Ch. 2 - Inflammation, Inflammatory Disorders, and Wound Healing Flashcards
1
Q
ANCA Associated Vasculitis involves the activation of {{c1::neutrophils}} by auto-antibodies leading to inflammation of the blood vessel wall.
A
neutrophils
2
Q
Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APS) typically involves which 2 autoantibodies?
A
Anticardiolipin and Lupus Anticoagulant
3
Q
which Ab can give you a false positive syphilis test?
A
Anticardiolipin
4
Q
what Ab can give you a falsely elevated PTT?
A
lupus anticoag
5
Q
Deficiency of which early complement proteins is associated with SLE?
A
C1q; C2; C4
6
Q
What is the function of early complement proteins?
A
Early complement proteins are involved with opsonization of exposed nuclear material from apoptosis (poorly cleared apoptosis).
7
Q
How does ESR change in inflammation?
A
Increase
Products of inflammation (e.g. acute phase reactants) coat RBCs and cause aggregation. This aggregation causes RBCs to fall at a faster rate within the test tube (i.e. increased rate of sedimentation).
8
Q
How does the risk for B-cell (marginal zone) lymphoma change in Sjogren Syndrome?
A
Increased
9
Q
what presents as unilateral enlargement of the parotid gland?
A
B cell marginal zone lymphoma in Sjogrens
10
Q
How long after inflammation begins do macrophages predominate in the tissue?
A
Peak after 2-3 days
11
Q
How long after inflammation do neutrophils undergo apoptosis?
A
Within 24 hrs
12
Q
In leukocyte diapedesis during inflammation, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.
A
PECAM-1
CD31
13
Q
In leukocyte margination and rolling, (blank and blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.
A
E-selectin and P-selectin bind to Sialyl Lewis X
14
Q
In leukocyte margination and rolling, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.
A
GlyCAM-1 and CD34 on endo
L-selectin
15
Q
In leukocyte tight-binding during inflammation, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.
A
ICAM CD54 on endo
CD11/18 integrins (LFA1/Mac1)
16
Q
In leukocyte tight-binding during inflammation, (blank) on endothelium binds to (blank) on leukocytes.
A
VCAM CD106 on endo
VLA-4 integrin leuko
17
Q
Polymorphisms in which cell surface protein on regulatory T cells are associated with autoimmunity (e.g. MS and T1DM)?
A
CD25
18
Q
What ANA is indicative of diffuse Systemic Scleroderma?
A
Scl-70
19
Q
What ANA is indicative of Drug-induced Lupus Erythematosus?
A
anti-histone
20
Q
What ANA is indicative of limited Systemic Scleroderma (i.e. CREST Syndrome)?
A
anti-centrisome
21
Q
What ANAs are indicative of Sjogren’s Syndrome?
A
SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La
22
Q
What ANAs are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
A
Anti-dsDNA or nonspecific ANA
23
Q
What are the 2 complement components that function as anaphylatoxins?
A
C5a and C3a
24
Q
What are the 4 major chemoattractants for Neutrophils?
A
“CILK”
- C5a
- IL-8
- LTB4
- Kinin
25
What do the letters mean in CREST?
CREST:
- Calcinosis & anti-Centromere antibodies
- Raynaud phenomenon
- Esophageal dysmotility
- Sclerodactyly
- Telangiectasia of the skin
26
What is a colourless nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test indicative of?
NADPH Oxidase defect
27
What is a Malar Butterfly Rash a common clinical feature of?
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
28
What is a possible primary cause of Sjogren Syndrome?
Sicca syndrome
29
What is the etiology of Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome?
AIRE mutation
30
What is the etiology of DiGeorge Syndrome?
22q11 chromosomal deletion
31
What is the etiology of Hyper IgM Syndrome?
Mutation in CD40L on helper T cells or CD40 on B cells
32
What is the etiology of Scleroderma?
Fibroblast activation leading to collagen deposition
33
In scleroderma, endothelial dsyfunction leads to inflammation via....
increased adhesion molecules
34
In scleroderma, endothelial dsyfunction leads to vasoconstriction via....
inc. endothelin
| dec. NO
35
In scleroderma, endothelial dsyfunction leads to secretion of which two growth factors?
TGF-beta and PDGF
36
What gene is mutated in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
:WASP mutation
37
What is the etiology of X-linked (Bruton) Agammaglobulinemia?
Mutation in BTK, Bruton tyrosine kinase
38
What is the genetic inheritance of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?
AR
39
What is the genetic inheritance of IPEX Syndrome?
XLR
40
what is IPEX syndrome?
IPEX = Immune dysregulation, Polyendocrinopathy, Enteropathy, X-linked
41
What is the genetic inheritance of Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency?
Autosomal recessive
42
What is the genetic inheritance of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
XLR
43
What is the most common immunoglobulin deficiency?
IgA
44
IgA def is seen in what common and media-hyped GI disease?
celiac
45
What is the most common stimulus for chronic inflammation?
Persistent infection
46
What is the second activation signal in the activation of B-cells?
CD40L on CD4+ T cell to CD40R on B cells
47
Upon activation of the B cell, secretion by the Th cell of IL-4 leads to?
switching to IgE
48
Upon activation of the B cell, secretion by the Th cell of IL-5 leads ot?
switching to IgA
49
Upon activation of the B cell, secretion by the Th cell of IFNg leads to?
switch to IgG
50
What is the second activation signal in the activation of CD4+ helper T cells?
B7 on APCs to CD28 on CD4+ T cells
| 7 x 4 = 28
51
What is the second activation signal in the activation of CD8+ T cells?
IL-2 from Th1 cells
52
What is the treatment for iron poisoning?
Chelation via IV Deferoxamine or Oral Deferasirox; Dialysis
53
What nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test result is seen in Myeloperoxidase Deficiency?
Normal
54
What surface proteins on leukocytes binds to ICAM/VCAM on endothelium?
Integrins (LFA-1)
55
What type of collagen is found in scars?
type I
56
What type of collagen is seen in granulation tissue?
type III
57
What type of hypersensitivity is primarily involved in SLE?
Type III (antigen-antibody complex)
58
What type of hypersensitivity is seen in Sjogren Syndrome?
Type IV
59
Where along the capillary bed does extravasation predominantly occur?
Post-capillary venules
60
Where does vasodilation occur?
at the level of arterioles
61
Where are the stem cells of the bone marrow found?
Hematopoietic stem cells (CD34+)
62
Where are the stem cells of the skin found?
Basal layer of the skin
63
Where are the stem cells of the small and large bowels found?
Mucosal crypts
64
Where do T cells mature?
thymus
65
Anti-SSA and Anti-SSB abs in Sjogren are strongly associated with (blank) manifestions
extraglandular, like neuropathy
66
Which 2 anti-inflammatory cytokines are released by macrophages in the resolution and healing phase of inflammation?
IL-10; TGF-beta
67
Which adhesion molecules are upregulated on endothelium in inflammation by IL-1 and TNF?
ICAM; VCAM
68
Which arachidonic acid metabolite mediates the delayed response of mast cell degranulation?
Leukotrienes
69
Which autoantibodies are associated with CREST Syndrome?
Anti-centromere antibodies
70
Which autoantibodies are associated with Diffuse Scleroderma?
Anti-Scl-70 (Anti-DNA Topoisomerase I)
71
Which autoantibodies are seen in Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?
Anti-U1 RNP antibodies
72
Which bacteria is the most common cause of delayed would healing?
Staphylococcus aureus
73
Which cell surface protein on leukocytes binds to selectins on endothelium?
Sialyl Lewis X
74
Which cell surface protein on macrophages recognizes LPS on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?
CD14 (co-receptor for TLR4)
75
Which coagulation factor is referred to as Hageman Factor?
factor XII
76
Which complement deficiency is associated with increased risk for Neisseria infection?
C5-C9
77
Which complement deficiency is most commonly associated with SLE?
C2
78
Which complement deficiency results in Hereditary Angioedema?
C1 inhibitor deficiency
79
Which complement pathway is activated by C1 binding to IgG or IgM bound to antigen?
classical
| iGM makes classic cars
80
Which complement pathway is activated by Mannose-binding Lectin (MBL) binding to mannose on microorganisms?
Mannose-binding lectin pathway
81
Which complement pathway is activated by microbial products directly?
Alternative
82
Which complement protein complex lyses microbes by creating a hole in the cell membrane?
MAC
83
Which complement protein functions as an opsonin?
C3b
84
Which complement protein is an opsonin for neutrophils?
C3b
85
Which complement protein is chemotactic for neutrophils?
C5a
86
Which complement proteins are known to activate Mast Cells?
C3a, C5a
87
Which cytokine from macrophages induces helper CD4+ T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells?
IL-12
88
Describe the four steps in forming a granuloma
1. Macrophage presents antigen to CD4+ T-cells via MHC II
2. IL-12 release from the macrophage.
3. CD4+ T cells become the Th1 subtype.
4. Th1 cells secrete IFN-gamma which converts macrophages into epithelioid histiocytes and giant cells.
89
what is the hallmark cell of a granuloma?
epithelioid histiocytes
90
Which cytokine from Th1 cells converts macrophages into epithelioid histiocytes and giant cells (i.e. forms granulomas)?
IFN-gamma
91
Which cytokine from Th2 cells promotes B-cell class switching to IgE?
IL-4 (and IL-13)
92
Which cytokine released by macrophages recruits additional neutrophils?
IL-8
93
Which cytokines released from macrophages in response to pyrogens increase cyclooxygenase activity?
IL-1; TNF
94
Which enzyme converts Arachidonic Acid into Prostaglandins?
COX
95
Which enzyme in phagocytes converts H2O2 into HOCl (bleach)?
Myeloperoxidase
96
Which enzyme in phagocytes converts O2 into superoxide?
NADPH Oxidase
97
Which enzyme in phagocytes converts superoxide radicals into H2O2?
Superoxide dismutase (SOD)
98
Which enzyme involved in scar formation removed type III collagen?
Collagenase
99
what is the required cofactor for collagenase?
zinc
100
Which enzyme releases Arachidonic Acid from the phospholipid cell membrane?
Phospholipase A2
101
Which enzymes converts Arachidonic Acid into Leukotrienes?
5-Lipoxygenase
102
Which HLA subtype has the strongest association to autoimmune disorders?
HLA-B27
103
Which immunoglobulin isotype functions as an opsonin?
IgG
104
HLA-B27 is strongly associated with what disease?
ankylosing spondylitis
105
Which immunoglobulin isotypes are expressed by naive B-cells?
IgM
| IgD (yes, D)
106
Which inflammatory cytokines induce E-Selectin expression in endothelium?
TNF; IL-1
107
Which inflammatory cytokines upregulate ICAM and VCAM adhesion molecules on endothelium in inflammation?
IL-1; TNF
108
Which inflammatory mediator triggers P-selectin upregulation from Weibel-Palade bodies?
Histamine
109
Which inflammatory mediators upregulate Integrin (LFA-1) expression on adhering leukocytes?
C5a; LTB4
110
Which Leukotriene functions to attract and activate neutrophils?
LTB4
111
Which lymphocytes are primarily affected in Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome?
T cells
112
Which prostaglandin is known to mediate pain and fever?
PGE2
113
Which race is more commonly affected by Keloid?
African-americans
114
Which Selectin protein in endothelium is induced by TNF and IL-1?
E-selectin
115
Which Selectin protein is released from Weibel-Palade bodies in Endothelium?
P-selectin}
116
how do you remember what Weibel Palade bodies release?
W and P
vWF
P-selectin
117
Which sex is more commonly affected by autoimmune disorders?
womenz; Estrogen seems to decrease the apoptosis of self-reactive B cells.
118
Which sex is more commonly affected by Scleroderma?
Women; esp of 30-50 years
119
Which sex is more commonly affected by Sjogren Syndrome?
Women
120
Which sex is more commonly affected by SLE?
Women; especially african americans
121
Which substance released from Mast Cell granules mediates the immediate response of mast cell degranulation?
Histamine
122
Which TLR on macrophages recognizes LPS on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?
TLR4 (alongside CD14)
123
Which type of collagen is made in excess in a hypertrophic scar?
Type I
124
Which type of collagen is made in excess in a Keloid?
Type III
125
Which type of granulomatous inflammation exhibits central necrosis?
Caseating
126
Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with Beryllium exposure?
Noncaseating
127
Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with cat-scratch disease?
Noncaseating
128
Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with Crohn Disease?
Noncaseating
129
Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with fungal infections?
Caseating
130
Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with Sarcoidosis?
Noncaseating
131
Which type of granulomatous inflammation is associated with tuberculosis?
Caseating
132
Which type of granulomatous inflammation lacks central necrosis?
Noncaseating
133
Which type of infection has an increased risk of manifesting in patients with Myeloperoxidase Deficiency?
Candida
134
Which type of inflammation arises in response to tissue necrosis?
Acute inflammation
135
Which type of inflammation is an immediate response and part of the innate immunity (i.e. limited specificity)?
Acute inflammation
136
Which type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of edema and neutrophils in tissue?
Acute
137
Which type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of lymphocytes and plasma cells in tissue?
Chronic
138
Which type of inflammation presents as a delayed response but with more specificity as part of adaptive immunity?
Chronic inflammation
139
Which type of lymphocyte is affected in Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)?
T and B cells
140
Which water soluble vitamin deficiency can delay wound healing?
Vitamin C
141
what is the role of vitamin C in wound healing?
Vitamin C is a cofactor the hydroxylation of proline/lysine residues in collagen. Collagen is needed in fucking wound healing so.. yeah.
142
(blank) is a cutaneous complication of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome that results from defective transport of Melanin from melanocytes to keratinocytes.
albinism
143
what are 3 hematological complications of SLE that occur due to Type II hypersensitivity reactions via autoantibodies against cell surface proteins.
anemia
thrombocytopenia
leukopenia
144
what are the two Abs that are specific for SLE?
Anti dsDNA
| Anti Sm
145
(blank) is an autoantibody seen in Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome that yields false-positive VDRL and RPR syphilis tests.
anticardiolipin
146
what are the three abs seen in Antiphospholipid Antibody syndrome?
anticardiolipin
anti beta2-glycoprotein I
lupus anticoagulant
147
what is an autoimmune disorder that involves autoantibodies directed against proteins bound to phopsholipids and is seen in 30% of SLE cases?
antiphospholipid Ab syndrome
148
(blank) is an autoimmune disorder that is characterized by a hypercoagulable state due to antiphospholipid antibodies, especially lupus anticoagulant.
Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome
149
Where do you normally get thrombosus in Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome?
DVTs
hepatic vein
placental
cerebral
(often a major complication in pregnancy)
ASK COLT ABOUT THE BLACK RESIDENT AT REGANTI'S OFFICE
150
(blank) is a musculoskeletal feature of SLE that typically involves ≥ joints.
ARTHRITIS
151
(blank) s an autoimmune disorder that results from a mutation in the FAS (CD95) apoptotic pathway.
Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)
152
The mutation in the apoptotic pathway in ALPS can be in which three proteins?
FAS
FASL
Caspase 10
153
(blank) is an autoimmune disorder that results from a mutation in the Fas apoptotic pathway and involves an inability to induce anergy at the periphery.
Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)
154
Is the peripheral or central tolerance broken in ALPS?
peripheral; affects both T and B cells
155
ALPS results in lymphoproliferation due to an impaired destruction of (b/t) cells
b cells
156
what is the transcription factor in medullary epithelial cells that is involved with the expression of self-antigens?
AIRE
157
(blank) is an autoimmune disorder due to a mutation in AIRE that presents with a triad of hypoparathyroidism, adrenal failure, and chronic candida infection of the skin or oral mucosa.
Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome
158
What three particular infections are the hallmark of generalized immunoglobulin def?
1. bacterial
2. enterovirus (mucosal immun)
3. Giardia lamblia
159
what is the product of HMW kininogen that mediates vasodilation and icnreased vascular permeability as well as pain?
bradykinin
160
what is characterized by stellate-shaped, noncaseating granulomatous inflammation?
cat-scratch diz
161
what dz presents with giant granules in leukocytes d/t fusion of granules from the Golgi?
Chediak-Higashi
162
There is an impairment in formation what organelle in chediak-higashi?
phagolysosome
163
(blank) is an immunological disorder that is characterized by poor O2-dependent killing due to an NADPH Oxidase deficiency.
CGD
164
(blank) positive bugs cause recurrent infections and granulomas in CGD
catalase positive
165
which trace element acts as a cofactor for Lysyl Oxidase, an enzyme which cross links collagen?
copper
166
what is a type of Limited Scleroderma that involves anti-centromere antibodies?
CREST syndrome
167
what is the word for the rupture of a wound?
dehiscence
168
(diffuse proliferative GN, membranous GN) is a renal complication seen in SLE that is the most common and most severe form of renal injury.
diffuse proliferative GN
169
what is a primary immunodeficiency that involves developmental failure of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches?
diGeorge
170
what dz presents with T-cell def and hypocalcemia?
diGeorge
171
what is the common erythematous, scaly rash typically seen on the arm or other areas exposed to sunlight in SLE?
discoid rash
172
what is a mediator of wound healing that stimulates cell growth via Tyrosine kinases.
EGF
173
(blank) is a cell surface protein expressed by CD8+ T cells that binds to Fas on target cells and causes apoptosis.
FASL
174
fever results from the release of what two mediators from activated macs?
IL-1
| TNF
175
Fibroblast growth factor is weird because despite its name its two major functions are to...
increase angiogenesis and skeletal dev
176
what are the three components of granulation tissue?
1. fibroblasts
2. capillaries
3. myofibroblasts
177
what is th enzyme made by CD8+ T cells that enters target cells and triggers apoptosis.
granzyme
178
Hyper IgM syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency that presents with elevated IgM due to what two things?
mutated CD40L on T helpers and CD40 on B cells
179
t/f: there is no secondary signal activation for B cells in hyper IgM syndrome
true
180
Besides high IgM, what else is fucked up with the Ig's in hyper IgM syndrome?
lack of IgA, E, and G (no class switching)
181
what two adhesion molecules are upregulated during neutrophil adhesion?
VCAM and ICAM
182
which cytokine is secreted by Th1 cells that activates macrophages, promotes B-cell class switching from IgM to IgG and inhibis th2 cells?
IFNg
183
which cytokine released by Th2 blocks Th1 growth?
IL10
184
which cytokine released by Th2 blocks Th1 growth?
IL10
185
a
a
186
IL1 and TNF act on what cell in the hypothal to cause fever?
perivascular cells
187
What does the hypothal release to cause fever?
PGE2
188
What does the hypothal release to cause fever?
PGE2
189
IL5 causes chemotaxis of what cell type?
eosinophils
190
IPEX is d/t a mutation in what gene?
FOXP3
191
which enzyme cleaves high-molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) to Bradykinin.
kallikrein
192
which enzyme cleaves high-molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) to Bradykinin.
kallikrein
193
what is Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
complication of Sjogren, aka dry eyes
194
what is labile tissue?
tissue that has stem cells
195
What dz is characterized by delayed separation of the umbilical cord, increased circulating neutrophils and recurrent bacterial infections without pus formation?
leukocyte adhesion def
196
What dz is characterized by delayed separation of the umbilical cord, increased circulating neutrophils and recurrent bacterial infections without pus formation?
leukocyte adhesion def
197
(blank) is a type of endocarditis seen in SLE that is characterized by small, sterile deposits on both sides of the mitral valve.
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
198
t/: libman-sacks endocarditis is aseptic
true
199
which three leukotrienes cause vasoconstriction, bronchospasm and increased vascular permeability?
LTC4, D4, and E4
200
what is a common diagnostic feature of Sjogren Syndrome that involves lymphocytic infiltration of minor salivary glands?
lymphocytic sialadenitis
201
lysozyme kills in an O2 (dependent/independent) manner
independent
202
Major basic protein is found int the granules of what cell?
eosinophils
203
Major basic protein kills in an O2 (dependent/independent) manner
independent
204
what is the toxin in bee venom that causes a type I reaction?
mellitin
205
what is the toxin in bee venom that causes a type I reaction?
mellitin
206
mixed connective tissue dz has characteristics of what three dzs?
SLE
scleroderma
polymyositis
207
in mixed connective tissue disease, there is a lack of involvement of what two systems?
CNS
| renal
208
what is the major cause of death in MCTD?
pHTN
209
MPO def is a problem in what pathway?
oxidative burst
210
MPO def leads to an inability to make (blank) from H2O2
HOCl
211
MPO def leads to an inability to make (blank) from H2O2
HOCl
212
What are the two complications of a baby born to a woman pos for Anti-SSA abs?
neonatal lupus
| congenital heart block
213
why is there neutropenia in chediak higashi?
intramedullary death of neutrophils
214
what is upregulated by TLR activation?
NF-kB
215
what two things mediate pain?
PGE2
| bradykinin
216
(blank) is a Type II Hypersensitivity disorder where the epithelium unzips and antibodies target the desmoglein protein in desmosomes, thereby forming blisters.
pemphigus vulgaris
217
what causes peripheral neuropathy in chediak-higashi?
defective protein trafficking leading to atrophy of nerve terminals
218
What are the three prostaglandins that mediate vasodilation and vascular permeability?
PGI2, PGD2, PGE2
219
what two cell types release platelet derived growth factor PDGF?
platelets
| macs
220
What does PDGF stimulate?
vascular remodeling, smooth muscle migratino and fibroblast growth.
221
what are two types of serositis seen in SLE?
pleuritis
| pericarditis
222
what is healing by primary intention?
cutaneous wound healing that involves wound edges being brought together.
223
what is healing by primary intention?
cutaneous wound healing that involves wound edges being brought together.
224
what are three drugs that commonly cause drug induced SLE?
procainamide
hydralazine
isoniazid
225
t/f: removal of the drug can stop lupus
true
226
describe renal and CNS involvment in drug induced lupus
RARE
227
the gain of function in the PTPN22 gene has what role in autoimmunity?
decreases signalling that would result in self tolerance
228
This Phenomenon is characterized by an excessively reduced blood flow in response to cold or emotional stress, thereby causing discoloration of the fingers, toes or other areas.
Raynaud's
229
This Phenomenon is characterized by an excessively reduced blood flow in response to cold or emotional stress, thereby causing discoloration of the fingers, toes or other areas.
Raynaud's
230
what problem do you have with your teeth in Sjogrens?
lotsa cavities
231
what is the word to describe healing via replacement with native tissue?
regeneration
232
what is the word to describe healing via formation of a fibrous scar?
repair
233
t/f: rheumatoid factor is present in Sjogrens as well as in RA
true
234
Scleroderma is caused by the activation of (blanks) that lay down collagen
fibroblasts
235
what is healing by second intention?
cutaneous wound healing that involves a lack of approximation of wound edges and filling with granulation tissue
236
what are the ell surface proteins upregulated on endothelium in Neutrophil margination that act as "speed bumps"?
selectins
237
SCID can result from what enzyme def?
Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
238
why does a lack of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) lead to SCID?
ADA is necessary to deaminate adenosine and deoxyadenosine; buildup of both of them is toxic to lymphocytes.
239
SCID can develop from MHC (I/II) def
MHC II
240
t/f: SCID can develop from cytokine receptor defects
true
241
which glands are destroyed in sjogrens?
lacrimal and salivary
242
what cell destroys the glands in Sjogrens?
t cells
243
what is a type II hypersensitivity rxn?
Hypersensitivity involves the binding of antibodies to cell surface antigens causing damage through classical complement activation or cell cytotoxicity.
244
what is a type III hypersensitivity rxn?
Hypersensitivity involves local or circulating antibody-antigen complexes that cause damage by getting trapped in tissues and activating complement proteins.
245
what type of Hypersensitivity involves the binding of antibodies to cell surface surface receptors causing stimulation, blockage or destruction of that receptor.
type II
246
what type of Hypersensitivity involves the activation of T cells resulting in CD4+ mediated macrophage recruitment or CD8+ mediated cytotoxicity.
type IV
247
what is type I hypersensitivity?
Hypersensitivity involves IgE and mast cell-mediated liberation of Histamine causing local and systemic anaphylaxis.
248
what are the three manifestations of Wiskott-Aldrich?
Thrombocytopenia
eczema
recurrent infections
249
what are the three manifestations of Wiskott-Aldrich?
Thrombocytopenia
eczema
recurrent infections
250
what cells have TLRs?
dendritic cells and macs and lymphocytes
251
what activates TLRs?
PAMPs from microbes
252
what is the coreceptor for TLR?
CD14
253
LPS comes from gram (pos/neg) bacteria
neg
254
what enzyme produces PGs?
COX
255
what enzyme produces LTs?
5-lipoxygenase
256
Which leukotriene attracts and activates neutrophils?
LTB4
257
What are the three ways that mast cells are activated?
1. tissue trauma
2. C3a and C5a
3. cross linking of surface IgE by Ag
258
In acute inflammation, what is released immediately and what is released as a delayed response?
immediately: histamine
| delayed; leukotrienes
259
Factor XII is activated upon exposure to..
subendothelial collagen
260
What affect does histamine have on endothelial cells?
contraction
261
P-selectin that is released from the Weibel Palade bodies is activated by...
histamine
262
E-selectin is induced by what two cytokines?
TNF
| IL1
263
what is odd about the recurrent infections in LAD?
NO PUS FORMATION; b/c the lymphocytes can't diapedese!
264
What bugs cause recurrent infection in CGD?
```
PSEUDOMONAS CEPACIA
staph aureus
Serratia marcesens
Nocardia
Aspergillus
(CATALASE POSITIVE)
```
265
MPO def leads may lead to a propensity for what type of infections?
candida
266
How long do neutrophils disappear after the resolution of the inflamm stimulus?
24 hours
267
Is persistent pus formation 6 weeks after the start of an illness considered chronic inflamm?
NO; pus means acute, so it is called continued acute!
268
what dz presents with T-cell def, abnl of the heart and face, and hypocalcemia?
diGeorge
269
Is persistent pus formation 6 weeks after the start of an illness considered chronic inflamm?
NO; pus means acute, so it is called continued acute!
270
what two receptors make up the TCR complex?
TCR
| CD3
271
B7 on APC binds CD(blank) on CD4 T cells for signal 2
CD28
272
CD40 on B cells binds CD(blank) on T cells for 2nd signal
CD40L
273
What is the second signal for CD8 T cells?
IL2 from Th1 cells
274
what is the clinical presentation of autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome?
1. hypoPTH
2. Adrenal insuff.
3. Candida infx
275
Tregs are positive for what three cellular markers?
CD4, CD25, and FOXP3
276
CD25 is aka (blank) receptor
IL2R
277
Fas is aka CD(blank)
Fas: CD95
278
CD25 mutations are asssociated with what two autoimmune dzs?
MS and DM type I
279
what can B cells do in the bone marrow during negative selection to increase self tolerance?
receptor editing
280
anti-SSA and SSB in SJogren are anit-(blank) abs
anti-ribonucleoprotein
281
what causes the wound to contract in healing by second intention?
myofibroblasts
