ch 18 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

form U4

A
  • registration as an associated person of a FINRA member firm requires Form U4
  • name, address, aliases
  • 5 year residency history
  • 10 year employment history
  • disclosure of any charge/conviction (if yes, detailed disclosure reporting page - DRP)
  • any changes require filing an amended form with the central registration depository no later than 30 days after the member is aware of the change
  • don’t need to update for educational achievements or martial status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

qualifications investigated

A
  • member firm must certify that it has investigated the person’s business reputation, character, education, qualifications, experience
  • If FINRA discovers any misleading info or omissions, disciplinary action may be taken to bar the individual. Principal signing application might be liable as well
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DRPs

A
  • criminal disclosure (felony and certain financial misdemeanors)
  • regulatory action disclosure (SEC, state regulators, SRO)
  • civil judicial disclosure (civil cases not involving securities)
  • customer complaints/arbitration/ civil litigation disclosure
  • termination for cause disclosure
  • financial disclosure (bankruptcy, payment on surety bond, unsatisfied judgements and client
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

customer compliant procedures

A
  • member firms must establish its own procedures
  • complaints only count if they are WRITING
  • complaint records must be retained for a min of 4 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when complaints are received

A
  • if received by reg rep, must immediately bring to the attention of the person designated in procedures (manager, legal, etc)
  • if broker dealer gets compliant about reg rep, they discuss it with the reg rep first then contact customer
  • efforts are made to resolve compliant without taking it through FINRA’s formal procedures
  • Meditation, arbitration is next if not resolved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

code of arbitration procedure

A
  • arbitration is an alt to going to court to resolve disputes
  • established to arbitrate unresolved industry disputes
  • mandatory when:
    • a member against another member or reg clearing agency
      - a member against an associated person
      • an associated person against another associated person
  • most new account forms include a predispose arbitration clause that must be signed by customers before opening an account
    - if a customer requests this form, must provide in 10 days
  • without a signed arbitration agreement, a customer can pursue arbitration, but a member can’t force a customer to arbitration
  • class action claims are NOT subject to arbitration
  • claims brought by employees of member firm against the firm are note required to be arbitrated unless the parties agree
  • advantages of arbitration: save time, money and decisions are final and binding, no appeals are allowed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

initiation of proceedings

A
  • any party may initiate of proceedings by filing a claim with the director of arbitration of FINRA
  • claim must describe in detail the issue and include documentation and remedy they are looking for
  • claimant must include check for the required claim filing fee
  • director sends copy of claim to other party
  • respondent has 45 calendar days to respond to the director and claimant .
    - all available defenses and related counterclaim
    - if respondent doesn’t respond in 45 days may at the discretion of the director, be barred from presenting at the hearing
  • if the dispute involves irreparable injury, that party might seek interim or permanent injunction - must show clear case and suffer permanent harm unless immediate relief is granted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

mediation

A
  • alt dispute resolution process
  • cheaper than arbitration
  • both parties need to agree to it, but can withdraw at any time without consent of the other party
  • attempt to work out a settlement
  • mediator is selected
  • if unsuccessful, a hearing is conducted
  • issue is settled when memo of understanding is signed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

selection of arbitrators

A
  • FINRA maintains a list
  • nonpublic arbitrator
    • financial industry exp
      - industry prof who rep parties in disputes (5 yr cooling off period based on their affiliations, 2 yr based on someone else’s activities
  • public arbitrator
    • any person who doesn’t meet the definition of nonpublic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

simplified arbitration

A
  • any dispute involving 50,000 or less
  • one arbitrator
  • 30 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

arbitration threshold

A
  • 50,000 or less = one arbitrator
  • 50,000 to 100,000 = one arbitrator, unless parties agree to 3
  • greater than 100,000 = 3 arbitrators, unless parties agree to 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

awards

A
  • all monetary awards must be paid within 30 days of the decision date
  • all awards and details of claim are made public by FINRA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

statute of limitations

A
  • 6 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

code of procedure (COP)

A
  • FINRA’s formal procedure for handling trade practice complaints involving violations of the member conduct rules
  • FINRA’s dept of enforcement is the body to hear and judge complaints
  • appeals and review of Dept of Enforcement are handled by national adjudicatory council.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FINRA manual

A
  • must be made available to customer upon request
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

reporting requirements

A
  • member firm must promptly report to FINRA (not later than 30 days) if members or an AP:
    - have been found to have violated fed securities law
    • are subject to a customer complaint of theft, misappropriation, forgery
    • suspended or expelled by another SRO
      - indicated, convicted or plead guilty, no contest to any criminal offense (except traffic violations)
      • defendant or respondent in any securities/commodity related litigation or arbitration settled in excess of 15,000
      • becomes subject to statutory disqualification
      • subject of an in-house disciplinary action
17
Q

sanctions

A
  • censure
  • fine
  • suspension of membership for up to 2 years
  • expulsion, cancelation, revocation
  • barring from associating with other members
  • any other fitting sanction
  • if AP is suspended, they cannot remain associated with the member in any capacity (can’t be on premise during suspension)
  • member is prohibited from paying salary, commission, other remuneration
    • AP can only be paid monies earned before the suspension
18
Q

appeals

A
  • appeal may be made to the national adjudicatory council (NAC)
  • must be made within 25 days of decision date, otherwise decision is final
  • if not satisfied, appealing party can take the case to the SEC
  • from there the appealing party can take the case to the fed court system
  • appealing stays the effective date of sanctions other than a bar or expulsion
19
Q

clearly erroneous transactions

A
  • Nasdaq has the authority to declare any inter dealer trade null and void or adjust the terms if the current terms are clearly in error
  • Nasdaq can take this action itself or in response to customer complaint
  • if a member wants a trade null and void or adjusted it must notify Nasdaq market operations within 30 minutes of execution and provide all details
  • Nasdaq will make decision to:
    - void the trade
    - adjust the terms
    - take no action