Ch. 1: The Cell Flashcards

1
Q

what was Robert Hooke’s first vision of the structure of a cell?

A

looked at cork under a microscope

honeycomb-like

the spaces are like small rooms of a monastery (known as cells)

no nuclei, organelles, or cell membranes

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2
Q

what are the three basic tenets of the original form of cell theory?

A
  1. all living things are composed of cells
  2. the cell is the basic functional unit of life
  3. cells arise only from preexisting cells
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3
Q

what is the fourth tenet of cell that was added in modern times?

A
  1. cells carry genetic info in the form of DNA

this genetic material is passed on from parent to daughter cell

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4
Q

why don’t viruses follow the 4 tenets of cell theory, and thus are not considered as living organisms?

A

violate tenet 3 and 4 because they:

can only replicate by invading other organisms (violating tenet 3 “cells arise only from preexisting cells”)

may use RNA as their genetic info (violating tenet 4 “cells carry genetic info in the form of DNA”)

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5
Q

difference + definition: prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic cells (the first major distinction we can make between living organisms)

A

PROKARYOTIC
- always single celled
- do not contain a nucleus

EUKARYOTIC
- can be unicellular or multicellular
- contain a true nucleus enclosed ina membrane

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6
Q

provide a brief summary of how a eukaryotic cell is structured (not detailed) (2)

A
  1. each cell has a MEMBRANE enclosing a semifluid CYTOSOL in which the ORGANELLES are suspended (many organelles are membrane bound)
  2. membranes consist of a phospholipid bilayer
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7
Q

what does having organelles be membrane bound allow for?

A

compartmentalization of functions

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8
Q

is the outer portion or inner portion of the cell membrane hydrophilic or hydrophobic? pair and explain the impact!

A
  1. INNER = HYDROPHOBIC
  2. SURFACES = HYDROPHILIC (electrostatically interacting with the aqueous environments inside and outside of the cell)

Provides a highly selective barrier between the interior of the cell and external environment

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9
Q

what is the function of the cytosol?

A

allows for diffusion of molecules throughout the cell

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10
Q

NUCLEUS

  1. what is contained in the nucleus?
  2. what surrounds the nucleus?
A
  1. all of the genetic material necessary for replication of the cell
  2. the nuclear membrane/envelope
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11
Q

defn + func: nuclear membrane/envelope

A

a double membrane that maintains a nuclear environment separate and distinct from the cytoplasm

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12
Q

defn + func: nuclear pores

A

holes in the nuclear membrane that allow selective two-way exchange of material between the cytoplasm and the nucleus

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13
Q

defn: genes vs. DNA vs. chromosomes

A

GENES are coding regions contained within DNA

DNA is genetic material

CHROMOSOMES are the linear strands that DNA is organized into

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14
Q

defn + func: histones

A

organizing proteins that linear DNA is wound around

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15
Q

defn + func: nucleolus

how much of the nucleus does the nucleolus take up?

why does the nucleolus exist?

A

where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized

takes up about 25 % of the nucleus volume

exists because DNA transcription is separate from RNA translation because the DNA is localized in the nucleus and the RNA is localized in the nucleolus

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16
Q

if the mitochondria is the power plant of the cell, what is the nucleus?

A

the CONTROL center of the cell

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17
Q

why is the mitochondria the power plant of the cell?

A

they have important metabolic functions

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18
Q

what are the four main divisions of space of the mitochondria and what are their distinct functions?

A

OUTER MEMBRANE = a barrier between the cytosol and the mitochondrion’s inner environment

INTER-MEMBRANE SPACE = the space between the outer and inner membranes

INNER MEMBRANE = contains molecules and enzymes of the ETC

MITOCHONDRIAL MATRIX = the space inside the inner membrane

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19
Q

the inner membrane of the mitochondrion is arranged into numerous infoldings

what are the called and what is their purpose?

A

CRISTAE

increase the surface area available for electron transport chain enzymes

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20
Q

how are mitochondria unique from other parts of the cell?

A

they are semi-autonomous

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21
Q

what does it mean that mitochondria are semi-autonomous? (2)

what phenomenon does this make them prime examples of?

A
  1. contain some of their own genes
  2. replicate independently of the nucleus via binary fission
  3. great example of cytoplasmic or extranuclear inheritance (the transmission of genetic material independent of the nucleus)
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22
Q

main 2 func of the mitochondria

A
  1. keep the cell alive by providing energy
  2. can kill the cell by release of ETC enzymes (which kickstarts apoptosis = programmed cell death)
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23
Q

defn + func: lysosomes

A

membrane-bound structures containing HYDROLYTIC enzymes (break down many different substrates, including substances ingested by endocytosis and cellular waste products)

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24
Q

what structure do lysosomes often function with? what does this structure do?

A

ENDOSOMES

transport, package, and sort cell material traveling to and from the membrane

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25
Q

where are endosomes capable of transporting materials to? (3)

A
  1. trans-golgi
  2. cell membrane
  3. lysosomal pathway for degradation
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26
Q

defn + effect: autolysis

A

the release of enzymes by lysosomes

leads directly to cellular component degradation

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27
Q

defn + char + func: endoplasmic reticulum

A

a series of interconnected membranes contiguous with the nuclear envelope

folded into numerous invaginations (creates complex structures with a central lumen)

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28
Q

what are the differences between the smooth (3) and rough (1) ER?

A

ROUGH ER
- studded with ribosomes

SMOOTH ER
- lacks ribosomes
- utilized mostly for lipid synthesis and drug and poison detoxification
- transports proteins from the RER to the Golgi

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29
Q

what is the functions of the ribosomes that dot the rough ER?

A

permit the translation of proteins destined for secretion directly into its lumen

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30
Q

defn + func + char: Golgi apparatus

A

stacked membrane-bound sacs

receives materials from the ER in vesicles, then modifies these cellular products

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31
Q

what are the modifications (2) that the Golgi apparatus can make to cellular products?

A
  1. group addition (carbohydrates, phosphates, and sulfates)
  2. introduction of signal sequences (direct the delivery of the product to a specific cellular location)
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32
Q

what happens to cellular products after they are modified by the Golgi apparatus?

A

they are repackaged in vesicles and directed to the correct cellular location

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33
Q

defn: exocytosis

A

if a product is destined for secretion, the secretory vesicle from the Golgi merges with the cell membrane and its contents are released

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34
Q

defn + func (3): peroxisomes

A

cellular structures that contain hydrogen peroxide

functions:
1. breakdown of long chain fatty acids via beta-oxidation
2. participate in phospholipid synthesis
3. contain some enzymes involved in the pentose phosphate pathway

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35
Q

func: cytoskeleton (2)

components (3)

A
  1. provides structure to the cell, helps it to maintain its shape
  2. provides a conduit for the transport of materials around the cell

components
1. microfilaments
2. microtubules
3. intermediate filaments

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36
Q

what are microfilaments made of?

how are these materials organized and why?

A

solid polymerized rods of actin

these actin filaments are organized into bundles and networks and are resistant to compression and fracture (provide cell protection)

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37
Q

how and why do actin filaments use ATP?

A

to generate force for movement by interacting with myosin

like in muscle contraction

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38
Q

what role do microfilaments play in cytokinesis (the division of materials between daughter cells)

A

the cleavage furrow is formed from microfilaments which organize as a ring at the site of division between the two new daughter cells

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39
Q

what are microtubules made of?

what is their function?

A

made of hollow polymers of tubulin proteins

radiate throughout the cell to provide the primary pathways along which motor proteins like kinesin and dynein carry vesicles

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40
Q

what is the commonality between cilia and flagella?

A

they are motile structures composed of microtubules

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41
Q

defn + func + ex: cilia vs. flagella

A

CILIA
- projections from a cell
- primarily involved in the movement of materials along the surface of the cell
- ex: cilia line the respiratory tract, involved in mucus movement

FLAGELLA
- involved in the movement of the cell itself
- ex: movement of sperm cells through the reproductive tract

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42
Q

defn + application: 9 + 2 structure

A

seen only in eukaryotic organelles of motility

structure used in cilia and flagella

nine pairs of microtubules forming an outer ring with two microtubules in the center

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43
Q

defn + char + location: centrioles

A

found in the CENTROSOME (cell region)

organizing centers for microtubules

nine triplets of microtubules with a hollow center

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44
Q

char (2) + func (3) + examples (4): intermediate fliaments

A

a diverse group of filamentous proteins

KERATIN, DESMIN, VIMENTIN, LAMINS

  1. involved in cell-cell adhesion
  2. involved in cytoskeleton integrity maintenance
  3. help anchor other organelles
  4. can withstand a lot of tension (increases cell’s structural rigidity)
  5. identity within a cell is specific to the cell and tissue type
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45
Q

what are the 4 tissue types?

A
  1. epithelial
  2. connective
  3. muscle
  4. nervous
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46
Q

func: epithelial tissues (2)

A
  1. cover the body and line its cavities (protection against pathogen invasion and dessication)
  2. involved in absorption, secretion, and sensation in certain organs
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47
Q

what is the function of the basement membrane of epithelial tissues?

A

epithelial cells are tightly joined to each other and to an underlying layer of connective tissue (the basement membrane)

to remain as one cohesive unit

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48
Q

defn: parenchyma

A

the functional parts of the organ

usually composed of epithelial cells

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49
Q

what does it mean that epithelial cells are often polarized?

A

one side faces the lumen (the hollow inside of an organ or tube) or the outside world

the other side interacts with underlying blood vessels and structural cells

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50
Q

defn: simple vs. stratified vs. pseudostratified epithelia

A

SIMPLE = one layer of cells

STRATIFIED = multiple layers of cells

PSEUDOSTRATIFIED - appear to have multiple layers due to cell height differences, but are only one layer in reality

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51
Q

defn: cuboidal vs. columnar vs. squamous epithelial cells

A

CUBOIDAL = cube-shaped

COLUMNAR = long and thin

SQUAMOUS = flat and scale-like

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52
Q

func: connective tissue

A

supports the body and provides a framework for the epithelial cells to carry out their functions

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53
Q

defn: stroma

A

support structure of an organ

mainly composed of connective tissue

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54
Q

what are 6 examples of connective tissues?

A
  1. bone
  2. cartilage
  3. tendons
  4. ligaments
  5. adipose tissue
  6. blood
55
Q

what is the extracellular matrix composed of?

A

collagen and elastin (which are secreted and products by most cells in connective tissue)

56
Q

what are prokaryotes and what are 2 characteristics of them?

A

prokaryotes include all bacteria

  1. do not contain any membrane-bound organelles
  2. genetic material is organized into a single circular molecule of DNA concentrated in an area of the cell (the nucleoid region)
57
Q

what are the 3 overarching domains into which all life can be classified? which 2 of these contain prokaryotes?

A
  1. Archaea (includes prokaryotes)
  2. Bacteria (includes prokaryotes)
  3. Eukarya
58
Q

defn: Archaea

A

single-celled organisms that are visually similar to bacteria, but contain genes and several metabolic pathways that are more similar to eukaryotes than to bacteria

59
Q

what is a notable feature of Archaea?

A

their ability to use alternative sources of energy
- some are photosynthetic
- many are chemosynthetic (can generate energy from inorganic compounds, including sulfur- and nitrogen-based compounds)

60
Q

how are Archaea similar to Bacteria? (3)

A

contain a single circular chromosome

divide by binary fission or budding

share a similar overall structure

61
Q

how are Archaea similar to Eukarya? (3)

A

start translation with methionine

contain similar RNA polymerases

associate their DNA with histones

62
Q

what are 2 things that all bacteria contain and 2 things that some contain?

A

ALL
1. cell membrane
2. cytoplasm

SOME
1. flagella
2. fimbriae (similar to cilia)

63
Q

defn: mutualistic symbiotes

A

both humans and the bacteria benefit from the relationship

64
Q

defn: pathogens (parasites)

A

bacteria that provide no advantage or benefit to the host, but rather cause disease

may live intracellularly or extracellularly

65
Q

what are the three shapes that most bacteria exist in?

A
  1. COCCI = spherical bacteria
  2. BACILLI = rod-shaped bacteria
  3. SPIRILLI = spiral-shaped bacteria
66
Q

defn: obligate aerobes vs. anaerobes

A

OBLIGATE AEROBES = bacteria that require oxygen for metabolism

ANAEROBES = bacteria that use fermentation (or some other form of cellular metabolism that does not require oxygen)

67
Q

what are the 3 types of anaerobes?

A
  1. obligate anaerobes
  2. facultative anaerobes
  3. aerotolerant anaerobes
68
Q

defn: obligate vs. facultative vs. aerotolerant anaerobes

A

OBLIGATE ANAEROBES = anaerobes that cannot survive in an oxygen-containing environment

FACULTATIVE ANAEROBES = bacteria that can toggle between metabolic processes, using oxygen for aerobic metabolism if it is present, and switching to anaerobic metabolism if it is not

AEROTOLERANT ANAEROBES = anaerobes that are unable to use oxygen for metabolism, but are not harmed by its presence in the environment

69
Q

why can’t obligate anaerobes survive in an oxygen-containing environment?

A

the presence of oxygen leads to the production of reactive oxygen-containing radicals in these species, which leads to cell death

70
Q

defn + func: bacterial cell wall (4)

A
  1. forms the outer barrier of the cell
  2. provides structure
  3. controls the movement of solutes into and out of the bacterium (allows the cell to maintain a concentration gradient relative to the environment)
  4. specific components of the cell wall can trigger an inflammatory response
71
Q

what is the next layer of bacteria after the cell wall and what is it composed of?

A

the cell membrane (or plasma membrane)

composed of phospholipids

72
Q

defn: bacterial envelope

A

the cell wall and the cell membrane

73
Q

what are the two main types of bacterial cell wall and how is the type determined?

A

gram positive and gram negative

Gram staining process

74
Q

explain the process and results of Gram staining

A

a crystal violet stain followed by a counterstain with a substance called safranin

if the envelope absorbs the crystal violet stain = appears deep purple = GRAM POSITIVE

if the envelope does NOT absorb the crystal violet stain, but absorbs the safranin counterstain = appears pink-red = GRAM NEGATIVE

75
Q

what are two substances that gram positive cell walls contain? what is each substances role?

A
  1. peptidoglycan (thick layer) = a polymeric substance made from amino acids and sugars

ROLE = aids a bacterial pathogen in providing protection from a host organism’s immune system

  1. lipoteichoic acid

ROLE = unclear, but human immune system may be activated by exposure to it

76
Q

what is the structural organization and components of gram-negative cell walls? (4)

A
  1. very thin
  2. contain peptidoglycan but in smaller amounts
  3. separated from the cell membrane by the PERIPLASMIC SPACE
  4. have outer membranes containing phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides
77
Q

what is the part of gram-negative cell walls that triggers an immune response in human beings?

how strong is this immune response in comparison to the immune response triggered by lipoteichoic acid in gram-positive bacteria?

A

lipopolysaccharides

MUCH STRONGER THAN inflammatory response to lipoteichoic acid

78
Q

struct (2) + func (3): flagella

A

long, whip-like structures
bacteria may have 1, 2, or many

  1. propulsion
  2. move toward food
  3. move away from toxins or immune cells
79
Q

defn: chemotaxis

A

the ability of a cell to detect chemical stimuli and move toward or away from them

80
Q

what are the 3 structural components of flagella? describe each.

A
  1. FILAMENT = hollow, helical structure composed of flagellin
  2. BASAL BODY = a complex structure that anchors the flagellum to the cytoplasmic membrane; is also the motor of the flagellum
  3. HOOK = connects the filament and the basal body so that, as the basal body rotates, it exerts torque on the filament, which spins and propels the bacterium forward
81
Q

are flagella the same in gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?

A

they are similar, but there are slight differences due to the physical structure and chemical composition of the envelope

82
Q

how is DNA stored in prokaryotes? (3)

A
  1. concentrate DNA in a region of the cell known as the nucleoid (which does not contain a nuclear envelope)
  2. DNA is carried on a single circular chromosome (which can be found coiled around histone-like proteins in some bacteria)
  3. DNA acquired from external sources may also be carried on smaller circular structures (plasmids)
83
Q

what type of DNA do plasmids carry?

A

DNA acquired from external sources that is not necessary for survival of the prokaryote (and therefore is not considered part of the genome of the bacterium), but may confer an advantage (like antibiotic resistance)

extrachromosomal (extragenomic) material is what is contained

84
Q

Since prokaryotes don’t have mitochondria, what structures is used for the generation of ATP and the ETC?

A

the cell membrane

85
Q

do prokaryotes contain a cytoskeleton?

A

yes, but it is primitive and much less complex than the one found in eukaryotes

86
Q

what is the difference between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosome?

A

PROKARYOTIC = 30S and 50S subunits

EUKARYOTIC = 40S and 60S subunits

87
Q

defn + 2 main steps: binary fission

A

a simple form of asexual reproduction seen in prokaryotes, can proceed very rapidly bc few steps

  1. the circular chromosome attaches to the cell wall and replicates while the cell continues to grow in size
  2. eventually the plasma membrane and cell wall begin to grow inward along the midline of the cell to produce two identical daugher cells
88
Q

what are 3 other things that plasmids can contain?

A
  1. virulence factors (traits that increase pathogenicity)
  2. projections that allow attachment to certain kinds of cells
  3. features that allow evasion of the host’s immune system
89
Q

defn: episome

A

a subset of plasmids that are capable of integrating into the genome of the bacterium

90
Q

what is a benefit of bacterial genetic recombination?

A

helps increase bacterial diversity –> permits evolution of a bacterial species over time

91
Q

what are the 3 types of bacterial genetic recombination?

A
  1. transformation
  2. conjugation
  3. transduction
92
Q

defn + char: transformation (3)

A
  1. results from the integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome
  2. this material generally comes from other bacteria that, upon lysing, spill their contents into the vicinity of a bacterium capable of transformation
  3. common in gram-negative rods
93
Q

defn + char: conjugation (3)

A
  1. the bacterial form of mating (sexual reproduction)
  2. involves 2 cells forming a conjugation bridge between them that facilitates the transfer of genetic material
  3. unidirectional transfer from the donor male (+) to the recipient female (-)
94
Q

what is the conjugation bridge in bacterial conjugation made of? how are these formed?

A

sex pili found on the donor male

for pilus to be formed, bacteria must contain plasmids known as sex factors that contain the necessary genes

95
Q

defn + char: F factor

A

fertility factor
the best studied sex factor (plasmid)

in E.Coli

bacteria with this: F+ cells
bacteria without this: F- cells

96
Q

explain what happens with the F factor during conjugation

A

the F+ cell replicates its F factor and donates the copy to the F- cell, converting it into an F+ cell

this enables the cell obtaining the new plasmid to then transfer copies to other cells

97
Q

what does conjugation specifically allow for?

A

rapid acquisition of antibiotic resistance or virulence factors throughout a colony because other plasmids can also be passed through the conjugation bridge

98
Q

explanation: Hfr (high frequency of recombination)

A

sometimes the sex factor becomes integrated into the host genome

then, if conjugation occurs, the entire genome replicates because it now contains the sex factor

the donor cell will try to transfer an entire copy of its genome into the recipient, however the bridge usually breaks before the full DNA sequence can be moved

99
Q

defn + char: transduction

A

the only genetic recombination process that requires a vector

VECTOR = a virus that carries genetic material from one bacterium to another

100
Q

defn: bacteriophage + how do they work

A

viruses that infect bacteria

they target bacteria, but do not actually enter them

they just inject their genetic material, leaving the remaining structures outside the infected cell

101
Q

explain how bacteriophages are involved in transduction

A

viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens (they cannot reproduce outside of a host cell)

thus bacteriophages can accidentally incorporate a segment of host DNA during assembly

when the bacteriophage infects another bacterium, it can release this trapped DNA into the new host cell, which can then integrate into the genome

102
Q

defn: transposon

A

genetic elements capable of inserting and removing themselves from the genome

(can be in prokaryotes or eukaryotes)

103
Q

what is the series of phases by which bacteria reproduce/grow? (4) describe them

A
  1. LAG PHASE = bacteria adapt to new local conditions in a new environment
  2. EXPONENTIAL (LOG) PHASE = as the bacteria adapt, the rate of division increases, causing an exponential increase in the number of bacteria in the colony
  3. STATIONARY PHASE = as the number of bacteria grows, resources are often reduced, which slows reproduction
  4. DEATH PHASE = after the bacteria have exceeded the ability of the environment to support the number of bacteria, marks the depletion of resources
104
Q

what are the 3 main components of viruses?

A
  1. genetic material
  2. a protein coat
  3. sometimes an envelope containing lipids
105
Q

what are the characteristics of the genetic info in viruses?

A

may be circular or linear
may be single or double stranded
may be composed of either DNA or RNA

106
Q

defn: capsid

A

the protein coat of a virus

107
Q

char: envelope (virus)

  1. what does it surround?
  2. what is it composed of?
  3. what are they sensitive to? what does this imply?
A

surrounds the capsid

composed of phospholipids and virus-specific proteins

sensitive to heat, detergents, and dessication –> easier to kill

108
Q

what is true of viruses without an envelope that is not true of viruses with an envelope?

A

they are more resistant to sterilization and are likely to persist on surfaces for an extended period of time

109
Q

why do viruses need a host cell? what for?

A

they cannot reproduce independently (they are obligate intracellular parasites)

they must express and replicate genetic info within a host cell because they lack ribosomes to carry out protein synthesis

110
Q

defn: virion

A

viral progeny

are produced when a virus hijacks a cell’s machinery and replicates

can be released to infect additional cells

111
Q

what are the three physical components of a bacteriophage? what are their purposes?

A
  1. CAPSID = protein coat
  2. TAIL SHEATH = can act like a syringe, injects genetic material into a bacterium
  3. TAIL FIBERS = help the bacteriophage recognize and connect to the correct host cell
112
Q

defn: positive vs. negative sense (single-stranded) RNA viruses

A

POSITIVE SENSE = the genome may be directly translated to functional proteins by the ribosomes of the host cell

NEGATIVE SENSE = the negative-sense RNA strand acts as a template for synthesis of a complementary strand, which can then be used as a template for protein synthesis

113
Q

what must negative sense RNA viruses have that positive sense RNA viruses don’t? why?

A

they must carry an RNA replicase in the virion to ensure the complementary strand is synthesized

114
Q

defn: retrovirus

A

enveloped, single-stranded RNA viruses in the family Retroviridae

usually the virion contains 2 identical RNA molecules

115
Q

explain the mechanism by which retroviruses function (2)

A
  1. carry an enzyme: reverse transcriptase (synthesizes DNA from single-stranded RNA)
  2. DNA integrates into the host cell genome where it is replicated and transcribed as if it were the host’s own DNA
116
Q

why are retroviruses so difficult to treat? what is an example of a retrovirus?

A

integration of the genetic material into the host cell genome allows the cell to be infected indefinitely

the only way to remove the infection is to kill the infected cell

example: HIV

117
Q

what are the 4 main parts of the viral life cycle?

A
  1. infection
  2. translation and progeny assembly
  3. progeny release
  4. lytic and lysogenic cycles
118
Q

what are the 3 types of progeny release? explain them

A
  1. viral invasion may initiate cell death – results in viral progeny spilling
  2. host cell may lyse as a result of being filled with extremely large numbers of virions
  3. EXTRUSION = a virus can leave the cell by fusing with its plasma membrane
119
Q

why is lysis a disadvantage for the virus?

why is extrusion good for the virus?

A

LYSIS –> the virus can no longer use the cell to carry out its life cycle

EXTRUSION –> it keeps the host cell alive and thus allows for the continued use of the host cell by the virus

120
Q

what is the state of a virus in extrusion?

A

the productive cycle

121
Q

what 2 factors determine if bacteriophages may enter a lytic or lysogenic life cycle?

A
  1. growth conditions
  2. the specific virus
122
Q

defn: lytic cycle

A

the bacteriophage maximizes the use of the cell’s machinery with little regard for the survival of the host cell

once the host is swollen with new virions, the cell lyses, and other bacteria can be infected

123
Q

defn: virulent

A

viruses in the lytic phase

124
Q

defn: prophage/provirus

A

in the event that the virus does not lyse the bacterium, it may integrate into the host genome as this

125
Q

defn: lysogenic cycle

A

initiated when a prophage/provirus integrates into the host genome

the virus will be replicated as the bacterium reproduces because it is now part of the host’s genome

126
Q

what may cause a provirus to leave a genome? what happens to it then?

A

environmental factors (radiation, light, chemicals)

reverts to a lytic cycle

127
Q

what is a benefit of integration of a bacteriophage into the host genome for the bacterial host?

A

infection with one strain of phage generally makes the bacterium less susceptible to superinfection (simultaneous infection) with other phages

128
Q

what category do prions and viroids belong to?

A

very small, subviral particles that can cause disease under certain circumstances

129
Q

defn: prion

A

infectious proteins (nonliving)

130
Q

how do prions cause disease?

A

by triggering protein misfolding (usually through conversion of a protein from an alpha-helical structure to a beta-pleated sheet)

this drastically reduces the protein’s solubility, as well as the cell’s ability to degrade the protein

eventually, protein aggregates form, which interferes with cell function

131
Q

what are 3 diseases caused by prions?

A
  1. mad cow disease
  2. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
  3. familial fatal insomnia
132
Q

defn: viroids

A

small pathogens consisting of a very short circular single-stranded RNA that infect plants

133
Q

how do viroids work?

A

they can bind to a large number of RNA sequences and can silence genes in the plant genome

this prevents synthesis of necessary proteins –> results in metabolic disruption and structural damage to the cell