Ch. 2: Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

defn + types of cells: diploid vs. haploid

A

DIPLOID = 2n = contain two copies of each chromosome
- autosomal cells

HAPLOID = n = only one copy of each chromosome
- germ cells

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2
Q

what is the cell cycle?

A

the series of phases that eukaryotic cells replicate through

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3
Q

what are the four stages of the cell cycle for actively dividing cells?

A

G1
S
G2
M

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4
Q

defn: interphase

A

the first three stages (G1, S, and G2)

the longest part of the cell cycle (actively dividinig cells spend 90% of their time here)

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5
Q

defn: G0 phase

A

an offshoot of G1

this is where cells that do not divide spend all of their time

the cell simply lives and carries out its functions, without any preparation for division

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6
Q

what form is DNA in during interphase? how does this affect visualization with light microscopy?

why is DNA in this form?

A

chromatin (less condensed form)

individual chromosomes are not visible with light microscopy in this state

it is in this form because DNA must be available to RNA polymerase so that genes can be transcribed

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7
Q

steps (2) + aka: G1 phase

A

Presynthetic gap

cells create organelles for energy and protein production (mitochondria, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum), while also increasing their size

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8
Q

what criterion must be met for the cell to pass from the G1 to S stage? what is this junction calle?

A

restriction point

criteria: containing the proper complement of DNA

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9
Q

steps (2) + aka: S stage

A

Synthesis of DNA

  1. cell replicates its genetic material so that each daughter cell will have identical copies
  2. after replication, each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids that are bound together at a specialized region (the centromere)
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10
Q

how many chromosomes are present after replication (after S stage)? what does this imply about the amount of DNA entering G2 as compared to G1?

A

still 46! 92 chromatids are present, but the ploidy has not changed

cells entering G2 have twice as much DNA as cells in G1

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11
Q

defn: chromatid vs. chromosome

A

CHROMATID = composed of a complete double-stranded molecule of DNA
- sister chromatids are identical copies of each other

CHROMOSOME = a single chromatid before S phase OR the pair of chromatids attached at the centromere AFTER the S phase

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12
Q

steps (3) + aka: G2 stage

A

postsynthetic gap

  1. cell passes through another quality control checkpoint
  2. DNA has already been duplicated, and the cell checks to make sure there are enough organelles and cytoplasm for two daughter cells
  3. the cell also checks to make sure the DNA proceeded correctly to avoid passing on an error to daughter cells
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13
Q

what are the two checkpoints that control the cell cycle?

A

G1/S and G2/M

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14
Q

what is the main point of the G1/S checkpoint?

what happens to the cell if there is damage at this checkpoint?

what is the main protein in control of this?

A

the cell determines if the condition of the DNA is good enough for synthesis

if there is DNA damage: the cell cycle goes into arrest until the DNA has been repaired

main protein: p53

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15
Q

what is the main point of the G2/M checkpoint?

what is the main protein?

A

the cell is mainly concerned with ensuring that it has achieved adequate size and the organelles have been properly replicated to support w daughter cells

main protein: p53

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16
Q

defn + how they work (4): cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK)

A

the molecules responsible for the cell cycle

  1. to be activated, CDKs require the presence of the right cyclins
  2. during the cell cycle, concentrations of the different cyclins increase and decrease during specific stages
  3. these cyclins bind to CDKs, creating an activated CDK-cyclin comlex
  4. this complex can then phosphorylate transcription factors
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17
Q

defn: transcription factors

A

promote transcription of genes required for the next stage of the cell cycle

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18
Q

why is cell cycle control needed?

A

to ensure that cells that are damaged or inadequately sized do not divide

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19
Q

what happens when cell cycle control falters, and damaged cells undergo mitosis?

A

cancer may result!

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20
Q

defn + result (3): mutation of TP53

A

one of the most common mutations found in cancer

mutation of the gene that produces p53 (TP53)

when this is mutated
1. the cell cycle is not stopped to repair damaged DNA
2. mutations accumulate
3. results in a cancerous cell that divides continuously and without regard to the quality or quantity of the new cells produced

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21
Q

steps: tumors vs. metastasis vs. middle stage

A

TUMOR: cancer cells undergo rapid division

MIDDLE STAGE: eventually if the cell begins to make the right factors, the damaged cells are then able to reach other tissues

METASTASIS: may be local invasion as well as distant spread of cancerous cells through the bloodstream or lymphatic systems

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22
Q

defn: mitosis

A

the process by which 2 identical daughter cells are created from a single cell

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23
Q

what are the 4 phases of mitosis? + mnemonic

A

PMAT

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

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24
Q

what kind of cells does mitosis occur in?

A

somatic cells (cells not involved in sexual reproduction)

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25
Q

summarize the main accomplishments of the 4 phases of mitosis

A

PROPHASE - chromosomes condense, spindle forms

METAPHASE - chromosomes align

ANAPHASE - sister chromatids separate

TELOPHASE - new nuclear membranes form

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26
Q

what are the two microtubule organizing centrs of the cell?

A
  1. the centrosome
  2. the basal body of a flagellum or cilium
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27
Q

defn : cytokinesis

A

occurs at the end of telophase

separation of the cytoplasm and organelles (gives each daughter cell enough material to survive on its own)

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27
Q

can cells divide infinitely?

A

no; each cell undergoes a finite number of divisions before programmed death (for human somatic cells, that is usually 20 - 50)

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27
Q

what types of cells does meiosis occur in? what are the results of meiosis?

A

occurs in: germ cells (gametocytes)

results in: four nonidentical sex cells (gametes)

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27
Q

what are 3 similarities between mitosis and meiosis?

A
  1. genetic material must be duplicated
  2. chromatin is condensed to form chromosomes
  3. microtubules emanating from centrioles are involved in dividing genetic material
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27
Q

how many rounds of replication and division are there in mitosis and meiosis each?

A

Mitosis: 1 replication, 1 division

Meiosis: 1 replication, 2 division

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28
Q

what is the result of meiosis I? (aka?)

A

homologous chromosomes being separated –> generates haploid daughter cells

aka: reductional division

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29
Q

what is the result of meiosis II? aka?

A

results in the separation of sister chromatids without a change in ploidy

equational division

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30
Q

which is more similar to mitosis: meiosis I or meiosis II?

A

meiosis II

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31
Q

defn: homologous pairs vs. sister chromatids

A

HOMOLOGOUS PAIRS = considered separate chromosomes (i.e. maternal chromosome 15 and paternal chromosome 15)

SISTER CHROMATIDS = identical strands of DNA connected at the centromere

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32
Q

how many homologous pairs of chromosomes (homologues) is the human genome composed of?

A

23

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33
Q

after the S phase, how many chromatids, chromosomes, and homologous pairs are there?

A

92 chromatids

organized into

46 chromosomes

organized into

23 homologous pairs

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34
Q

each homologous pair contains one WHAT from each parent?

A

one chromosome

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35
Q

how is crossing over characterized?

A

by the number of crossover events that occur in one strand of DNA (single crossovers, double crossovers, etc.)

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36
Q

why does it logically make sense that crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes and NOT between sister chromatids of the same chromosome?

A

the latter are identical, so crossing over would not produce any change

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37
Q

defn: recombination

A

the result of crossing over

the chromatids involved are left with an altered but structurally complete set of genes

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38
Q

what effect does genetic recombination have on linked genes?

A

it can unlink linked genes –> increases the variety of genetic combos that can be produced via gametogenesis

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39
Q

defn: linkage

A

the tendency for genes to be inherited together

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40
Q

how does physical distance between genes affect crossing over and linkage?

A

the FARTHER genes are located from each other the

LESS likely they are to be inherited together and are
MORE likely to undergo crossing over

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41
Q

what advantage does sexual reproduction provide that asexual reproduction doesnt?

A

great genetic diversity!! –> increased ability to evolve and adapt to a changing environment

42
Q

defn: Mendel’s second law of independent assortment

A

the inheritance of one allele has no effect on the likelihood of inheriting certain alleles for other genes

43
Q

what does each daughter cell have because of crossing over?

A

a unique pool of alleles from a random mixture of maternal and paternal origin

44
Q

what part of anaphase I of meiosis I accounts for Mendel’s first law of segregation?

A

disjunction

45
Q

defn: interkinesis

A

a short rest period that may occur between cell divisions during which the chromosomes partly uncolil

46
Q

what are the 4 main differences between meiosis and mitosis?

A

Mitosis: 2n –> 2n
Meiosis: 2n –> n

Mitosis: occurs in all dividing cells
meiosis: occurs in sex cells only

mitosis: homologous chromosomes do not pair
meiosis: homologous chromosomes align on opposite sides of the metaphase plate

mitosis: no crossing over
meiosis: crossing over can occur

47
Q

what is chromosomal sex determined by? what are the two types?

A

by the 23rd pair of chromosomes

XX: female
XY: male

48
Q

what chromosomes do ova and sperm carry?

A

ova: X chromosome
sperm: either X or Y chromosome

49
Q

mnemonic: X-linked mutations

A

SeX-linked is X-linked

50
Q

defn: hemizygous

A

males are termed this with respect to many genes on the X chromosome because they only have one copy

51
Q

char (4): X-linked disorders

A
  1. a male with a disease-causing allele on the unpaired part of the X chromosome will necessarily express that allele (hemizygous)
  2. females may be homozygous or heterozygous with respect to genes on the X chromosome
  3. most X-linked disorders are recessively inherited
  4. females express these disorders far less frequently than males
52
Q

defn: carrier

A

a female carrying a diseased allele on an X chromosome but not exhibiting the disease

53
Q

which contains more genetic information: the X or Y chromosome?

54
Q

defn + location + func: SRY

A

SRY = sex-determining region Y

one notable gene on the Y chromosome

codes for a transcription factor that initiates testis differentiation and thus the formation of male gonads

in Y chromosome absence: ALL zygotes female
in Y chromosome presence: zygote is male

55
Q

mnemonic: pathway of sperm through the male reproductive system

A

SEVE(N) UP

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
(Nothing)
Urethra
Penis

56
Q

what do the primitive gonads in males develop into?

57
Q

what are the two functional components and what do they do + char?

A
  1. SEMINIFEROUS TUBULES = highly coiled
    produces sperm
  2. INTERSTITIAL CELLS OF LEYDIG = secrete testosterone and other male sex hormones (androgens)
58
Q

func: Sertoli cells

A

nourishes seminiferous tubules

59
Q

defn: scrotum

A

an external pouch that hangs below the penis and contains the testes

60
Q

why and how (2) do the testes have a lower temperature than the rest of the body?

A
  1. there is a layer of muscle around the vas deferens that can raise and lower the testis to keep proper temperature
  2. the location of the testes below the penis

for proper sperm development

61
Q

what happens to sperm in the epididymis?

A

their flagella gain motility

62
Q

during ejaculation, what 2 parts of the male system does sperm travel through or to?

A
  1. vas deferens
  2. ejaculatory duct
63
Q

func + what is it formed from: urethra

A

the two ejaculatory ducts fuse to form it

carries sperm through the penis as they exit the body

64
Q

defn + 3 parts that produce it: seminal fluid

A

mixes with sperm as they pass through the reproductive tract

  1. seminal vesicles
  2. prostate gland
  3. bulbourethral gland
65
Q

func: seminal vesicles

A

contribute fructose to nourish sperm

give the fluid mildly alkaline properties

66
Q

func: prostate gland

A

gives the fluid mildly alkaline properties

67
Q

why do the seminal vesicles and prostate gland give the sperm mildly alkaline properties?

A

so they can survive in the relative acidity of the female reproductive tract

68
Q

func: bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands

A

produce a clear viscous fluid that cleans out any remnants of urine and lubricates the urethra during sexual arousal

69
Q

defn: semen

A

the combination of sperm and seminal fluid

70
Q

defn: spermatogenesis and spermatogonia

A

SPERMATOGENESIS = the formation of haploid sperm through meiosis (occurs in the seminiferous tubules)

SPERMATOGONIA = male diploid stem cells

71
Q

what are the 5 steps of sperm development and what are they called at that stage?

A
  1. SPERMATOGONIA = male diploid stem cells
  2. diploid PRIMARY SPERMATOCYTES = after replicating their genetic material (S stage)
  3. haploid SECONDARY SPERMATOCYTES = after the first meiotic division
  4. haploid SPERMATIDS = after meiosis II
  5. SPERMATOZOA = after maturation
72
Q

how many functional sperm are resulted from spermatogenesis per spermatogonium?

73
Q

what are the three main parts of mature sperm and what are their basic functions?

A
  1. HEAD = contains genetic material
  2. MIDPIECE = generates ATP from fructose
  3. FLAGELLUM = for motility
74
Q

why is the midpiece of the sperm filled with mitochondria?

A

they generate the energy for swimming through the female reproductive tract to reach the ovum in the fallopian tubes

75
Q

defn + func + origin: acrosome

A

defn: a cap that covers each sperm head
func: necessary to penetrate the ovum
origin: derived from the Golgi apparatus

76
Q

defn + func: ovaries

A

gonads

produce estrogen and progesterone

77
Q

defn + func: follicles

A

thousands of these are in the ovaries

multilayered sacs that contain, nourish, and protect immature ova (eggs)

78
Q

how many eggs are ovulated a month and what is the path from ovary to exit?

A

1

  1. goes into the peritoneal sac (lines the abdominal cavity)
  2. then the fallopian tube (oviduct; lined with cilia to propel the egg forward)
  3. uterus
79
Q

defn: oogenesis

A

the production of female gametes

80
Q

gametocytes undergo the same meiotic process in both females and males, but what is a difference between them?

A

there is no unending supply of stem cells analogous to spermatogonia in females

81
Q

defn + char: primary vs. secondary oocytes

A

PRIMARY OOCYTES
by birth, all oogonia have undergone DNA replication
these cells are 2n and are arrested in prophase I

SECONDARY OOCYTES
produce along with a polar body when one primary oocyte per month completes meiosis I
arrested in metaphase II, does not complete the rest of meiosis II unless fertilization occurs
polar body: does not divide further, will never produce functional gametes

82
Q

why does a polar body get produced alongside a secondary oocyte?

A

because of unequal cytokinesis which distributes ample cytoplasm to one daughter cell (the secondary oocyte) and nearly none to the other (the polar body)

83
Q

defn + func: zona pellucida ; corona radiata

A

the two layers that surround oocytes

ZONA PELLUCIDA
1. surrounds the oocyte itself
2. an acellular mixture of glycoproteins (protects the oocyte) and compounds needed for sperm binding

CORONA RADIATA
1. outside the zona pellucida
2. a layer of cells that adheres to the oocyte during ovulation

84
Q

what triggers meiosis II of a secondary oocyte?

A

when a sperm cell penetrates the corona radiata and zona pellucida with the help of acrosomal enzymes

85
Q

result: meiosis II of a secondary oocyte

A

splits into a mature ovum and another polar body

86
Q

func + char: mature ovum

A
  1. a large cell consisting of large amts of cytoplasm and organelles

contributes nearly everything to the zygote (half of the DNA, all of the cytoplasm, organelles, and RNA for early cellular processes)

sperm contribute the other half

87
Q

what happens upon completion of meiosis II?

A

the haploid pronuclei of the sperm and the ovum join, creating a diploid zygote

88
Q

what is the status of production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) before and during puberty

A

PRE-PUBERTY: the hypothalamus restricts production of GnRH

START OF PUBERTY: this restriction is lifed as the hypothalamus releases pulses of GnRH

89
Q

what is the immediate effect and secondary affect of the restriction on GnRH production being lifted at the start of puberty?

A

the anterior pituitary grand is triggered to synthesize and release follicle-stimulating hormone FSH and luteinizing hormone LH

these hormones trigger the production of other sex hormones that develop and maintain the reproductive symptom

90
Q

what is the status of androgen production during the fetal period, and then during the duration of infancy and childhood?

A

FETAL PERIOD (from nine weeks after fertilization until birth): presence of the Y chromosome leads to production of androgens resulting in male sexual differentiation

INFANCY AND CHILDHOOD: androgen production is low

91
Q

what happens to testosterone production during puberty? where is it produced? and what is the immediate effect? how is this achieved?

A
  1. increases dramatically
  2. produced by the testes
  3. sperm production begins
  4. this is achieved from a delicate interplay of FSH and LH stimulation on two cell types in the testes
92
Q

what is the interplay of FSH and LH that leads to testosterone production and sperm maturation?

A

FSH stimulates Sertoli cells and triggers sperm maturation

LH causes the interstitial cells to produce testosterone

93
Q

what are the 2 major roles of testosterone in male sexual development?

A
  1. develops and maintains the male reproductive system
  2. results in the development of secondary sexual characteristics
94
Q

what are 3 secondary sexual characteristics in men?

A
  1. facial and axillary hair
  2. voice deepening
  3. increased muscle and bone mass
95
Q

what is the level of testosterone production in adulthood, and then as adulthood continues?

A

high into adulthood

declines with age

96
Q

how does testosterone participate in a negative feedback loop?

A

testosterone exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary so that production is kept within an appropriate range

97
Q

what is the main method of control of the ovaries, where do ovaries derive from, and what do ovaries produce?

A
  1. under control of FSH and LH secreted by the anterior pituitary
  2. derive from the same embryonic structures as the testes
  3. produce estrogens and progesterone
98
Q

what are estrogens secreted in response to and what do they lead to (3)?

A

secreted in response to FSH

  1. development and maintenance of the female reproductive system and female secondary sexual characteristics
  2. in the embryo: stimulate reproductive tract development
  3. in adults: lead to thickening of the lining of the uterus (endometrium) each mont in preparation for the implantation of a zygote
99
Q

what are 3 secondary sexual characteristics for women?

A
  1. breast growth
  2. hip widening
  3. changes in fat distribution
100
Q

mnemonic: role of estrogen and progesterone

A

ESTrogen ESTablishes and PROgesterone PROtects the endometrium

101
Q

what is progesterone secreted by and in response to what?

what is the main role of progesterone

A

secreted by the corpus luteum in response to LH

involved in the development and maintenance of the endometrium (but NOT in the initla thickening)

102
Q

defn: corpus luteum

A

the remains of the ovarian follicle following ovulation

103
Q

the corpus luteum atrophies and ceases to function at the start of the first trimester, where does progesterone come from at this point?

A

supplied by the placenta

104
Q

what are the reproductive years in a woman in biological terms?

A

from menarche to menopause

105
Q

what are the 4 phases of the menstrual cycle?

A
  1. follicular phase
  2. ovulation
  3. luteal phase
  4. menstruation
106
Q

what is a quick summary of the menstrual cycle? (4)

A
  1. follicles mature during the follicular phase (FSH, LH)
  2. LH surge at midcycle triggers ovulation
  3. ruptured follicle becomes corpus luteum (which secretes estrogen and progesterone) to build up uterine lining in preparation for implantation; LH and FSH are inhibited
  4. If fertilization does not occur, corpus luteum atrophies, progesterone and estrogen levels decrease, menses occurs, and LH and FSH levels begin to rise again
107
Q

what is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), what does it do, and explain the levels of this and other hormones throughout pregnancy (3)?

A

IF FERTILIZATION HAS OCCURRED: the resulting zygote will develop into a blastocyst that will implant in the uterine lining and secrete hCG

hCG is an analog of LH (looks very similar chemically and can stimulate LH receptors)

hCG maintains the corpus luteum

  1. critical during first trimester development because the estrogen and progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum keep the uterine lining in place
  2. second trimester: hCG levels decline bc the placenta has grown to a sufficient size to secrete enough progesterone and estrogen by itself
  3. the high levels of estrogen and progesterone continue to serve as negative feedback on GnRH secretion
108
Q

defn + process: menopause (3)

A
  1. with aging, the ovaries become less sensitive to FSH and LH resulting in ovarian atrophy
  2. as estrogen and progesterone levels drop, the endometrium also atrophies and menstruation stops
  3. the negative feedback on FSH and LH is removed, so the blood levels of these two hormones rise