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Minor Surgical Procedures > ch. 20 minors > Flashcards

ch. 20 minors Flashcards

1
Q

Stones caused by the precipitation of minerals, such as calcium and other substances from the urine or kidney filtrate are:

A

Calculi

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2
Q

a urethral or ureteral catheter that is left in place is an

A

indwelling catheter

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3
Q

backward flow of a body fluid is a

A

reflux

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4
Q

——- is an instrument or other device that puts pressure on tissue, usually to stop bleeding

A

Tamponade

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5
Q

Twisting of an organ or a structure on itself is

A

Torsion

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6
Q

Where is the retroperitoneal cavity located

A

posterior to the peritoneal cavity

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7
Q

The —– are the primary organs for filtration of the blood

A

Kidneys

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8
Q

The ——— is composed of a vast system of microscopic tubules that communicate directly with the capillaries to filter the blood

A

Glomerulus

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9
Q

—— ——– are formed by the precipitation of specific salts from filtrate that becomes supersaturated

A

kidney stones

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10
Q

—— —— are paired organs that lie on the medial side of the upper kidney

A

adrenal glands

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11
Q

the —— communicates with the lower bladder to enable excretion of urine from the body

A

urethra

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12
Q

—– is layered tissue sac that encases the testicles

A

scrotum

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13
Q

the —— —— surrounds the urethra and secretes an alkaline fluid that contributes to seminal fluid

A

prostate gland

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14
Q

——— patients are extremely careful of their AV access sites and need to take precautions to prevent injury at the site

A

Hemodialysis

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15
Q

a —– may be used to outline structures of the urinary system including any stones larger than 2mm

A

KUB

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16
Q

a ——- attaches to the head of a scope and accepts accessories

A

bridge

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17
Q

———— uses a rigid or flexible ureteroscope, which is inserted through the urethra and advanced into the renal pelvis and ureter

A

ureteroscopy

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18
Q

whenever electrosurgical instruments are used, the irrigation fluid must be

A

non-electrolytic

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19
Q

a —– incision is made in the skin and carried circumferentially

A

dorsal

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20
Q

a —— is a benign, fluid filled sac that developes in the anterior testis

A

Hydrocele

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21
Q

patients are monitored for post op —– and ——–

A

swelling and hemorrhage

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22
Q

a —— ——– is placed into the scrotal sac after orchiectomy

A

testicular prosthesis

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23
Q

the pt is prepped and draped for an abdominal laparoscopic procedure in what position?

A

Lithotomy

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24
Q

—– —– is performed for chronic and acute ESRD

A

Kidney Transplantation

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25
Q

for a transuretheral resection of the prostate gland the urethra is then dilated with —— —— —–

A

Van Buren Sounds

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26
Q

For a transurethral resection of the prostate gland, the rectoscope is inserted and resection begins at the —- and —– —— and continues in a systematic pattern

A

medial and lateral lobes

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27
Q

——- is the insertion of a suprapubic catheter into the bladder for drainage. From what 2 approaches is the catheter inserted?

A

cystostomy

-percutaneous or open approach

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28
Q

——- is the ligation of the veins of the testes to reduce venous backflow of blood into the internal spermatic veins to improve spermatogenesis

A

varicoelectomy

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29
Q

if the —– is the result of skin tightening the doctor may shorten the dorsal foreskin and remove any fibrous tissue that is causing the curvature

A

chordee

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30
Q

if associated with hypospadias, —– is corrected at time of hypospadias repair

A

chordee

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31
Q
  • —— ———- (Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz procedure) is a suspension of the bladder neck and urethra to the cartilage of the pubic symphysis to treat urinary stress incontinence in the female
  • What incision is made
A

Vesicourethral Suspension

Lower midline or Pfannenstiel

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32
Q

What catheter is inserted into the bladder following a ressection

A

30 cc three way foley

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33
Q

How long is the catheter in place for

A

12 to 24 hours

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34
Q

—– ——- away from the bladder is performed before or after radical cystectomy

A

urinary diversion

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35
Q

—— and —– —— (insertion of a tube into the renal pelvis for drainage) is indicated for selected pt with lodged in the renal pelvis or upper ureter. it is performed with fluroscopic guidance

A

PCNL and Percutaneous nephrostomy

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36
Q

the surgical removal of one kidney

A

simple nephrectomy

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37
Q

what position is the pt in for a simple nephrectomy

A

lateral with the flank over the table break or kidney lift and prepped for subcostal flank incision

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38
Q

how is an ochiectomy wound closed and dressed

A

inturrupted or subcuticular suture on fine cutting needle. Antibiotic ointment applied to incision. Gauze and scrotal fluffs for dressing

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39
Q

during a —– prostate is removed through rectoscope inserted through the urethra

A

TURP

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40
Q

—– is the reconstruction of ureter at the level of the renal pelvis

A

pyeloplasty

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41
Q

—— —– may be used during assesment of the bladder and retrograde pyelography

A

sterile water

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42
Q

—– total or partial removal of the bladder most often done to treat bladder cancer

A

cystectomy

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43
Q

—— of the testical is the rotation of the testicle around its proximal attachments

A

torsion

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44
Q

surgical removal of one or both testicles

A

ochiectomy

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45
Q

absorbtion of irrigation fluid may result in —-

A

vascular overload

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46
Q

The testicular artery and veins are cross clamped with —- or —- ——

A

kelly or mayo clamps

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47
Q

the spermatic cord is identified and vas defens are separated doubled clamped cut and ligated with —– —- —–

A

2.0 vicryl ties

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48
Q

The tissue and vessels are divided with esu and ligated with size 0 —— —— —– ——

A

absorbable synthetic suture ligatures

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49
Q

the ——- is delivered from the scrotum without rupturing it and the esu is used to make a small incision in the sac membrane

A

hydrocele

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50
Q

When perfomrming a simple nephrectomy, what and where is the incision made

A

flank incision along the twelfth rib extending along the border of the rectus muscle

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51
Q

——– is a very rare condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the top side of the penis. the defect is associated with extrophy of the bladder and other defects of the pelvis and gu system

A

epispadias

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52
Q

procedure in which stones are crushed

A

lithotripsy

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53
Q

——- ——– is designed to accept accessory instruments and the scope also has designated channels for suction irrigation and a telescope

A

rigid uteroscope

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54
Q

a small diameter semirigid ureteroscope is narrower than —— which allows for dialation of the tip under direct vision

A

7.5 fr

55
Q

two non electrolytic solutions used during ressection

A

sorbitol or gycine

56
Q

cell biopsy can be taken from the bladder with a —— ——

A

cytology brush

57
Q

the ——— ——– has accommodations for continuous drainage, intraoperative fluoroscopy and xray

A

cystoscopy table

58
Q

— is an xray of the kidneys ureters and bladder

A

KUB

59
Q

—— may be used to outline structures of the urinary system including any stones over 2mm. however CT is now preffered for stone imaging

A

KUB

60
Q

A —– —— is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope

A

Retrograde urogram

61
Q

an —— is the component of the rigid endoscope system for cystoscopy which is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion

A

obturator

62
Q

4 examples of operative approaches

A

Flank, Gibson, inguinal and scrotal

63
Q

——– is more commonly known as undescended testicals

A

cryptorchidism

64
Q

The —– incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation

A

Gibson

65
Q

the ——- ——- surgical approach the latissimus dorsi internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site

A

subcostal flank

66
Q

—— —— are more commonly known as prostate

A

suprarenal glands

67
Q

—— —- encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands

A

Gerotas fascia

68
Q

The adrenal medulla secrete ———

A

catecholamines

69
Q

between the ages 3 and 8 a pt might likely be diagnosed with —— ——-

A

wilms tumor

70
Q

what positon is a pt in for a radical nephrectomy

A

supine

71
Q

the —– —— is ligated and transected first in a radical or laparoscopic nephrectomy following isolation of the vessels and ureter

A

renal artery

72
Q

the —- kidney is larger and slightly higher than the —–

A

Left – Right

73
Q

the —– of the kidney is located medial midsection

A

hilum

74
Q

—— is the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million

A

nephron

75
Q

simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in what position

A

lateral

76
Q

cooling with — — or — —– is a measure taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant

A

collins solution or ice slush

77
Q

a ——- used for chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy

A

morcellator

78
Q

only 2 treatments for end stage kidney failure

A

dialysis and kidney transplant

79
Q

What does the anesthesia provider give just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor kidney?

A

Heparin and Mannitol in the iv 75. Protamine is given iv after the donor kidney is removed to prevent heparinization

80
Q

What quadrant will a donor kidney be transplanted

A

Right lower

81
Q

what will the st need to have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the receipient

A

Potts scissors and 11 blade

82
Q

what suture is used to anastomose vessels in transplants

A

fine, nonabsorbable double armed suture

83
Q

cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procesures are performed in what position

A

lower lithotomy

84
Q

a —- —- or — —- is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for dranage of urine from the kidneys

A

double-J or pigtail stent

85
Q

—- —— —— is used through the uteroscope to capture an intact calulus or fragments if fractured by laser

A

basket stone forceps

86
Q

a ——— is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum

A

pilolithotomy

87
Q

—— ——- is how the pt is positioned for a proximal pyelolithotomy

A

lateral position

88
Q

the bladder is attached to the —– in males

A

prostate

89
Q

what muscle is responsible for emptying the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice

A

detrusor muscle

90
Q

the vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the —– —- —–

A

internal iliac artery

91
Q

—– —— or —– —– would be containdicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor

A

saline irrigation or distention fluid

92
Q

a —- —- —- is applied to the head of the penis to keep the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to a cystoscopy from leaking out

A

flexible penile clamp

93
Q

what unique feature of the cystocopy suite OR table

A

mesh drain attachement

94
Q

an —– ——- —- exam might prompt the additional investigation of an prostate biopsy

A

elevated serum PSA

95
Q

a ——- could be done on either a male or female patient

A

TURBT

96
Q

Glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during a TURP

A

Ellik

97
Q

3 contrast medias used in cystoscopy

A

omnipaque renografin and isovue

98
Q

a resectoscope instrument is used in a —— or —— and includes the sheath , obturator, working element and esu loops

A

Turp Turbt

99
Q

—— is a distention fluid which is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake

A

water

100
Q

——– excision of the urinary bladder

A

cystectomy

101
Q

—- ——– is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion

A

ileal conduit

102
Q

—– —— is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following a cystectomy

A

Koch Pouch

103
Q

the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall are everted and affixed to the skin for a ——– ——–

A

Stoma

104
Q

( —— ) is a traditional type of suprapubic vesicourethral suspendsion

A

MMK

105
Q

——- —— and —— ——- are performed to mainly

treat moderate to severe stress incontinence

A

vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings

106
Q

One of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence is to restore the —— —— ——–

A

posterier urethrovesical angle

107
Q

3 types of pubovaginal or suburethral slings

A
  • Polypropylene mesh tape
  • autograft fascia lata
  • allograft fascia lata
108
Q

what 3 sections of the male urethra divided into

A

prostatic, membranous and spongy

109
Q

—- ——- ——- is the common diagnosis of a pt undergoing a TURP

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

110
Q

4 types of resectoscopes

A

baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy and Nesbit

111
Q

an —— —— ——- is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through a resectoscope

A

ESU Loop Electrode

112
Q

What catheter is placed following a TURP

A

3 way 22 FR. Foley with 30 ML balloon

113
Q

———– is a relf retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy

A

Judd-Mason

114
Q

3 types of suprapubic catheters

A

Bonanno, Malecot and Pezzer

115
Q

The specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce ——

A

Sperm

116
Q

—— is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis

A

Hydrocele

117
Q

when is an orchiectomy performed

A

Testicular cancer, Trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion

118
Q

——- is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis

A

Prepuce

119
Q

Term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis

A

phimosis

120
Q

diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage and trauma are all possible causes of

A

Impotence

121
Q

what is the most serious complication of penile implant surgery

A

SSI

122
Q

a —– is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis

A

hegar

123
Q

a ——– is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation

A

Penectomy

124
Q

a suprapubic prostatectomy, insertion of penile implant and kidney transplant are all examples of:

A

Open Procedures

125
Q

a TURP, Cystoscopy ad ureteral placement are all examples of

A

transuretheral procedures

126
Q

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy is an example of

A

percutaneous procedure

127
Q

a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis is ———-

A

hypospadias

128
Q

a congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands is

A

Chordee

129
Q

Inflammation of the glands penis due to poor hygiene

A

Balantitis

130
Q

the ——- is the coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis

A

epididymis

131
Q

The —— —- that covers most of the testis, epidymis and lower spermatic cord is the

A

tunica vaginalis

132
Q

——— are radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect so lower doses can be used

A

Palladium

133
Q

——– ——– is the minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of the prostate with fewest post op complications and quickest recovery time

A

Robotic surgery

134
Q

——— is the condition of abnormal increase in number or cells in tissues or organs

A

Hyperplasia

Minor Surgical Procedures (3 decks)

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