ch. 20 minors Flashcards

1
Q

Stones caused by the precipitation of minerals, such as calcium and other substances from the urine or kidney filtrate are:

A

Calculi

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2
Q

a urethral or ureteral catheter that is left in place is an

A

indwelling catheter

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3
Q

backward flow of a body fluid is a

A

reflux

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4
Q

——- is an instrument or other device that puts pressure on tissue, usually to stop bleeding

A

Tamponade

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5
Q

Twisting of an organ or a structure on itself is

A

Torsion

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6
Q

Where is the retroperitoneal cavity located

A

posterior to the peritoneal cavity

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7
Q

The —– are the primary organs for filtration of the blood

A

Kidneys

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8
Q

The ——— is composed of a vast system of microscopic tubules that communicate directly with the capillaries to filter the blood

A

Glomerulus

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9
Q

—— ——– are formed by the precipitation of specific salts from filtrate that becomes supersaturated

A

kidney stones

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10
Q

—— —— are paired organs that lie on the medial side of the upper kidney

A

adrenal glands

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11
Q

the —— communicates with the lower bladder to enable excretion of urine from the body

A

urethra

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12
Q

—– is layered tissue sac that encases the testicles

A

scrotum

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13
Q

the —— —— surrounds the urethra and secretes an alkaline fluid that contributes to seminal fluid

A

prostate gland

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14
Q

——— patients are extremely careful of their AV access sites and need to take precautions to prevent injury at the site

A

Hemodialysis

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15
Q

a —– may be used to outline structures of the urinary system including any stones larger than 2mm

A

KUB

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16
Q

a ——- attaches to the head of a scope and accepts accessories

A

bridge

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17
Q

———— uses a rigid or flexible ureteroscope, which is inserted through the urethra and advanced into the renal pelvis and ureter

A

ureteroscopy

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18
Q

whenever electrosurgical instruments are used, the irrigation fluid must be

A

non-electrolytic

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19
Q

a —– incision is made in the skin and carried circumferentially

A

dorsal

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20
Q

a —— is a benign, fluid filled sac that developes in the anterior testis

A

Hydrocele

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21
Q

patients are monitored for post op —– and ——–

A

swelling and hemorrhage

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22
Q

a —— ——– is placed into the scrotal sac after orchiectomy

A

testicular prosthesis

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23
Q

the pt is prepped and draped for an abdominal laparoscopic procedure in what position?

A

Lithotomy

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24
Q

—– —– is performed for chronic and acute ESRD

A

Kidney Transplantation

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25
for a transuretheral resection of the prostate gland the urethra is then dilated with ------ ------ -----
Van Buren Sounds
26
For a transurethral resection of the prostate gland, the rectoscope is inserted and resection begins at the ---- and ----- ------ and continues in a systematic pattern
medial and lateral lobes
27
------- is the insertion of a suprapubic catheter into the bladder for drainage. From what 2 approaches is the catheter inserted?
cystostomy | -percutaneous or open approach
28
------- is the ligation of the veins of the testes to reduce venous backflow of blood into the internal spermatic veins to improve spermatogenesis
varicoelectomy
29
if the ----- is the result of skin tightening the doctor may shorten the dorsal foreskin and remove any fibrous tissue that is causing the curvature
chordee
30
if associated with hypospadias, ----- is corrected at time of hypospadias repair
chordee
31
- ------ ---------- (Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz procedure) is a suspension of the bladder neck and urethra to the cartilage of the pubic symphysis to treat urinary stress incontinence in the female - What incision is made
Vesicourethral Suspension | Lower midline or Pfannenstiel
32
What catheter is inserted into the bladder following a ressection
30 cc three way foley
33
How long is the catheter in place for
12 to 24 hours
34
----- ------- away from the bladder is performed before or after radical cystectomy
urinary diversion
35
------ and ----- ------ (insertion of a tube into the renal pelvis for drainage) is indicated for selected pt with lodged in the renal pelvis or upper ureter. it is performed with fluroscopic guidance
PCNL and Percutaneous nephrostomy
36
the surgical removal of one kidney
simple nephrectomy
37
what position is the pt in for a simple nephrectomy
lateral with the flank over the table break or kidney lift and prepped for subcostal flank incision
38
how is an ochiectomy wound closed and dressed
inturrupted or subcuticular suture on fine cutting needle. Antibiotic ointment applied to incision. Gauze and scrotal fluffs for dressing
39
during a ----- prostate is removed through rectoscope inserted through the urethra
TURP
40
----- is the reconstruction of ureter at the level of the renal pelvis
pyeloplasty
41
------ ----- may be used during assesment of the bladder and retrograde pyelography
sterile water
42
----- total or partial removal of the bladder most often done to treat bladder cancer
cystectomy
43
------ of the testical is the rotation of the testicle around its proximal attachments
torsion
44
surgical removal of one or both testicles
ochiectomy
45
absorbtion of irrigation fluid may result in ----
vascular overload
46
The testicular artery and veins are cross clamped with ---- or ---- ------
kelly or mayo clamps
47
the spermatic cord is identified and vas defens are separated doubled clamped cut and ligated with ----- ---- -----
2.0 vicryl ties
48
The tissue and vessels are divided with esu and ligated with size 0 ------ ------ ----- ------
absorbable synthetic suture ligatures
49
the ------- is delivered from the scrotum without rupturing it and the esu is used to make a small incision in the sac membrane
hydrocele
50
When perfomrming a simple nephrectomy, what and where is the incision made
flank incision along the twelfth rib extending along the border of the rectus muscle
51
-------- is a very rare condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the top side of the penis. the defect is associated with extrophy of the bladder and other defects of the pelvis and gu system
epispadias
52
procedure in which stones are crushed
lithotripsy
53
------- -------- is designed to accept accessory instruments and the scope also has designated channels for suction irrigation and a telescope
rigid uteroscope
54
a small diameter semirigid ureteroscope is narrower than ------ which allows for dialation of the tip under direct vision
7.5 fr
55
two non electrolytic solutions used during ressection
sorbitol or gycine
56
cell biopsy can be taken from the bladder with a ------ ------
cytology brush
57
the --------- -------- has accommodations for continuous drainage, intraoperative fluoroscopy and xray
cystoscopy table
58
--- is an xray of the kidneys ureters and bladder
KUB
59
------ may be used to outline structures of the urinary system including any stones over 2mm. however CT is now preffered for stone imaging
KUB
60
A ----- ------ is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope
Retrograde urogram
61
an ------ is the component of the rigid endoscope system for cystoscopy which is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion
obturator
62
4 examples of operative approaches
Flank, Gibson, inguinal and scrotal
63
-------- is more commonly known as undescended testicals
cryptorchidism
64
The ----- incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation
Gibson
65
the ------- ------- surgical approach the latissimus dorsi internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site
subcostal flank
66
------ ------ are more commonly known as prostate
suprarenal glands
67
------ ---- encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands
Gerotas fascia
68
The adrenal medulla secrete ---------
catecholamines
69
between the ages 3 and 8 a pt might likely be diagnosed with ------ -------
wilms tumor
70
what positon is a pt in for a radical nephrectomy
supine
71
the ----- ------ is ligated and transected first in a radical or laparoscopic nephrectomy following isolation of the vessels and ureter
renal artery
72
the ---- kidney is larger and slightly higher than the -----
Left -- Right
73
the ----- of the kidney is located medial midsection
hilum
74
------ is the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million
nephron
75
simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in what position
lateral
76
cooling with --- --- or --- ----- is a measure taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant
collins solution or ice slush
77
a ------- used for chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy
morcellator
78
only 2 treatments for end stage kidney failure
dialysis and kidney transplant
79
What does the anesthesia provider give just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor kidney?
Heparin and Mannitol in the iv 75. Protamine is given iv after the donor kidney is removed to prevent heparinization
80
What quadrant will a donor kidney be transplanted
Right lower
81
what will the st need to have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the receipient
Potts scissors and 11 blade
82
what suture is used to anastomose vessels in transplants
fine, nonabsorbable double armed suture
83
cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procesures are performed in what position
lower lithotomy
84
a ---- ---- or --- ---- is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for dranage of urine from the kidneys
double-J or pigtail stent
85
---- ------ ------ is used through the uteroscope to capture an intact calulus or fragments if fractured by laser
basket stone forceps
86
a --------- is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum
pilolithotomy
87
------ ------- is how the pt is positioned for a proximal pyelolithotomy
lateral position
88
the bladder is attached to the ----- in males
prostate
89
what muscle is responsible for emptying the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice
detrusor muscle
90
the vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the ----- ---- -----
internal iliac artery
91
----- ------ or ----- ----- would be containdicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor
saline irrigation or distention fluid
92
a ---- ---- ---- is applied to the head of the penis to keep the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to a cystoscopy from leaking out
flexible penile clamp
93
what unique feature of the cystocopy suite OR table
mesh drain attachement
94
an ----- ------- ---- exam might prompt the additional investigation of an prostate biopsy
elevated serum PSA
95
a ------- could be done on either a male or female patient
TURBT
96
Glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during a TURP
Ellik
97
3 contrast medias used in cystoscopy
omnipaque renografin and isovue
98
a resectoscope instrument is used in a ------ or ------ and includes the sheath , obturator, working element and esu loops
Turp Turbt
99
------ is a distention fluid which is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake
water
100
-------- excision of the urinary bladder
cystectomy
101
---- -------- is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion
ileal conduit
102
----- ------ is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following a cystectomy
Koch Pouch
103
the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall are everted and affixed to the skin for a -------- --------
Stoma
104
( ------ ) is a traditional type of suprapubic vesicourethral suspendsion
MMK
105
------- ------ and ------ ------- are performed to mainly | treat moderate to severe stress incontinence
vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings
106
One of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence is to restore the ------ ------ --------
posterier urethrovesical angle
107
3 types of pubovaginal or suburethral slings
- Polypropylene mesh tape - autograft fascia lata - allograft fascia lata
108
what 3 sections of the male urethra divided into
prostatic, membranous and spongy
109
---- ------- ------- is the common diagnosis of a pt undergoing a TURP
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
110
4 types of resectoscopes
baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy and Nesbit
111
an ------ ------ ------- is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through a resectoscope
ESU Loop Electrode
112
What catheter is placed following a TURP
3 way 22 FR. Foley with 30 ML balloon
113
----------- is a relf retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy
Judd-Mason
114
3 types of suprapubic catheters
Bonanno, Malecot and Pezzer
115
The specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce ------
Sperm
116
------ is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis
Hydrocele
117
when is an orchiectomy performed
Testicular cancer, Trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion
118
------- is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis
Prepuce
119
Term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis
phimosis
120
diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage and trauma are all possible causes of
Impotence
121
what is the most serious complication of penile implant surgery
SSI
122
a ----- is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis
hegar
123
a -------- is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation
Penectomy
124
a suprapubic prostatectomy, insertion of penile implant and kidney transplant are all examples of:
Open Procedures
125
a TURP, Cystoscopy ad ureteral placement are all examples of
transuretheral procedures
126
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy is an example of
percutaneous procedure
127
a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis is ----------
hypospadias
128
a congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands is
Chordee
129
Inflammation of the glands penis due to poor hygiene
Balantitis
130
the ------- is the coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis
epididymis
131
The ------ ---- that covers most of the testis, epidymis and lower spermatic cord is the
tunica vaginalis
132
--------- are radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect so lower doses can be used
Palladium
133
-------- -------- is the minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of the prostate with fewest post op complications and quickest recovery time
Robotic surgery
134
--------- is the condition of abnormal increase in number or cells in tissues or organs
Hyperplasia