Ch. 4 (IFSA) Understanding Income Statements Flashcards

1
Q

___ communicates how much revenue the company generated during a period and what costs it incurred in connection with generating that revenue.

A

The income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The income statement communicates ___.

A

how much revenue the company generated during a period and what costs it incurred in connection with generating that revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

___ is also called the statement of operations or statement of earnings or, sometimes, in business jargon, it is called the P&L (for profit and loss).

A

The income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The income statement is also called ___ or statement of earnings or, sometimes, in business jargon, it is called the P&L (for profit and loss).

A

the statement of operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The income statement is also called the statement of operations or ___ or, sometimes, in business jargon, it is called the P&L (for profit and loss).

A

statement of earnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The income statement is also called the statement of operations or statement of earnings or, sometimes, in business jargon, it is called ___.

A

the P&L (for profit and loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

___ also includes gains and losses, which are asset inflows and outflows, respectively, not directly related to the ordinary activities of the business.

A

Net income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Net income also includes ___, which are asset inflows and outflows, respectively, not directly related to the ordinary activities of the business.

A

gains and losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Net income also includes gains and losses, which are ___.

A

asset inflows and outflows, respectively, not directly related to the ordinary activities of the business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a company sells surplus land that is not needed, ___ and the net result is reported as a gain or a loss.

A

the cost of the land is subtracted from the sales price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a company sells surplus land that is not needed, the cost of the land is subtracted from the sales price and ____.

A

the net result is reported as a gain or a loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Grouping together expenses such as depreciation on manufacturing equipment and depreciation on administrative facilities into a single line item called depreciation on the income statement represents ___ of the expense.

A

a grouping by nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An example of ___ on the income statement would be grouping together expenses into a category such as cost of goods sold, which would include some salaries (e.g., salespeople’s), material costs, depreciation, and other direct sales-related expenses.

A

grouping by function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

___ is the amount of revenue available after subtracting the costs of delivering goods or services such as material and labor.

A

Gross profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gross profit is ___.

A

the amount of revenue available after subtracting the costs of delivering goods or services such as material and labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___ further deducts operating expenses such as selling, general, administrative, and research and development expenses.

A

Operating profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Operating profit further deducts operating expenses such as ___.

A

selling, general, administrative, and research and development expenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

___ reflects a company’s profits on its usual business activities before deducting taxes.

A

Operating profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Operating profit reflects ___.

A

a company’s profits on its usual business activities before deducting taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

___ are similar to revenue; however, they arise from secondary or peripheral activities rather than from a company’s primary business activities.

A

Gains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gains are similar to revenue; however, they arise from ___.

A

secondary or peripheral activities rather than from a company’s primary business activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For a restaurant, the sale of surplus restaurant equipment for more than its cost is referred to as a ___ rather than as revenue.

A

gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An important concept concerning ___ recognition is that it can occur independently of cash movements.

A

revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An important concept concerning revenue recognition is that it can occur independently of ___ movements.

A

cash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A fundamental principle of ___ is that revenue is recognized when it is earned, so the company’s financial records reflect the sale when it is made and a related accounts receivable is created.

A

accrual accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A fundamental principle of accrual accounting is that ___, so the company’s financial records reflect the sale when it is made and a related accounts receivable is created.

A

revenue is recognized when it is earned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A fundamental principle of accrual accounting is that revenue is recognized when it is earned, so the company’s financial records ___ and a related accounts receivable is created.

A

reflect the sale when it is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A fundamental principle of accrual accounting is that revenue is recognized when it is earned, so the company’s financial records reflect the sale when it is made and ___.

A

a related accounts receivable is created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Under ___, in each accounting period, the company estimates what percentage of the contract is complete and then reports that percentage of the total contract revenue in its income statement.

A

the percentage-of-completion method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Under the percentage-of-completion method, in each accounting period, the company ___.

A

estimates what percentage of the contract is complete and then reports that percentage of the total contract revenue in its income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Under the ___, the company does not report any revenue until the contract is finished.

A

completed contract method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Under the completed contract method, the company ___.

A

does not report any revenue until the contract is finished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Under ___, the portion of the total profit of the sale that is recognized in each period is determined by the percentage of the total sales price for which the seller has received cash.

A

the installment method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Under the installment method, the portion of the total profit of the sale that is recognized in each period is determined by ___.

A

the percentage of the total sales price for which the seller has received cash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Under ___, the seller does not report any profit until the cash amounts paid by the buyer—including principal and interest on any financing from the seller—are greater than all the seller’s costs of the property.

A

the cost recovery method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Under the cost recovery method, the seller does not report any profit until ___.

A

the cash amounts paid by the buyer—including principal and interest on any financing from the seller—are greater than all the seller’s costs of the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A general principle of ___ is the matching principle, also known as the “matching of costs with revenues.”

A

expense recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A general principle of expense recognition is ___.

A

the matching principle, also known as the “matching of costs with revenues”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Under ___, a company directly matches some expenses (e.g., cost of goods sold) with associated revenues

A

the matching principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Under the matching principle, a company directly matches ___

A

some expenses (e.g., cost of goods sold) with associated revenues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

___, expenditures that less directly match the timing of revenues, are reflected in the period when a company makes the expenditure or incurs the liability to pay.

A

Period costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Period costs, ___, are reflected in the period when a company makes the expenditure or incurs the liability to pay.

A

expenditures that less directly match the timing of revenues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Period costs, expenditures that less directly match the timing of revenues, are reflected in the period when ___.

A

a company makes the expenditure or incurs the liability to pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Under ___, at the time revenue is recognized on a sale, a company is required to record an estimate of how much of the revenue will ultimately be uncollectible.

A

the matching principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Under the matching principle, at the time ___, a company is required to record an estimate of how much of the revenue will ultimately be uncollectible.

A

revenue is recognized on a sale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Under the matching principle, at the time revenue is recognized on a sale, a company is required to ___.

A

record an estimate of how much of the revenue will ultimately be uncollectible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The company records its estimate of uncollectible amounts as ___, not as a direct reduction of revenues.

A

an expense on the income statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Under the matching principle, a company is required to ___, to recognize an estimated warranty expense in the period of the sale, and to update the expense as indicated by experience over the life of the warranty.

A

estimate the amount of future expenses resulting from its warranties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Under the matching principle, a company is required to estimate the amount of future expenses resulting from its warranties, to ___, and to update the expense as indicated by experience over the life of the warranty.

A

recognize an estimated warranty expense in the period of the sale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Under the matching principle, a company is required to estimate the amount of future expenses resulting from its warranties, to recognize an estimated warranty expense in the period of the sale, and to ___.

A

update the expense as indicated by experience over the life of the warranty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The two main types of long-lived assets whose costs are not allocated over time are ___ and those intangible assets with indefinite useful lives.

A

land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The two main types of long-lived assets whose costs are not allocated over time are land and ___.

A

those intangible assets with indefinite useful lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The two main types of long-lived assets whose costs are ___ are land and those intangible assets with indefinite useful lives.

A

not allocated over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

___ is the process of systematically allocating costs of long-lived assets over the period during which the assets are expected to provide economic benefits.

A

Depreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Depreciation is ___ during which the assets are expected to provide economic benefits.

A

the process of systematically allocating costs of long-lived assets over the period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Depreciation is the process of systematically allocating costs of long-lived assets over the period during which ___.

A

the assets are expected to provide economic benefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

___ is the term commonly applied to the process of systematically allocating costs for intangible long-lived assets with a finite useful life.

A

Amortization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Amortization is the term commonly applied to the process of systematically allocating costs for ___ with a finite useful life.

A

intangible long-lived assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Amortization is the term commonly applied to the process of systematically allocating costs for intangible long-lived assets with ___.

A

a finite useful life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

___ allocates evenly the cost of long-lived assets less estimated residual value over the estimated useful life of an asset.

A

The straight-line method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The straight-line method ___ less estimated residual value over the estimated useful life of an asset.

A

allocates evenly the cost of long-lived assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The straight-line method allocates evenly the cost of long-lived assets ___ over the estimated useful life of an asset.

A

less estimated residual value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The straight-line method allocates evenly the cost of long-lived assets less estimated residual value ___.

A

over the estimated useful life of an asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Calculating ___ requires two significant estimates: the estimated useful life of an asset and the estimated residual value (also known as salvage value) of an asset.

A

depreciation and amortization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Calculating depreciation and amortization requires two significant estimates: ___ and the estimated residual value (also known as salvage value) of an asset.

A

the estimated useful life of an asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Calculating depreciation and amortization requires two significant estimates: the estimated useful life of an asset and ___.

A

the estimated residual value (also known as salvage value) of an asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Generally, alternatives to the straight-line method of depreciation are called ___ because ___.

A

accelerated methods of depreciation / they accelerate (i.e., speed up) the timing of depreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

___ allocate a greater proportion of the cost to the early years of an asset’s useful life

A

Accelerated depreciation methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Accelerated depreciation methods allocate ___

A

a greater proportion of the cost to the early years of an asset’s useful life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A company’s estimates for doubtful accounts and/or for warranty expenses can affect its reported ___.

A

net income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A company’s choice of depreciation or amortization method, estimates of assets’ useful lives, and estimates of assets’ residual values can affect reported ___.

A

net income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A policy that results in recognition of ___ is considered less conservative.

A

expenses later rather than sooner

73
Q

To assess a company’s ___, it is helpful to separate those prior years’ items of income and expense that are likely to continue in the future from those items that are less likely to continue.

A

future earnings

74
Q

To assess a company’s future earnings, it is helpful to separate those prior years’ items of ___ that are likely to continue in the future from those items that are less likely to continue.

A

income and expense

75
Q

To assess a company’s future earnings, it is helpful to separate those prior years’ items of income and expense that are ___.

A

likely to continue in the future from those items that are less likely to continue

76
Q

Some items from prior years are clearly not expected to continue in the future periods and are separately disclosed on a company’s ___.
- discontinued operations
- extraordinary items (no longer permitted under IFRS)

A

income statement

77
Q

Some items from prior years are clearly not expected to continue in the future periods and are separately disclosed on a company’s income statement.
- ___
- extraordinary items (no longer permitted under IFRS)

A

discontinued operations

78
Q

Some items from prior years are clearly not expected to continue in the future periods and are separately disclosed on a company’s income statement.
- discontinued operations
- ___

A

extraordinary items (no longer permitted under IFRS)

79
Q

The terms ___, common stock, and common shares are used equivalently.

A

ordinary shares

80
Q

The terms ordinary shares, ___, and common shares are used equivalently.

A

common stock

81
Q

The terms ordinary shares, common stock, and ___ are used equivalently.

A

common shares

82
Q

When a company has any securities that are potentially convertible into common stock, it is said to have ___.

A

a complex capital structure

83
Q

When a company ___, it is said to have a complex capital structure.

A

has any securities that are potentially convertible into common stock

84
Q

Specific examples of ___ include convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, employee stock options, and warrants.

A

securities that are potentially convertible into common stock

85
Q

Specific examples of securities that are potentially convertible into common stock include ___, convertible preferred stock, employee stock options, and warrants.

A

convertible bonds

86
Q

Specific examples of securities that are potentially convertible into common stock include convertible bonds, ___, employee stock options, and warrants.

A

convertible preferred stock

87
Q

Specific examples of securities that are potentially convertible into common stock include convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, ___, and warrants.

A

employee stock options

88
Q

Specific examples of securities that are potentially convertible into common stock include convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, employee stock options, and ___.

A

warrants

89
Q

If a company’s capital structure does not include securities that are potentially convertible into common stock, it is said to have ___.

A

a simple capital structure

90
Q

If a company’s capital structure ___, it is said to have a simple capital structure.

A

does not include securities that are potentially convertible into common stock

91
Q

The distinction between___ is relevant to the calculation of EPS because any securities that are potentially convertible into common stock could, as a result of conversion, potentially dilute (i.e., decrease) EPS.

A

simple versus complex capital structure

92
Q

The distinction between simple versus complex capital structure is relevant to ___ because any securities that are potentially convertible into common stock could, as a result of conversion, potentially dilute (i.e., decrease) EPS.

A

the calculation of EPS

93
Q

The distinction between simple versus complex capital structure is relevant to the calculation of EPS because ___.

A

any securities that are potentially convertible into common stock could, as a result of conversion, potentially dilute (i.e., decrease) EPS

94
Q

Accounting standards require companies to disclose what their EPS would be if all ___ were converted into common stock.

A

dilutive securities

95
Q

Accounting standards require companies to disclose what their EPS would be if all dilutive securities were ___.

A

converted into common stock

96
Q

___ is the amount of income available to common shareholders divided by the weighted average number of common shares outstanding over a period.

A

Basic EPS

97
Q

Basic EPS is ___ divided by the weighted average number of common shares outstanding over a period.

A

the amount of income available to common shareholders

98
Q

Basic EPS is the amount of income available to common shareholders divided by ___.

A

the weighted average number of common shares outstanding over a period

99
Q

___ is the amount of net income remaining after preferred dividends (if any) have been paid.

A

The amount of income available to common shareholders

100
Q

The amount of income available to common shareholders is ___.

A

the amount of net income remaining after preferred dividends (if any) have been paid

101
Q

___ = (Net income – Preferred dividends) ÷ Weighted average number of shares outstanding

A

Basic EPS

102
Q

Basic EPS = (___ – Preferred dividends) ÷ Weighted average number of shares outstanding

A

Net income

103
Q

Basic EPS = (Net income – ___) ÷ Weighted average number of shares outstanding

A

Preferred dividends

104
Q

Basic EPS = (Net income – Preferred dividends) ÷ ___

A

Weighted average number of shares outstanding

105
Q

If a company has ___, then its basic EPS is equal to its diluted EPS.

A

a simple capital structure (i.e., one with no potentially dilutive securities)

106
Q

If a company has a simple capital structure (i.e., one with no potentially dilutive securities), then its ___ is equal to its diluted EPS.

A

basic EPS

107
Q

If a company has a simple capital structure (i.e., one with no potentially dilutive securities), then its basic EPS is equal to its ___.

A

diluted EPS

108
Q

If a company has ___, its diluted EPS is lower than its basic EPS.

A

dilutive securities

109
Q

If a company has dilutive securities, its diluted EPS is ___ its basic EPS.

A

lower than

110
Q

When a company has ___, diluted EPS is calculated using the if-converted method (i.e., what EPS would have been if the convertible preferred securities had been converted at the beginning of the period).

A

convertible preferred stock outstanding

111
Q

When a company has convertible preferred stock outstanding, diluted EPS is calculated using ___ (i.e., what EPS would have been if the convertible preferred securities had been converted at the beginning of the period).

A

the if-converted method

112
Q

When a company has convertible preferred stock outstanding, diluted EPS is calculated using the if-converted method (___).

A

i.e., what EPS would have been if the convertible preferred securities had been converted at the beginning of the period

113
Q

___ using the if-converted method for convertible preferred stock is equal to the amount of net income divided by the weighted average number of shares outstanding plus the new shares of common stock that would be issued upon conversion of the preferred.

A

The diluted EPS

114
Q

The diluted EPS using the ___ for convertible preferred stock is equal to the amount of net income divided by the weighted average number of shares outstanding plus the new shares of common stock that would be issued upon conversion of the preferred.

A

if-converted method

115
Q

The diluted EPS using the if-converted method for ___ is equal to the amount of net income divided by the weighted average number of shares outstanding plus the new shares of common stock that would be issued upon conversion of the preferred.

A

convertible preferred stock

116
Q

The diluted EPS using the if-converted method for convertible preferred stock is equal to ___ divided by the weighted average number of shares outstanding plus the new shares of common stock that would be issued upon conversion of the preferred.

A

the amount of net income

117
Q

The diluted EPS using the if-converted method for convertible preferred stock is equal to the amount of net income divided by ___ plus the new shares of common stock that would be issued upon conversion of the preferred.

A

the weighted average number of shares outstanding

118
Q

The diluted EPS using the if-converted method for convertible preferred stock is equal to the amount of net income divided by the weighted average number of shares outstanding plus ___.

A

the new shares of common stock that would be issued upon conversion of the preferred

119
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if-converted method for ___ is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New common shares that would have been issued at conversion)

A

preferred stock

120
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if-converted method for preferred stock is:

Diluted EPS = (___)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New common shares that would have been issued at conversion)

A

Net income

121
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if-converted method for preferred stock is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income)/(___ + New common shares that would have been issued at conversion)

A

Weighted average number of shares outstanding

122
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if-converted method for preferred stock is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + ___)

A

New common shares that would have been issued at conversion

123
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if - converted method for ___ is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income + After-tax interest on convertible debt – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New common shares that could have been issued at conversion)

A

convertible debt

124
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if - converted method for convertible debt is:

Diluted EPS = (___ + After-tax interest on convertible debt – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New common shares that could have been issued at conversion)

A

Net income

125
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if - converted method for convertible debt is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income + ___ – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New common shares that could have been issued at conversion)

A

After-tax interest on convertible debt

126
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if - converted method for convertible debt is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income + After-tax interest on convertible debt – ___)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New common shares that could have been issued at conversion)

A

Preferred dividends

127
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if - converted method for convertible debt is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income + After-tax interest on convertible debt – Preferred dividends)/(___ + New common shares that could have been issued at conversion)

A

Weighted average number of shares outstanding

128
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the if - converted method for convertible debt is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income + After-tax interest on convertible debt – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + ___)

A

New common shares that could have been issued at conversion

129
Q

Under U.S. GAAP, when ___, the diluted EPS is calculated using the treasury stock method (i.e., what EPS would have been if the options had been exercised and the company had used the proceeds to repurchase common stock).

A

a company has stock options, warrants, or their equivalents outstanding

130
Q

Under U.S. GAAP, when a company has stock options, warrants, or their equivalents outstanding, the diluted EPS is calculated using ___ (i.e., what EPS would have been if the options had been exercised and the company had used the proceeds to repurchase common stock).

A

the treasury stock method

131
Q

Under U.S. GAAP, when a company has stock options, warrants, or their equivalents outstanding, the diluted EPS is calculated using the treasury stock method (i.e., what EPS would have been if ___).

A

the options had been exercised and the company had used the proceeds to repurchase common stock

132
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using ___ is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New shares that could have been issued at option exercise – Shares that could have been purchased with cash received upon exercise)

A

the treasury stock method for options

133
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the treasury stock method for options is:

Diluted EPS = (___ – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New shares that could have been issued at option exercise – Shares that could have been purchased with cash received upon exercise)

A

Net income

134
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the treasury stock method for options is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income – ___)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New shares that could have been issued at option exercise – Shares that could have been purchased with cash received upon exercise)

A

Preferred dividends

135
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the treasury stock method for options is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income – Preferred dividends)/(___ + New shares that could have been issued at option exercise – Shares that could have been purchased with cash received upon exercise)

A

Weighted average number of shares outstanding

136
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the treasury stock method for options is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + ___ – Shares that could have been purchased with cash received upon exercise)

A

New shares that could have been issued at option exercise

137
Q

The formula to calculate diluted EPS using the treasury stock method for options is:

Diluted EPS = (Net income – Preferred dividends)/(Weighted average number of shares outstanding + New shares that could have been issued at option exercise – ___)

A

Shares that could have been purchased with cash received upon exercise

138
Q

Two analytical tools to ___: common-size analysis and income statement ratios.

A

analyze the income statement

139
Q

Two analytical tools to analyze the income statement: ___ and income statement ratios.

A

common-size analysis

140
Q

Two analytical tools to analyze the income statement: common-size analysis and ___.

A

income statement ratios

141
Q

___ of the income statement can be performed by stating each line item on the income statement as a percentage of revenue.

A

Common-size analysis

142
Q

Common-size analysis of the income statement can be performed by ___.

A

stating each line item on the income statement as a percentage of revenue

143
Q

___ facilitate comparison across time periods (time-series analysis) and across companies of different sizes (cross-sectional analysis).

A

Common-size statements

144
Q

Common-size statements facilitate ___ (time-series analysis) and across companies of different sizes (cross-sectional analysis).

A

comparison across time periods

145
Q

Common-size statements facilitate comparison across time periods (___) and across companies of different sizes (cross-sectional analysis).

A

time-series analysis

146
Q

Common-size statements facilitate comparison across time periods (time-series analysis) and ___ (cross-sectional analysis).

A

across companies of different sizes

147
Q

Common-size statements facilitate comparison across time periods (time-series analysis) and across companies of different sizes (___).

A

cross-sectional analysis

148
Q

One indicator of profitability is ___, also known as profit margin and return on sales, which is calculated as net income divided by revenue (or sales).

A

net profit margin

149
Q

One indicator of profitability is net profit margin, also known as ___ and return on sales, which is calculated as net income divided by revenue (or sales).

A

profit margin

150
Q

One indicator of profitability is net profit margin, also known as profit margin and ___, which is calculated as net income divided by revenue (or sales).

A

return on sales

151
Q

One indicator of profitability is net profit margin, also known as profit margin and return on sales, which is calculated as ___ divided by revenue (or sales).

A

net income

152
Q

One indicator of profitability is net profit margin, also known as profit margin and return on sales, which is calculated as net income divided by ___.

A

revenue (or sales)

153
Q

___ = Net income ÷ Revenue

A

Net profit margin

154
Q

Net profit margin = ___ ÷ Revenue

A

Net income

155
Q

Net profit margin = Net income ÷ ___

A

Revenue

156
Q

___ measures the amount of income that a company was able to generate for each dollar of revenue.

A

Net profit margin

157
Q

Net profit margin measures ___ for each dollar of revenue.

A

the amount of income that a company was able to generate

158
Q

Net profit margin measures the amount of income that a company was able to generate for ___.

A

each dollar of revenue

159
Q

___ is calculated as revenue minus cost of goods sold, and the gross profit margin is calculated as the gross profit divided by revenue.

A

Gross profit

160
Q

Gross profit is calculated as ___ minus cost of goods sold, and the gross profit margin is calculated as the gross profit divided by revenue.

A

revenue

161
Q

Gross profit is calculated as revenue minus ___, and the gross profit margin is calculated as the gross profit divided by revenue.

A

cost of goods sold

162
Q

Gross profit is calculated as revenue minus cost of goods sold, and ___ is calculated as the gross profit divided by revenue.

A

the gross profit margin

163
Q

Gross profit is calculated as revenue minus cost of goods sold, and the gross profit margin is calculated as ___ divided by revenue.

A

the gross profit

164
Q

Gross profit is calculated as revenue minus cost of goods sold, and the gross profit margin is calculated as the gross profit divided by ___.

A

revenue

165
Q

___ = Gross profit ÷ Revenue

A

Gross profit margin

166
Q

Gross profit margin = ___ ÷ Revenue

A

Gross profit

167
Q

Gross profit margin = Gross profit ÷ ___

A

Revenue

168
Q

___ measures the amount of gross profit that a company generated for each dollar of revenue.

A

The gross profit margin

169
Q

The gross profit margin measures ___ for each dollar of revenue.

A

the amount of gross profit that a company generated

170
Q

The gross profit margin measures the amount of gross profit that a company generated for ___.

A

each dollar of revenue

171
Q

There are certain items of ___ that, by accounting convention, are excluded from the net income calculation, known as other comprehensive income.

A

revenue and expense

172
Q

There are certain items of revenue and expense that, by accounting convention, are excluded from ___, known as other comprehensive income.

A

the net income calculation

173
Q

There are certain items of revenue and expense that, by accounting convention, are excluded from the net income calculation, known as ___.

A

other comprehensive income

174
Q

In U.S. financial statements, according to U.S. GAAP, four types of items are treated as ___.
- Foreign currency translation adjustments.
- Unrealized gains or losses on derivatives contracts accounted for as hedges.
- Unrealized holding gains and losses on a certain category of investment securities, namely, available - for - sale securities.
- Changes in the funded status of a company’s defined benefit postretirement plans.

A

other comprehensive income

175
Q

In U.S. financial statements, according to U.S. GAAP, four types of items are treated as other comprehensive income.
- ___.
- Unrealized gains or losses on derivatives contracts accounted for as hedges.
- Unrealized holding gains and losses on a certain category of investment securities, namely, available - for - sale securities.
- Changes in the funded status of a company’s defined benefit postretirement plans.

A

Foreign currency translation adjustments

In consolidating the financial statements of foreign subsidiaries, the effects of translating the subsidiaries’ balance sheet assets and liabilities at current exchange rates are included as other comprehensive income.

176
Q

In U.S. financial statements, according to U.S. GAAP, four types of items are treated as other comprehensive income.
- Foreign currency translation adjustments.
- ___.
- Unrealized holding gains and losses on a certain category of investment securities, namely, available - for - sale securities.
- Changes in the funded status of a company’s defined benefit postretirement plans.

A

Unrealized gains or losses on derivatives contracts accounted for as hedges

Changes in the fair value of derivatives are recorded each period, but these changes in value for certain derivatives (those considered hedges) are treated as other comprehensive income and thus bypass the income statement.

177
Q

In U.S. financial statements, according to U.S. GAAP, four types of items are treated as other comprehensive income.
- Foreign currency translation adjustments.
- Unrealized gains or losses on derivatives contracts accounted for as hedges.
- ___.
- Changes in the funded status of a company’s defined benefit postretirement plans.

A
  • Unrealized holding gains and losses on a certain category of investment securities, namely, available-for-sale securities
178
Q

In U.S. financial statements, according to U.S. GAAP, four types of items are treated as other comprehensive income.
- Foreign currency translation adjustments.
- Unrealized gains or losses on derivatives contracts accounted for as hedges.
- Unrealized holding gains and losses on a certain category of investment securities, namely, available - for - sale securities.
- ___.

A

Changes in the funded status of a company’s defined benefit postretirement plans