parasitic filariasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dependent Edema

A

Edema that is influenced by gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Periorbital edema is a common characteristic of disease affecting what organ system?

A

Severe Renal Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chylous Effusion

A

milky peritoneal effusion caused by lymphatic blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hyperemia

A

arteriolar dilation leads to increased blood flow resulting in erythema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Congestion

A

Passive process resulting from reduced outflow of blood from tissue. (Venous block)
- Caused primarily by increased hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Morphology of chronic pulmonary congestion

A

Septa of alveoli are thickened and fibrotic with hemosiderin-laden macrophages called heart failure cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe nutmeg liver

A

Acute hepatic congestion causes the central vein and sinusoids to be distended. Centrilobular hepatocytes that are distal from the hepatic arteries undergo ischemic necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hemostasis

A

process by which blood clots form at sites of vascular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hemorrhagic disorders

A

excessive bleeding caused by insufficient hemostatic mechanisms to control blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Thrombotic disorders

A

Abnormal clotting within intact blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hemostasis steps

A
  1. Arteriolar Vasoconstriction by endothelin
  2. Primary Hemostasis by exposure of vWF and collagen that promotes platelet adherence
  3. Secondary Hemostasis (deposition of fibrin)
  4. Clot resorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tissue factor

A

Binds and activates factor VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Function of ADP and TxA2 in hemostasis

A

Induce platelet aggregation via GpIIb-IIIa binding to fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a-granules of platelets

A

contain P-selectin, fibrinogen, Factor V, and vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

d-granules of platelets

A

contain ADP, ATP, Ca, Serotonin, and epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does Aspirin cause a mild bleeding defect?

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase which reduces TxA2 production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

A

Defect in GpIIb-IIIa leads to decreased binding of platelets to fibrinogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define the Intrinsic Pathway of clotting

A

XII–> XI–> IX + VIII–> X + V –> Thrombin–> Fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define the Extrinsic Pathway of clotting

A

VII–> VII + TF–> IX–> X + V–> Thrombin–> Fibrin + XI
* Factor XI then activates Factor IX
Figure 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What role to platelets play in the clotting cascade?

A

Provide negatively charged phospholipid surface for the assembly of coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What factors are affected by Vit K antagonists?

A

II, VII, IX, and X

Protein C and S

32
Q

Prothrombin Time

A

assesses the extrinsic pathway of coagulation

Factors II, V, VII, X, Fibrinogen

33
Q

Partial thromboplastin time

A

Assesses intrinsic pathway

Factors II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII, Fibrinogen

34
Q

Factor XII deficiency

A

susceptibility to thrombosis

35
Q

Which factors are implicated in moderate to severe bleeding disorders?

A

V, VII, VIII, IX, X

36
Q

Thrombin functions

A
  1. Conversion of fibrinogen
  2. Platelet Activation
  3. Pro-inflammatory effect
  4. Anti-coagulant effect in the presence of normal endothelium (PGI2, tPA, NO)
37
Q

Plasmin

A

Most important enzyme of fibrolysis

Breaks down fibrin

38
Q

t-PA

A

tissue plasminogen activator- activates plasmin to break down clots
*Important for stroke patients within 6 hours of onset

39
Q

What regulates plasmin activity?

A

a2-plasmin inhibitor

40
Q

Endothelium factors that are antithrombotic towards platelets

A
  1. PGI2
  2. NO
  3. ADPase
41
Q

Antithrombotic factors produced by endothelium that interfere with coagulation

A

Thrombomodulin
Protein C Receptor
heparin-like molecules
tissue factor pathway inhibitor

42
Q

Protein C/S complex

A

inhibits Factors V and VIII

43
Q

Heparin-like molecules

A

bind and activate antithrombin III

Complex inhibits thrombin and Factors IX-XII

44
Q

Primary hemostasis bleeding disorders

A

vWF disease

  • causes small bleeds in skin or mucus membranes
  • presents with petechiae and/or purpura
45
Q

Secondary hemostasis bleeding disorders

A

Coag factor deficiencies

- bleeding into soft tissues and joints (hemarthrosis)

46
Q

Virchow’s Triad

A

Primary abnormalities that lead to thrombosis

  1. Endothelial Injury
  2. Hypercoagulability
  3. Abnormal blood flow
47
Q

How do stasis and turbulent blood flow contribute to thrombosis?

A

Promote endothelial activation
Platelets come into contact with endothelium
Prevent washout of clotting factors (stasis)

48
Q

Primary hypercoagulability

A

Genetic disorders such as Factor V Leiden disease

  • Arg to Glu substitution
  • Cannot be inactivated by Protein C
49
Q

Prothrombin mutation

A

3’UTR SNP that leads to increased prothrombin

50
Q

Secondary Hypercoagulability

A

Prolonged bed rest (say a flight)
MI
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

51
Q

When should hypercoagulability disorders be considered in a patient?

A

Patients <50 who present with thrombosis

52
Q

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

A

Appearance of ab’s against heparin complexes and platelet factor 4
- Ab binds to complex and inactivates it, which consumes the anti-coagulants and create a pro-thrombotic state

53
Q

A female patient presents with recurrent thromboses, miscarriages, and thrombocytopenia. What disease encompasses these presentations?

A

Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome

54
Q

Arterial Thrombi grow in what direction compared to venous thrombi?

A

Arterial- Retrograde
Venous- direction of blood flow
* Both are towards heart

55
Q

Lines of Zahn

A

platelet/fibrin deposits that signify thrombus has formed in flowing blood (antemortem clots)

56
Q

Mural Thrombi

A

Occur in heart chambers or aortic lumen

57
Q

Arteries primarily affected by arterial thrombi (greatest to least)

A

Coronary>Cerebral>Femoral Aa

58
Q

Vegetations

A

thrombi of heart valves that bacteria/fungi can adhere to

59
Q

4 fates of a Thrombosis

A
  1. Propagation
  2. Embolization
  3. Dissolution
  4. Organization and Recanalization
60
Q

Which vein thrombosis usually embolisms more: superficial or deep?

A

Deep (popliteal, femoral, Iliac veins)

61
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

Widespread formation of thrombi in the microcirculation

62
Q

Paradoxical Embolism

A

Embolus that enters systemic arterial circulation

63
Q

Systemic Thromboembolisms

A

Usually arise from mural thrombi, aortic aneurysms, vegetations.
- Most travel to lower extremity

64
Q

Fat Embolism

A

Release of bone marrow fat from fractured long bones that embolisms in the lung
* Diffuse petechial rash can be seen diagnostically

65
Q

Decompression Sickness

A

Rapid changes in atmospheric pressure that cause gases to become insoluble in blood and lead to embolism

66
Q

Amniotic Fluid Embolism

A

Introduction of amniotic fluid or fetal tissue into maternal circulation via a tear in placental membranes or rupture of uterine veins
Presents with sudden onset of dyspnea, cyanosis, and shock

67
Q

Infarction

A

Ischemic Necrosis caused by occlusion of either arterial supply or venous drainage

68
Q

Types of infarcts

A

Red (Hemorrhagic)
White (anemic)

Septic or bland

69
Q

White infarcts occur mainly in what type of organs/tissues

A

Organs/tissues with one blood supply and where tissue density limits pooling of blood (heart, kidney, spleen)

70
Q

Shock

A

State of diminished cardiac output or reduced effective circulation that leads to cellular hypoxia

71
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

low CO due to pump failure

72
Q

Hypovolemic Shock

A

Low blood volume

73
Q

Septic Shock

A

triggered by gram (+) infection followed by gram (-) and fungi infection
Figure 4-20

74
Q

Factors of Septic shock

A

Everything that can go wrong does so read up page 132-133

75
Q

Stages of Shock

A
  1. Nonprogressive- compensating with reflexes (RAAS, ADH, etc)
  2. Progressive- tissue hypoperfusion, lactic acidosis
  3. Irreversible- you dead