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MedTerm - Winter 2024 > Ch 5-7 > Flashcards

Ch 5-7 Flashcards

GET AN A ON THIS F-ING FINAL

1
Q

What is another word for skin

A

Integument

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2
Q

what is androgen

A

Generic term for an agent (usually a hormone, such as testosterone or androsterone) stimulates development of male characteristics

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3
Q

what is a ductule

A

A very small duct

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4
Q

what does it mean to synthesize

A

Forming a complex substance by the union of simpler compounds or elements

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5
Q

what are the two distinct layers of the skin

A

epidermis
dermis

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6
Q

where is the epidermidis thickest

A

On the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet

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7
Q

what are the sub layers of the epidermidis called

A

Strata

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8
Q

what are the cells of the stratum corneum filled with when they die

A

Keratin

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9
Q

in what layer of the epidermidis is melanin produced

A

The basal layer

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10
Q

what is another name for the dermis

A

the Corium

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11
Q

what is the subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis, primarily made of

A

Loose connective tissue and adipose (fat) tissue interlaced with blood vessels

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12
Q

what are the accessory organs of the skin

A

Integumentary glands, hair, and nails

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13
Q

what are the two important glands located in the dermis that produce secretions

A

sudoriferous glands (sweat glands)
sebacious glands (oil glands)

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14
Q

What do the sudoriferous glands produce

A

sweat

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15
Q

what do the sebaceous glands produce

A

oil

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16
Q

what are exocrine glands

A

glands that secrete their products through ducts to an outer surface of the body/organ/tissue/vessel rather than directly into the bloodstream

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17
Q

what is the name for the visible part of the hair

A

The hair shaft

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18
Q

what is the part of hair that is embedded in the dermis

A

The hair root

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19
Q

what is the hair follicle

A

The root of the hair together with its coverings

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20
Q

what is the papilla of the hair

A

A covering for a loop of capillaries enclosed at the bottom of the hair follicle

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21
Q

What does the CF “adip/o” mean

A

fat

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22
Q

What are the CFs for “fat”

A

adip/o
lip/o
steat/o

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23
Q

What does the CF “lip/o” mean

A

fat

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24
Q

What does the CF “steat/o” mean

A

fat

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25
Q

What does the CF “cutane/o” mean

A

skin

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26
Q

What are the CFs for “skin”

A

cutane/o
dermat/o
derm/o

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27
Q

What does the CF “dermat/o” mean

A

skin

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28
Q

What does the CF “derm/o” mean

A

skin

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29
Q

What does the CF “hidr/o” mean

A

sweat

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30
Q

What are the CFs for “sweat”

A

hidr/o
sudor/o

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31
Q

What does the CF “sudor/o” mean

A

sweat

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32
Q

What does the CF “ichthy/o” mean

A

dry, scaly

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33
Q

What is the CF for “dry/scaly”

A

ichthy/o

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34
Q

What does the CF “kerat/o” mean

A

horny tissue; hard; cornea

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35
Q

What is the CF for “horny tissue/hard/cornea”

A

kerat/o

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36
Q

What does the CF “myc/o” mean

A

fungus (plural, fungi)

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37
Q

What is the CF for “fungus”

A

myc/o

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38
Q

What does the CF “onych/o” mean

A

nail

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39
Q

What are the CFs for “nail”

A

onych/o
ungu/o

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40
Q

What does the CF “ungu/o” mean

A

nail

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41
Q

What does the CF “pil/o” mean

A

hair

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42
Q

What are the CFs for “hair”

A

pil/o
trich/o

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43
Q

What does the CF “trich/o” mean

A

hair

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44
Q

What does the CF “scler/o” mean

A

hardening; sclera (white of eye)

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45
Q

What is the CF for “hardening/sclera (white of eye)”

A

scler/o

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46
Q

What does the CF “seb/o” mean

A

sebum, sebaceous

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47
Q

What is the CF for “sebum/sebaceous”

A

seb/o

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48
Q

What does the CF “squam/o” mean

A

scale

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49
Q

What is the CF for “scale”

A

squam/o

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50
Q

What does the CF “xen/o” mean

A

foreign, strange

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51
Q

What is the CF for “foreign/strange”

A

xen/o

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52
Q

What does the CF “xer/o” mean

A

dry

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53
Q

What is the CF for “dry”

A

xer/o

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54
Q

What does the suffix -derma mean

A

skin

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55
Q

What is the suffix for “skin”

A

-derma

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56
Q

what is dermatology

A

The medical specialty concerned with diseases that directly affect the skin and systemic diseases that manifest their effects on the skin

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57
Q

What are skin lesions

A

Areas of tissue that have been pathologically altered by injury, wound, or infection

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58
Q

What does it mean for a lesion to be localized

A

The lesion affects tissue over an area of a definite size

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59
Q

what does it mean for a lesion to be a systemic

A

The lesion affects tissue that is widely spread throughout the body

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60
Q

what are the two types of skin lesions

A

Primary skin lesion
secondary skin lesion

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61
Q

What are the qualities of primary skin lesions

A

They are the initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue and may be flat or elevated

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62
Q

what are the qualities of secondary skin lesions

A

They are changes that take place in the primary lesion as a result of infection, scratching, trauma, or various stages of a disease

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63
Q

what are the three levels of burns with their common names

A

First- degree (superficial) burns
second-degree (partial thickness) burns
third- degree (full thickness) burns

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64
Q

what layers of skin do first-degree burns effect

A

The epidermidis

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65
Q

what layers of skin do second-degree burns effect

A

The epidermidis and part of the dermis

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66
Q

what layers of skin do third-degree burns effect

A

the epidermidis and the dermis as well as some of the underlying connective tissue

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67
Q

what are characteristics of first-degree burns

A

Skin redness
acute sensitivity to touch, heat, or cold
generally without blisters

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68
Q

what are characteristics of second-degree burns

A

Skin redness
acute sensitivity to touch, heat, or cold
fluid filled blisters form

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69
Q

What are characteristics of third-degree burns

A

Waxy skin
charred skin
insensitivity to touch

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70
Q

What are neoplasms

A

Abnormal growth of new tissue that are classified as benign or malignant

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71
Q

what are benign neoplasms

A

Non-cancerous growths composed of the same type of cells as the tissue in which they are growing

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72
Q

what are malignant neoplasms

A

Cancerous cells that tend to become invasive and spread to remote regions of the body (metastasis)

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73
Q

what do pathologist do in regards to cancer

A

Grade and stage tumors to help and diagnosis and treatment planning, provide a possible prognosis, and aid comparison of treatment results when different treatment methods are used

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74
Q

how are tumors graded

A

Cells from the tumor or a valuated to determine how closely they resemble normal tissue; the greater the difference means the greater the seriousness of the cancer

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75
Q

what does TNM grading stand for

A

T - size and invasiveness of the primary tumor
N - area lymph nodes involved
M - invasiveness (metastasis) of the primary tumor

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76
Q

What is basal cell carcinoma

A

A malignancy of the basal layer of the epidermis, or hair follicles

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77
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma

A

Malignancy that arises from skin undergoes pathological hardening (keratinizing) of epidermal cells

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78
Q

what is malignant melanomas

A

A malignant growth of melanocytes

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79
Q

What is an abscess

A

Localized collection of pus at the site of an infection (characteristically a staphylococcal infection)

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80
Q

What is acne

A

Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin with characteristic lesions that include blackheads (comedos), inflammatory papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts and are usually associated with seborrhea; also called Acme vulgaris

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81
Q

What is alopecia

A

Partial or complete loss of hair resulting from normal aging, and endocrine disorder, drug reaction, anti-cancer medication, or a skin disease; commonly called baldness

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82
Q

what is Bowen disease

A

Very early form of skin cancer, which is easily curable and characterized by a red, scaly patch on the skin; also called squamous cell carcinoma in situ

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83
Q

what is cellulitis

A

Diffuse (widespread), acute infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

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84
Q

what is chloasma

A

Pigmentary skin discoloration usually occurring and yellowish-brown patches on spots

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85
Q

what is comedo

A

Typical small skin lesion of acne vulgaris caused by accumulation of keratin, bacteria, and dried sebum plugging in excretory duct of the skin

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86
Q

what is a decubitus ulcer

A

Inflammation, sore, or skin deterioration caused by prolonged pressure from lying in one position that prevents blood flow to the tissues, usually an elderly bedridden person; also known as a pressure ulcer

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87
Q

what is Ecchymosis

A

Skin discoloration consisting of large, and regularly formed hemorrhagic areas with colors changing from bluish black to greenish brown or yellow; commonly called a bruise

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88
Q

what is eczema

A

Chronic inflammatory skin condition that is characterized by erythema, papules, vesicles, pustules, scales, crust, and scabs and accompanied by intense itching (pruritus); also called atopic dermatitis

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89
Q

what is erythema

A

Redness of the skin caused by swelling of the capillaries

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90
Q

what is eschar

A

dead matter that is sloughed off from the surface of the skin, especially after a burn

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91
Q

What is impetigo

A

Bacterial skin infection characterized by isolated pustules and become crusted and rupture

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92
Q

what is keratosis

A

thickened area of the epidermidis or any horny growth on the skin (such as a callus or wart)

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93
Q

what is lentigo

A

Small brown macules, especially on the face and arms, brought on by sun exposure, usually in middle age or older person

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94
Q

what is pallor

A

Unnatural paleness or absence of color in skin

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95
Q

what is pediculosis

A

Infestation with lice, transmitted by personal contact or common use of brushes, combs, or headgear

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96
Q

what is petechia

A

Minute, pinpoint hemorrhage under the skin

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97
Q

what is pruritus

A

Intense itching

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98
Q

what is psoriasis

A

Chronic skin disease characterized by itchy red patches covered by thick, dry, silvery scales and caused by excessive development of the basal layer of the epidermidis

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99
Q

What is purpura

A

Any of several bleeding disorders characterized by hemorrhage into the tissues, particularly beneath the skin or mucous membranes, producing Ecchymosis or petechiae

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100
Q

What is scabies

A

Contagious skin disease transmitted by the inch mite, commonly through sexual contact

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101
Q

What is tinea

A

Fungal skin infection whose name commonly indicates the body part affected; also called ringworm

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102
Q

what is urticaria

A

Allergic reaction of the skin characterized by the eruption of pale red elevated patches called wheals or hives

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103
Q

what is verruca

A

Epidermal growth caused by a virus; also known as warts

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104
Q

what is vitiligo

A

Localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches

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105
Q

what is an allergy skin test

A

Any test in which a suspected allergen or sensitizer is applied to or injected into the skin to determine the patient’s sensitivity to it

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106
Q

what is an intradermal allergy skin test

A

Skin test that identify suspected allergens by subcutaneously injecting small amounts of extracts of the suspected allergens and observing the skin for a subsequent reaction

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107
Q

What is a patch allergy skin test

A

Skin test that identifies allergic contact derma Titus by applying a suspected allergy into a patch, which is then taped onto the skin, usually the forearm, and observing the area 24 hours later for a response

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107
Q

What is a scratch allergy skin test

A

Skin test that identify suspected allergen by placing a small quantity of the suspected allergen on a lightly scratched area of the skin; also called puncture test or prick test

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107
Q

What is a culture and sensitivity (C&S) test

A

Laboratory test to determine the presence of pathogens in patients with suspected wound infection and identify the appropriate drug therapy to which the organism responds (sensitivity)

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108
Q

What is a biopsy (Bx, bx)

A

Representative tissue sample removed from a body site for microscopic examination

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109
Q

what is a frozen section (FS) biopsy

A

Ultra thin slice of tissue from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination

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110
Q

what is a needle biopsy

A

Removal of a small tissue sample for examination using a hollow needle, usually attached to a syringe

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111
Q

what is a punch biopsy

A

Removal of a small quart of tissue using a hollow punch

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112
Q

what is a shave biopsy

A

Removal of elevated lesions using a surgical blade

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113
Q

what is a Mohs procedure

A

Procedure that involves progressive removal and examination of layers of cancer containing skin until only cancer free tissue remains; also called micrographic surgery

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114
Q

what is a skin graft

A

transplantation of healthy tissue to an injured site

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115
Q

what is an allograft skin graft

A

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person; also called homograft

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116
Q

what is an autograft skin graft

A

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one side to another site in the same individual

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117
Q

what is a synthetic skin graft

A

Transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen fibers arranged in a lattice pattern

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118
Q

what is a xenograft skin graft

A

Transplantation Durmaz only from a foreign donor (usually a pig) and transferred to a human; also called heterograft

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119
Q

What is a chemical peel

A

Chemical removal of the outer layers of skin to treat acne scarring in general keratosis; also called chemabrazing

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120
Q

what is cryosurgery

A

Use of subfreezing temperature (commonly liquid nitrogen) to destroy or eliminate abnormal tissue, such as tumors, warts, and unwanted, cancerous, or infected tissue

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121
Q

what is debridement

A

Removal of necrotized tissue from a wound by surgical excision, enzymes, or chemical agents

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122
Q

what is dermabrasion

A

Rubbing (abrasion) using wire brushes or sandpaper to mechanically scrape away (abrade) the epidermis

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123
Q

what is fulguration

A

Tissue destruction by means of high frequency electric current; also called electrodesiccation

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124
Q

what is photodynamic therapy

A

Procedure in which cells selectively treated with an agent called a photosensitizer are exposed to light to produce a reaction that destroys the cells

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125
Q

what do antiacne agents do

A

Reduce acne through varying mechanisms

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126
Q

what do antifungals do

A

Alter the cell wall or fungi or disrupt enzyme activity, resulting in cell death

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127
Q

what do antihistamines do

A

Inhibit allergic reactions of inflammation, redness, and itching caused by the release of histamine

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128
Q

what do anti-parasitics do

A

kill insect parasite, such as mites and lice

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129
Q

what do antiseptics do

A

inhibit growth of bacteria, thus preventing infections in cuts, scratches, and surgical incisions

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130
Q

What do corticosteroids do

A

Decrease inflammation and itching by suppressing immune system’s inflammatory response to tissue damage

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131
Q

what do keratolytics do

A

Destroy and soften the outer layer of skin so that it is sloughed off or shed

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132
Q

what do protectives do

A

Cover, cool, dry, or soothe inflamed skin

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133
Q

what do topical anesthetics do

A

Blocks sensation of pain by numbing the skin layers and mucous membranes

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134
Q

what is the primary function of the digestive system (or gastrointestinal system)

A

To break down food, prepare it for absorption, and eliminate waste

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135
Q

what is bilirubin

A

Orange-yellow pigment formed during destruction of erythrocytes that is taken up by the liver cells and eventually excreted in the feces

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136
Q

what is a bolus

A

Mass of masticated food ready for swallowing

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137
Q

what is a sphincter

A

Circular band of muscle fibers that constricts a passage or closes a natural opening of the body

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138
Q

what are triglycerides

A

Organic compounds, a true fat, that are made of one glycerol and three fatty acids

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139
Q

what is mastication

A

Mechanically breaking down food into smaller pieces

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140
Q

what are the three layers of the tooth

A

Hard enamel (outer shell)
Dentin (structure)
the pulp (nerves & blood vessels)

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141
Q

Another word for swallowing

A

Deglutition

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142
Q

what are the two structures that form the roof of the mouth

A

The hard and soft palate

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143
Q

which palette is anterior to the other

A

Hard palate

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144
Q

which palate is posterior to the other

A

soft palate

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145
Q

what is the pathway of food through the digestive system

A

Mouth
pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
anus

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146
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine in order

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

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147
Q

which part of the small intestine is the shortest

A

duodenum - 10 in.

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148
Q

What part of the small intestine is the longest

A

Ileum - 12 ft.

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149
Q

how long is the large intestine

A

5 ft.

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150
Q

What are the 4 portions of the colon (in order)

A

Ascending
transverse
descending
sigmoid

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151
Q

What does the liver weigh

A

approx. 3 to 4 pounds

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152
Q

What are the important functions of the liver

A

Producing bile
removing glucose from the blood to synthesize glycogen
releasing bilirubin
storing vitamins

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153
Q

What are the main functions of the pancreas

A

secreting insulin
producing enzymes

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154
Q

what is the main function of the gallbladder

A

Storing bile

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155
Q

What does the CF “gloss/o” mean

A

tongue

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156
Q

What are the CFs for “tongue”

A

gloss/o
lingu/o

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157
Q

What does the CF “lingu/o” mean

A

tongue

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158
Q

What does the CF “bucc/o” mean

A

cheek

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159
Q

What is the CF for “cheek”

A

bucc/o

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160
Q

What does the CF “cheil/o” mean

A

lip

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161
Q

What are the CFs for “lip”

A

cheil/o
labi/o

162
Q

what does the CF “labi/o” mean

A

lip

163
Q

What does the CF “gingiv/o” mean

A

gum(s)

164
Q

What is the CF for “gum(s)”

A

gingiv/o

165
Q

What does the CF “sial/o” mean

A

saliva, salivary gland

166
Q

What is the CF for “saliva/salivary gland”

A

sial/o

167
Q

What does the CF “esophag/o” mean

A

esophagus

168
Q

What is the CF for “esophagus”

A

esophag/o

169
Q

What does the CF “pharyng/o” mean

A

pharynx

170
Q

What is the CF for “pharynx”

A

pharyng/o

171
Q

What does the CF “pylor/o” mean

A

pylorus

172
Q

What is the CF for “pylorus”

A

pylor/o

173
Q

What does the CF “duoden/o” mean

A

duodenum (first part of the small intestine)

174
Q

What is the CF for “duodenum”

A

duoden/o

175
Q

What does the CF “enter/o” mean

A

intestine (usually small intestine)

176
Q

What is the CF for “intestine”

A

enter/o

177
Q

What does the CF “jejun/o” mean

A

jejunum (second part of small intestine)

178
Q

What is the CF for “jejunum”

A

jejun/o

179
Q

What does the CF “ile/o” mean

A

ileum (third part of small intestine)

180
Q

What is the CF for “ileum”

A

ile/o

181
Q

What does the CF “append/o” mean

A

appendix

182
Q

What are the CFs for “appendix”

A

append/o
appendic/o

183
Q

What does the CF “appendic/o” mean

A

appendix

184
Q

What does the CF “col/o” mean

A

colon

185
Q

What are the CFs for “colon”

A

col/o
colon/o

186
Q

What does the CF “colon/o” mean

A

colon

187
Q

What does the CF “sigmoid/o” mean

A

sigmoid colon

188
Q

What is the CF for “sigmoid colon”

A

sigmoid/o

189
Q

What does the CF “rect/o” mean

A

rectum

190
Q

What is the CF for “rectum”

A

rect/o

191
Q

What does the CF “proct/o” mean

A

anus, rectum

192
Q

What is the CF for “anus/rectum”

A

proct/o

193
Q

What does the CF “an/o” mean

A

anus

194
Q

What is the CF for “anus”

A

an/o

195
Q

What does the CF “cholangi/o” mean

A

bile vessel

196
Q

What is the CF for “bile vessel”

A

cholangi/o

197
Q

What does the CF “chol/e” mean

A

bile, gall

198
Q

What is the CF for “bile/gall”

A

chol/e

199
Q

What does the CF “choledoch/o” mean

A

bile duct

200
Q

What is the CF for “bile duct”

A

choledoch/o

201
Q

What does the suffix -orexia mean

A

appetite

202
Q

What is the suffix for “appetite”

A

-orexia

203
Q

What does the suffix -pepsia mean

A

digestion

204
Q

What is the suffix for “digestion”

A

-pepsia

205
Q

What does the suffix -phagia mean

A

swallowing, eating

206
Q

What is the suffix for “swallowing/eating”

A

-phagia

207
Q

What does the suffix -prandial mean

A

meal

208
Q

What is the suffix for “meal”

A

-prandial

209
Q

what is the branch of medicine concerned with digestive diseases

A

gastroenterology

210
Q

what is peptic ulcer disease

A

Circumscribed open sores primarily in the stomach or duodenum that cause bleeding or even leakage depending on depth

211
Q

what is hepatitis

A

inflammatory condition of the liver

212
Q

what is diverticulosis

A

small, blisterlike pockets (diverticula) develop in the inner lining of the large intestine and may balloon through the intestinal wall

213
Q

(T/F) Colorectal cancer is one of the least common types of intestinal cancer in the US

A

FALSE - it is one of the most common

214
Q

what is anorexia

A

lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat

215
Q

what is appendicitis

A

Inflammation of the appendix, usually caused by obstruction or infection

216
Q

What are ascites

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually as a result of chronic liver disease, neoplasm, or an inflammatory disorder in the abdomen

217
Q

What is borborygmus

A

Rumbling or gurgling noises that are audible at a distance and caused by passage of gas through the liquid contents of the intestine

218
Q

what is cachexia

A

Physical wasting that includes lots of weight and muscle mass and is commonly associated with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and cancer; also called wasting syndrome

219
Q

what is cholelithiasis

A

Presence or formation of gallstones in the gallbladder

220
Q

what is cirrhosis

A

Scarring and dysfunction of the liver caused by liver disease

221
Q

what is Crohn’s disease

A

Warm of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), usually of the ileum but possibly affecting any portion of the intestinal tract; also called regional enteritis

222
Q

what is dysentery

A

Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, that may be caused by ingesting water or food containing chemical irritant, bacteria, protozoa, or parasites and results and bloody diarrhea

223
Q

what is flatus

A

Gas in the G.I. tract; expelling of air from a body orifice, especially the anus

224
Q

what is Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus as a result of a malfunction of the sphinctor muscle at the inferior portion of the esophagus

225
Q

what is halitosis

A

Foul smelling breath

226
Q

what is hematemesis

A

Vomiting of blood from bleeding in the stomach or esophagus

227
Q

what are hemorrhoids

A

Swollen varicose veins in the anorectal region categorized as external or internal

228
Q

what is an intestinal obstruction

A

Mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines that occurs when the contents of the intestine cannot move forward through the intestinal tract because of a partial or complete blockage of the bowel

229
Q

what is irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

A

Symptom complex marked by an abdominal pain and altered bowel function (typically constipation, diarrhea, or alternating constipation and diarrhea) for which no organic causing me determine; also called spastic colon

230
Q

what is malabsorption syndrome

A

Symptom complex of the small intestine characterized by the impaired passage of nutrients, minerals, or fluids through the intestinal villi into the blood or lymph

231
Q

what is melena

A

Dark, tar like feces that contain digested blood from bleeding in the esophagus or stomach

232
Q

what is obesity

A

Excessive accumulation of fat that exceeds the body skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20% or more above ideal body weight

233
Q

what is morbid obesity

A

Obesity in which a body mass index (BMI) is greater than 40, and generally 100 pounds or more over ideal body weight

234
Q

what is obstipation

A

Severe constipation, which may be caused by an intestinal obstruction

235
Q

what is oral leukoplakia

A

Formation of white spots are patches on the mucous membrane of the tongue, lips, or cheek caused primarily by irritation

236
Q

what is pancreatitis

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

237
Q

what is pyloric stenosis

A

Stricture or narrowing of the pyloric sphincter (circular muscle of the pylorus) at the outlet of the stomach, causing an obstruction that block the flow of food into the small intestine

238
Q

what is regurgitation

A

A backward flow, as in the return of solids or fluids to the mouth from the stomach

239
Q

what is ulcerative colitis

A

Chronic inflammatory disease of the colon, commonly beginning in the rectum or sigmoid colon and extending upward into the entire colon

240
Q

what is a gastrointestinal endoscopy

A

visual examination of the gastrointestinal tract using a flexible fiber optic instrument with a magnifying lens and the light source (endoscope) to identify abnormalities, including bleeding, alterations, and tumors

241
Q

what is a hepatitis panel

A

Not a blood test that identify the specific virus -hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV), or hepatitis C (HCV)- that is causing hepatitis by testing serum using antibodies to each of these antigens

242
Q

what are liver function tests (LFTs)

A

Blood test that evaluate liver injury, liver function, and conditions commonly associated with a biliary tract

243
Q

what is serum bilirubin

A

Measurement of the level of bilirubin in the blood

244
Q

what is a stool culture

A

Test to identify microorganisms or parasites present in the feces that are causing a gastrointestinal infection

245
Q

what is a stool guaiac

A

Test applies a substance called quiet to a stool sample to detect the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the feces; also called hemoccult (tradename a modified quiet test)

246
Q

what is a lower gastrointestinal series

A

Radiographic images of the rectum and colon following administration of barium into the rectum; also called lower G.I. series or barium enema

247
Q

what is an oral cholecystography (OCG)

A

Radiographic images taken of the gallbladder after administration of contrast material containing iodine, usually in the form of a tablet

248
Q

what is an abdominal ultrasound

A

ultrasound visualization of the abdominal aorta, liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, pancreas, kidneys, ureters, and bladder

249
Q

what is an endoscopic ultrasound

A

Combination of endoscopy and ultrasound examined and obtain images of athe digestive tract and the surrounding tissues and organs

250
Q

what is an upper gastrointestinal series (UGIS)

A

Radiographic images of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine following oral administration of barium; also called barium swallow

251
Q

what is an ileorectal anastomosis

A

Surgical connection of the ileum and rectum after total colostomy, as is sometimes performed in the treatment of ulcerative colitis

252
Q

what is an intestinal anastomosis

A

Surgical connection of two portions of the intestine

253
Q

what is an appendectomy

A

Excision of a diseased appendix using an open or laparoscopic procedure

254
Q

what is an open appendectomy

A

Excision of a diseased appendix through a 2 to 3 inch incision in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen

255
Q

What is a laparoscopic appendectomy

A

Minimally invasive appendectomy using three small abdominal incisions while monitoring and enlarged image of the surgical site projected onto a monitor

256
Q

What are bariatric surgeries

A

Group of procedures that treat morbid obesity, a condition that arises from severe accumulation of excess weight as fatty tissue, and the resultant health problems

257
Q

what is a vertical banded gastroplasty

A

Bariatric surgery that involves vertical stapling on the upper stomach near the esophagus to reduce it to a small pouch and insertion of a band that restricts food conception and delays it’s passage from the power causing a feeling of fullness

258
Q

what is a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RGB)

A

Bariatric surgery that involve stapling the stomach to decrease its side and then shortening the Jejunum and connecting it to the small stomach patch, causing the base of the duodenum leading from the nonfunctioning portion of the stomach to form a wagon figuration, which decreases the pathway of food through the intestine, that’s reducing absorption of calories and fat; also called gastric bypass with gastroenterostomy

259
Q

What is a colostomy

A

Surgical procedure in which a surgeon forms an opening (stoma) by drawing the healthy end of the colon through an incision in the anterior abdominal wall and suturing it into place

260
Q

what is a lithotripsy

A

Procedure for crushing a stone and eliminating its fragment surgically or using ultrasonic shock waves

261
Q

what is extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)

A

Use the shock waves as a non-invasive method to break up stones in the gallbladder or biliary ducts

262
Q

What is paracentesis

A

Procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen using a long, thin needle inserted through the belly; also called abdominocentesis

263
Q

what is a polypectomy

A

Excision of a polyp

264
Q

what is nasogastric intubation

A

Insertion of a nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach to relieve gastric distention by removing gas, food, or gastric secretion; instill medication, food, or fluids; or obtain a specimen for laboratory analysis

265
Q

What do antacids do

A

counteract or neutralize acidity, usually in the stomach

266
Q

What do antidiarrheals do

A

control loose stools and relieve diarrhea by absorbing excess water in the bowel or slowing peristalsis in the intestinal tract

267
Q

What do antiemetics do

A

Control nausea and vomiting by blocking nerve impulses to the vomiting center of the brain

268
Q

what do histamine-2 (H2) blockers do

A

Inhibit secretion of stomach acid from the gastric cells by blocking the H2 receptor

269
Q

what do laxatives do

A

Treat constipation by increasing peristaltic activity in the large intestine or increasing water and electrolyte secretion into the bowel to induce defecation

270
Q

what do proton pump inhibitors do

A

Suppress basal and stimulated acid production by inhibiting the acid pump in the gastric cells

271
Q

what is the respiratory system responsible for

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide within the body

272
Q

what is carbon dioxide

A

Tasteless, colorless, odorless gas produced by body cells during metabolism

273
Q

what is cartilage

A

Tough, elastic connective tissue that is more rigid than ligaments but less dense than bone

274
Q

what is cilia

A

Minute, hair like structures that extend from the surface of the cell

275
Q

what does it mean to defuse

A

To move or spread out a substance at random, rather than by chemical reaction or application of external forces

276
Q

what is oxygen

A

Tasteless, odorless, colorless gas essential for human respiration

277
Q

what is pH

A

Symbol that indicates the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a substance

278
Q

what is a serous membrane

A

thin layer of tissue that covers internal body cavities and secretes a fluid that keeps the membrane moist; also called serosa

279
Q

what sense are olfactory neurons receptors for

A

smell

280
Q

what are the three sections of the pharynx in order

A

Nasopharynx - posterior to the nose
oropharynx - posterior to the mouth
laryngopharynx - superior to the larynx

281
Q

What are the four separate processes of respiration (in order)

A

Pulmonary ventilation
external respiration
transport of respiratory gases
internal respiration

282
Q

What does the CF “sinus/o” mean

A

sinus, cavity

283
Q

What is the CF for “sinus/cavity”

A

sinus/o

284
Q

What does the CF “adenoid/o” mean

A

adenoids

285
Q

What is the CF for “adenoids”

A

adenoid/o

286
Q

What does the CF “tonsill/o”

A

tonsils

287
Q

What is the CF for “tonsils”

A

tonsill/o

288
Q

What does the CF “epiglott/o” mean

A

epiglottis

289
Q

What is the CF for “epiglottis”

A

epiglott/o

290
Q

What does the CF “bronchiol/o” mean

A

bronchioles

291
Q

What is the CF for “bronchioles”

A

bronchiol/o

292
Q

What does the CF “alveol/o” mean

A

alveolus

293
Q

What is the CF for “alveolus”

A

alveol/o

294
Q

What does the CF “pleur/o” mean

A

pleura

295
Q

What is the CF for “pleura”

A

pleur/o

296
Q

What does the CF “pneum/o” mean

A

air; lung

297
Q

What are the CFs for “air/lung”

A

pneum/o
pneumon/o

298
Q

What does the CF “pneumon/o” mean

A

air; lung

299
Q

What does the CF “pulmon/o” mean

A

lung

300
Q

What does the CF “anthrac/o” mean

A

coal, coal dust

301
Q

What is the CF for “coal/coal dust”

A

anthrac/o

302
Q

What does the CF atel/o” mean

A

incomplete, imperfect

303
Q

What is the CF for “incomplete/imperfect”

A

atel/o

304
Q

What does the CF coni/o” mean

A

dust

305
Q

What is the CF for “dust”

A

coni/o

306
Q

What does the CF “lob/o” mean

A

lobe

307
Q

What is the CF for “lobe”

A

lob/o

308
Q

What does the CF “orth/o” mean

A

straight

309
Q

What is the CF for “straight”

A

orth/o

310
Q

What does the CF “ox/o” mean

A

oxygen

311
Q

What is the CF for “oxygen”

A

ox/o

312
Q

What does the CF “pector/o” mean

A

chest

313
Q

What are the CFs for “chest”

A

pector/o
steth/o
thorac/o

314
Q

What does the CF “steth/o” mean

A

chest

315
Q

What does the CF “thorac/o” mean

A

chest

316
Q

What does the CF “phren/o” mean

A

diaphragm; mind

317
Q

What is the CF for “diaphragm/mind”

A

phren/o

318
Q

What does the CF “spir/o” mean

A

breathe

319
Q

What is the CF for “breathe”

A

spir/o

320
Q

What does the suffix -capnia mean

A

carbon dioxide

321
Q

What is the suffix for “carbon dioxide”

A

-capnia

322
Q

What does the suffix -osmia mean

A

smell

323
Q

What is the suffix for “smell”

A

-osmia

324
Q

What does the suffix -phonia mean

A

voice

325
Q

What is the suffix for “voice”

A

-phonia

326
Q

What does the suffix -pnea mean

A

breathing

327
Q

What is the suffix for “breathing”

A

-pnea

328
Q

What does the suffix -ptysis mean

A

spitting

329
Q

What is the suffix for “spitting”

A

-ptysis

330
Q

What does the suffix -thorax mean

A

chest

331
Q

What is the suffix for “chest”

A

-thorax

332
Q

what is the name of the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the respiratory system

A

Pulmonology

333
Q

what does chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include

A

Respiratory disorders that produce chronic partial obstruction of the air passages

334
Q

what is asthma

A

Spasms in the bronchial passages that caused dyspnea

335
Q

what are the characteristics of the “at risk, mild” stage of COPD

A

minor difficulty with airflow
Possible presence of chronic cough with sputum production
Patient possibly unaware of disease

336
Q

what are the characteristics of the “moderate” stage of COPD

A

apparent limitation in airflow
Possible shortness of breath
Patient possibly seeking medical intervention at this level

337
Q

what are the characteristics of the “severe” stage of COPD

A

Inadequate airflow
increase and shortness of breath with activity
patient experiencing diminishing quality of life

338
Q

are the characteristics of the “very severe” stage of COPD

A

severe airflow limitations
significant impairment and quality of life
Possible life-threatening exacerbations
Possible development of complications, such as respiratory or heart failure

339
Q

What is chronic bronchitis

A

Inflammation of the bronchi caused mainly by smoking or air pollution

340
Q

what is emphysema

A

Decreased elasticity of the alveoli

341
Q

what is pneumonia

A

An inflammatory condition affecting the lungs, primarily the microscopic air sacs (Alveoli)

342
Q

What is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A

A condition in which the lungs no longer function effectively, threatening the life of the patient

343
Q

what is another name for lung cancer

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

344
Q

where does lung cancer typically stem from

A

The epithelium of the bronchial tree

345
Q

(T/F) the prognosis for those with lung cancer is typically poor

A

True - it is rarely found in the early stages where it is more easily treatable

346
Q

what are abnormal breath sounds

A

Abnormal sounds or noises heard from the lungs and airwaves, commonly leading to a diagnosis of a respiratory or cardiac condition; also called adventitious breath sounds

347
Q

What are crackle breath sounds

A

Intermittent sound caused by exudates, spasms, hyperplasia, or when air enters moisture filled alveolar; also called rale

347
Q

What are rhonchus breath sounds

A

Continuous sound heard during inspiration and expiration caused by secretions in a larger airways and commonly resembling snoring

348
Q

what are stridor breath sounds

A

High-pitch, harsh sound called by a spasm or swelling of the larynx or an obstruction in the upper airway

349
Q

what are wheeze breath sounds

A

Whistling or sighing that results from narrowing of the lumen of the respiratory passageway

350
Q

what is acidosis

A

Excessive acidity of bodily of fluids

351
Q

what is anosmia

A

Absence of the sense of smell

352
Q

what is apnea

A

Disorder in which breathing stops repeatedly during sleep, resulting in blood deoxygenation, causing the patient to awaken, gasping for air; also called sleep apnea

353
Q

what is central sleep apnea (CSA)

A

a form of sleep apnea that occurs when the brain fails to stimulate breathing muscles, causing brief pauses in breathing

354
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

A

Most common form of sleep apnea caused by an upper airway blockage that prevents an adequate flow of air to the lungs

355
Q

what is mixed sleep apnea

A

Type of sleep apnea that occurs when central sleep apnea and obstructive sleep apnea occur simultaneously

356
Q

what is atelectasis

A

Collapsed or airless state of the lung, which may be acute or chronic and affects all or part of a lung

357
Q

what is coryza

A

Acute inflammation of the membranes of the nose; also called rhiniti

358
Q

what is croup

A

Common childhood condition involving information of the larynx, trachea, and bronchial passages and sometimes involving the lungs

359
Q

what is cystic fibrosis

A

Life-threatening genetic disease causing mucus to become unusually thick and sticky, plugging tubes and ducts, especially in the lungs and pancreas

360
Q

what is a deviated nasal septum

A

Displacement of the cartilage dividing the nostrils that causes reduce airflow and sometimes causes nose bleed

361
Q

what is an epiglottis

A

Severe, life-threatening infection of the epiglottis and supraglottic structures that occurs most commonly in children between ages two and 12 years old

362
Q

what is hypoxemia

A

Oxygen deficiency in arterial blood, which is usually a sign of respiratory impairment and commonly causes hypoxia

363
Q

what is epistaxis

A

Nasal hemorrhage; also called nose bleed

364
Q

what is hypoxia

A

Oxygen deficiency in the blood or region of the body that commonly causes cyanosis

365
Q

what is influenza

A

Acute, contagious viral disorder of the respiratory tract, characterized by weakness, fever, chills, and muscle pain, especially in the back, arms, and legs; also called the flu

366
Q

what is pertussis

A

Acute, infectious disease characterized by a cough that has a characteristic “whoop” sound; also called whooping cough

367
Q

what is plural effusion

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity that impairs breathing by limiting the expansion of the lungs

368
Q

what is empyema

A

Exudative effusion characterized by collection of pus in the pleural cavity, commonly as a result of bacterial pneumonia that spreads from the lungs; also called pyothorax

369
Q

what is a pneumothorax

A

Presence of air in the pleural cavity, commonly caused by a blunt or penetrating chest injury or as the result of a thoracic surgery

370
Q

what is pleurisy

A

Inflammation of the plural membrane characterized by a stabbing pain that is intensified by coughing or deep breathing; also called pleuritis

371
Q

what is pulmonary edema

A

Cumulation of extravascular fluid in lungs tissues and alveoli, most commonly caused by heart failure

372
Q

what is a pulmonary embolism

A

Blockage in an artery of the lungs caused by a mass of undissolved matter (such as blood clot, tissue, air bubbles, and bacteria) that has traveled to lungs from another part of the body

373
Q

what is sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

A

Completely unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently normal, healthy infant, usually less than 812 months; also called crib death

374
Q

what is tuberculosis (TB)

A

Potentially fatal contagious disease spread through respiratory droplets, affecting any organ of the body but primarily the lungs and causing chest pain, hemoptysis, weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats

375
Q

what is a Mantoux test

A

Tuberculosis screening test and within injection of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) is placed just beneath the surface of the skin to identify a previous exposure to tuberculosis

376
Q

what is oximetry

A

Noninvasive method of monitoring the percentage of hemoglobin (Hb) saturated with oxygen; also called pulse oximetry

377
Q

what is polysomnography

A

Test of sleep cycles in stages using electroencephalograms (EEGs), which are continuous readings of brain waves, as well as electrical activity of muscles, eye-movement, respiratory rate, blood pressure, but oxygen saturation, heart rhythm and, sometimes, direct observation of the person during sleep using a video camera

378
Q

What are pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

A

Series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of lung diseases and evaluate effectiveness treatments

379
Q

what is spirometry

A

PFT that measures how much and how quickly air moves in and out of the lungs

380
Q

what is a bronchoscopy

A

Visual examination of the bronchi using an endoscope (flexible fiber optic or rigid) inserted through the mouth and trachea for direct viewing of structures or for projection on a monitor

381
Q

What is a laryngoscopy

A

Visual examination of the larynx to detect tumors, foreign bodies, nerve or structural injury, or other abnormalities

382
Q

what is a mediastinoscopy

A

Visual examination of the mediastinal structures, including the heart, trachea, esophagus, bronchus, thymus, and lymph nodes

383
Q

what is an arterial blood gas (ABG) test

A

test that measures dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood

384
Q

what is a sputum culture

A

Microbial test used to identify disease causing organisms of the lower respiratory tract, especially those that caused pneumonias

385
Q

what is a sweat test

A

Measurement of the amount of salt (sodium chloride) in sweat

386
Q

what is a throat culture

A

Test used to identify pathogens, especially group a streptococci

387
Q

what is a chest x-ray

A

Radiographic test that aids in identifying lung conditions such as pneumonia, lung cancer, COPD, and pneumothorax

388
Q

what is a computer tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)

A

Minimally invasive imaging that combines computer tomography scanning an angiography to produce images of the pulmonary arteries

389
Q

what is ventilation-perfusion (V-Q) scan

A

Nuclear test scan that evaluates airflow (ventilation) and blood flow (perfusion) in the lungs for evidence of a blood clot in the lung; also called V-Q lung scan

390
Q

what is a pleurectomy

A

Excision of parts of the pleura, usually the parietal pleura

391
Q

what is a pneumonectomy

A

Excision of a lung or a portion of the lung commonly for treatment of cancer

392
Q

what is a septoplasty

A

Surgical repair of a deviated nasal septum that is usually performed when the septum is encroaching on the breathing passages or nasal structures

393
Q

what is a thoracentesis

A

surgical puncture and drainage of the pleural cavity; also called pleurocentesis or thoracocentesis

394
Q

what is a tracheostomy

A

Surgical procedure in which an opening is made in the neck and into the trachea into with a breathing tube may be inserted

395
Q

what is aerosol therapy

A

Lung treatment using various techniques to deliver medication in mist form directly to the lungs or air passageways

396
Q

what is an antral lavage

A

Washing or arrogating of the paranasal sinuses to remove mucopurulent material and an immunosuppressed patient or one with nose sinusitis that has failed to respond to medical management

397
Q

What is endotracheal intubation

A

Procedure in which a plastic tube is inserted into the trachea to maintain an open airway

398
Q

What is postural drainage

A

Method of positioning a patient so that gravity aids in the drainage of secretions from the bronchi and lobes of the lungs to make a breathing easier

399
Q

What do antihistamines do

A

Block histamines from binding with histamine receptor sites in tissues

400
Q

What do antitussives do

A

Relieve or suppress coughing by blocking the cough reflex in the medulla of the brain

401
Q

what do bronchodilators do

A

Stimulate bronchial muscles to relax, thereby expanding air passages, resulting in increased airflow

402
Q

What do corticosteroids do

A

act on the immune system by blocking production of substance of the trigger allergic and inflammatory actions

403
Q

what do decongestants do

A

Constrict blood vessels of nasal passages and limit blood flow, which causes swollen tissues to shrink so the air can pass more freely through the passageways

404
Q

what do expectorants do

A

Liquefy respiratory secretions that they are more easily dislodged during coughing episodes

MedTerm - Winter 2024 (3 decks)

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