CH 12-16 Flashcards

1
Q

Perception

A

the process through which people recieve and interpret information from the environment

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2
Q

Common perceptual distortions

A

`Stereotypes
Halo Effects
Selective perception
Projection

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3
Q

Stereotypes

A

assigns attributes commonly associated with a group to an individual

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4
Q

Halo Effect

A

uses ONE attribute to develop an overall impression of a person or situation

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5
Q

Selective Perception

A

focuses attention on things consistent with existing beliefs, needs, or action

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6
Q

Projection

A

assigns personal attributes to other individuals

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7
Q

Attribution

A

is the process of creating explanations for events

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8
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

overestimates internal factors and underestimates external factors as influences on someone’s behavior
-tendency to blame other people when things go wrong, whether or not this is really true

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9
Q

Self serving bias

A

underestimates internal factors and overestimates external factors as influences on someones behavior
-tendency for people to blame personal failures or problems on external causes rather than accept personal responsibility

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10
Q

Impression management

A

tries to create desired perception in the eyes of others

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11
Q

Personality

A

is the profile of characteristics making a person unique from others

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12
Q

The Big 5 Personality Traits

A
Extroversion
Agreeableness
Conscientiousness
Emotional Stability
Openness to experience
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13
Q

Extroversion

A

talkative, comfortable, and confident in interpersonal relationships

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14
Q

Agreeableness

A

trusting, courteous, and helpful, getting along well with others

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15
Q

Conscientiousness

A

dependable, organized, and focue4son getting things done.

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16
Q

Emotional Stability

A

a person who is emotionally stable is secure, calm, steady and self confident

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17
Q

Openness to experience

A

broad minded, imaginative, and open to new ideas

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18
Q

Locus of Control

A

the extent to which one believes what happens is within ones control (internal & external)

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19
Q

Authoritarianism

A

the degree to which a person defers to authority and accepts status differences

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20
Q

Machiavellian ism

A

the degree to which someone uses power manipulatively

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21
Q

Self Monitoring

A

the degree to which someon is able to adjust behavior in response to

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22
Q

Stress

A

state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities

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23
Q

Type A Personality

A

oriented toward extreme achievements, impatience, and perfectionism

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24
Q

Constructive Stress

A

a positive influence on effort, creativity, and diligence in work

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25
Q

Destructive Stress

A

a negative influence on ones performance

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26
Q

Job burnout

A

physical and mental exhaustion from work stress

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27
Q

Workplace rage

A

aggressive behavior toward co workers or the work setting

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28
Q

Personal wellness

A

the pursuit of a personal health promotion program

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29
Q

Attitude

A

predisposition to act in a certain way

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30
Q

Cognitive Dissonance

A

is discomfort felt when attitude and behavior are inconsistent

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31
Q

Job Satisfaction

A

the degree to which an individual feels positive about a job and work experience

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32
Q

Withdrawal behavior

A

include absenteeism and turnover

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33
Q

Organizational citizenship behaviors

A

are things people do to go the extra mile in their work

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34
Q

Employee engagements

A

is a strong sense of belonging and connection with ones work and employer

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35
Q

Emotional Intelligence

A

is an ability to understand emotions and manage relationships effectively

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36
Q

Emotions

A

strong feelings directed toward someone or something

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37
Q

Moods

A

are generalized positive and negative feelings or state of mind

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38
Q

Mood Contagion

A

is the spillover of ones positive or negative moods onto others

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39
Q

Among the big five personality traits, ___________ indicates someone who tends to be responsible, dependable and careful in respect to tasks.

A

Conscientious

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40
Q

A person with a/an ____________ personality would most likely act unemotional and manipulative when trying to influence others to achieve personal goals

A

Machiavellian

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41
Q

When a person tends to belileve that he or she has little influence over things that happen in life, this indicates a/an ____________ personality

A

low locus of control

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42
Q

How is a person with an authoritarian personality expected to act?

A

Strong tendency to obey orders

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43
Q

A new team leader who designs jobs for persons on her work team mainly “because I would prefer to work the new way rather than the old” is committing a perceptual error known as?

A

Projection

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44
Q

A manager allows one characteristic of a person -say a pleasant personality- to bias performace ratings of that individual overall, the manager is falling prey to a perceptual distortion known as?

A

The halo effect

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45
Q

Use of special dress, manners, gestures and vocabulary words when meeting a prospective employer in a job interview are all examples of how people use ____________ in daily life

A

impression management

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46
Q

_____________ is a form of attribution error that involves blaming the environment for problems that we may have caused ourselves.

A

self serving bias

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47
Q

___________ is a form of attribution error that involves blaming others for problems that they may have NOT caused themselves

A

fundamental attribution error

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48
Q

The _________ component of an attitude is what indicates a persons belief about something, while the __________ component indicates a specific positive or negative feeling about it.

A

cognitive; affective

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49
Q

the term for the discomfort someone feels when his or her behavior turns is inconsistent with a previously expressed attitude is ________

A

cognitive dissonance

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50
Q

job satisfaction is known from research to be a strong predictor of _____________

A

absenteeism

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51
Q

a person who is always willing to volunteer for extra work or help someone else with his or her work is acting consistent with strong ___________.

A

organizational citizenship

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52
Q

A/an ___________ represents a rather intense but short lived feeling about a person or situation whereas a/an ________________ describes a more generalized positive or negative state of mind.

A

emotion;mood

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53
Q

which statement about the job satisfaction job performance relationship is most true based on research?

A

a productive worker well rewarded for

performance will be a happy worker

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54
Q

Motivation

A

accounts for the level, direction and persistence of effort expended at work

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55
Q

Need

A

an unfulfilled physiological or psychological desire.

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56
Q

Lower order needs

A

physiological, safety, and social needs in Maslow’s hierarchy

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57
Q

Higher order needs

A

are esteem and self actualization needs in Maslow’s hierachy

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58
Q

attitude

A

a predisposition to act in certain way

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59
Q

cognitive dissonance

A

is discomfort felt when attitude and behavior are inconsistent

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60
Q

job satisfaction

A

the degree to which an individual feels positive about a job and work experience

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61
Q

existence needs

A

are desires for physiological and material well being

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62
Q

relatedness needs

A

are desires for satisfying interpersonal relationships

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63
Q

growth needs

A

are desires for continued psychological growth and development

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64
Q

need for achievement

A

is the desire to do something better, to solve problems or to master complex tasks

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65
Q

need for power

A

is the desire to control, influence or be responsible for people

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66
Q

need for affiliation

A

is the desire to establish and maintain good relations with people

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67
Q

McClelland acquired need theory:

A

identifies needs for achievement, affiliation, and power all of which may influence what a person desires from work.

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68
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs

A

moves from lower order physiological, safety and social needs up to higher order ego and self actualization needs.

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69
Q

Alderfer’s ERG theory

A

identifies existence, relatedness and growth needs.

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70
Q

Herzberg’s two factor theory

A

identifies satisfier factors in job content as influences on job satisfaction; hygiene factors in job context are viewed as influences on job dissatisfaction

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71
Q

the core charcteristics model of job design focus on?

A

skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy and feedback

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72
Q

satisfier factor

A

found in job content, such as sense of achievement, recognition, responsibility, advancement and personal growth

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73
Q

hygiene factor

A

found in the job context such as working conditions, interpersonal relations, organizational policies and salary

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74
Q

job design

A

is the allocation of specific work tasks to individuals and groups

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75
Q

job enrichment

A

increases job content by adding work planning and evaluating duties normally performed by the supervisor

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76
Q

perceived negative inequity

A

is discomfort felt over being harmed by unfair treatment

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77
Q

perceived positive inequity

A

is discomfort felt over benefiting from unfair treatment

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78
Q

expectancy

A

a persons belief that working hard will result i high task performance

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79
Q

instrumentality

A

is a persons belief that various outcomes will occur as a result of task performance

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80
Q

Valence

A

is the value a person assigns to work related outcomes

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81
Q

Self efficacy

A

is a persons belief that they are capable of performing a task

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82
Q

Adam’s equity theory

A

recognizes that social comparisons take place when rewards are distributed in the work place

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83
Q

Equity Theory

A

any sense of percieved inequity is considered a motivating state that causes a person to behave in ways that restore equity to the situation

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84
Q

Vroom’s Expectancy theory

A

Motivation = Expectancy x Instrumentality x valence

85
Q

Managers using expectancy theory are advised to make sure rewards are what?

A

achievable, predictable, and individually valued

86
Q

Locke’s goal setting theory

A

emphasizes the motivational power of goals that are specific and challenging as well as set through participatory means.

87
Q

The law of effect

A

states that behavior followed by pleasent consequences is likely to be repeated visa versa

88
Q

Operant conditioning

A

is the control of behavior by manipulating its consequences

89
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

strengthens a behavior by making a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence

90
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

strengthens a bahavior by making the avoidance of an undesirable consequence contingent on its occurrence.

91
Q

Punishment

A

discourages a behavior by making an unpleasant consequence contingent on its occurrence

92
Q

Extinction

A

discourages a behavior by making the removal of a desirable consequence contingent on its occurrence.

93
Q

Shaping

A

is positive reinforcment of successive approximations to the desired behavior

94
Q

Law of contingent reinforcement

A

deliver the reward as soon as possible after the desired behavior occurs

95
Q

Reinforcement Theory

A

views human behavior as determined by its environmental consequences

96
Q

Law of effect

A

states that the behavior followed by a pleasent consequence is likely to repeat; behavior followed by an unpleasant consequence is unlikely to be repeated

97
Q

Maslow’s progression principle stops working at the level of __________ needs.

A

self actualization

98
Q

Lower order needs in Maslow’s Hierarchy correspond to __________ needs.

A

existence

99
Q

A worker high in need for __________ power in McClelland’s Theoryy tried to use power for the good of the organization.

A

social

100
Q

in the __________ theory of motivation, an individual who feels underrewarded relative to a co worker might be expected to reduce his or her work efforts in the future.

A

equity

101
Q

Which of the following is a correct match?

A

Skinner - Reinforcment Theory

102
Q

In Herzberg’s two factor theory, base pay is considered a/an __________ factor.

A

Hygiene

103
Q

The expectancy theory of motivation say that motivation= expectancy x instrumentality x ___________

A

Valence

104
Q

When a team member shows strong ego needs in Maslow’s herarchy, the team leaader should find ways to link this persons work with ____________.

A

individual praise and recognition

105
Q

When someone has a high and positive “expectancy” in expectancy theory of motivation, this means that the person __________.

A

believes he can achieve performance expectations

106
Q

the law of _______ states that behavior followed by a positive consequence is likely to be repeated, whereas behavior followed by an undesirable consequence is not likely to be repeated.

A

effect

107
Q

when a job allows a person to do a complete unit of work, it is high on which core characteristics?

A

task identity

108
Q

__________ is a positive reinforcement stratagy that rewards successive approximations to a desirable behavior.

A

shaping

109
Q

the purpose of negative reinforcement as an operant conditioning technique is to __________.

A

encourage desirable behavior

110
Q

The premise of reinforcement theory is :

A

behavior is a function of environment

111
Q

Both Barry and Marissa are highly motivated students. Knowing this, I can expect them to be ________.

A

hard working

112
Q

Team

A

a collection of people who regularly interact to pursue common goals

113
Q

Teamwork

A

is the process of people actively working together to accomplish common goals

114
Q

Synergy

A

the creation of a whole greater than the sum of its individual parts

115
Q

Social Loafing

A

is the tendency of some people to avoid responsibility by free riding in groups

116
Q

Formal Team

A

is officially recognized and supported by the organization

117
Q

Informal group

A

is unofficial and emerges from relationship and shared interests among members

118
Q

Committee

A

designated to work on a special task on a continuing basis

119
Q

Project Team/Task Force

A

is convened for a specific purpose and disbands after completing its task

120
Q

Cross Functional Team

A

operates with members who come from different functional units of organization

121
Q

employee involvement team

A

meets on a regular basis to help achieve continuous improvement

122
Q

quality circle

A

is a team of employees who meet periodically to discuss ways of improving work quality

123
Q

Virtual team

A

work together and solve problems through computer based interactions

124
Q

Self Managing team (autonomous work groups)

A

have the authority to make decisions about how they share and complete their work

125
Q

effective team

A

achieves high levels of task performance, membership satisfaction and future viability

126
Q

Membership composition

A

the mix of abilities, skills, background, and experiences among team members

127
Q

Team effectiveness equation

A

Team effectiveness = quality of inputs + (Process Gains-Process losses)

128
Q

Team Process

A

is the way team members work together to accomplish a task

129
Q

The stages of team development

A
Forming
Storming
Norming
Performing
Adjourning
130
Q

Forming

A

initial orientation and interpersonal testing

131
Q

Storming

A

a stage of conflict over tasks and working as a team

132
Q

Norming

A

a stage of consolidation around task and operating agendas

133
Q

Performing

A

a stage of teamwork and focused task performance

134
Q

Adjourning

A

a stage of task completion and disengagement

135
Q

norm

A

is a behavior, rule or standard expected to be followed by team members

136
Q

performance norm

A

defines the effort and performance contributions expected of team members

137
Q

Cohesiveness

A

is the degree to which members are attracted to and motivated to remain part of a team

138
Q

task activity

A

is an action taken by a team member that directly contributes to the groups performance purpose

139
Q

Maintenance activity

A

is an action taken by a team member that supports the emotional life of the group

140
Q

Distributed leadership

A

is when any and all members contribute helpful task and maintenance activities to the team

141
Q

Disruptive behaviors

A

are self serving and cause problems for team effectiveness

142
Q

_________ is important so group think doesnt happen

A

Diversity

143
Q

Decentralized communication network

A

allows all members to communicate directly with one another

144
Q

Centralized communication network

A

communication flows only between individual members and a hub or central point

145
Q

restricted communication network

A

contest one anothers positions and restricts interactions with one another

146
Q

Team building

A

involves activities to gather and analyze data on a team and make changes to increase its effetiveness

147
Q

decision making

A

is the process of making choices among alternative courses of action

148
Q

Consensus

A

is reached when all parties believe they have had their say and been listened to , and agree to support the groups final decisions

149
Q

Groupthink

A

is a tendency for highly cohesive teams to lose their evaluative capabilities

150
Q

Conflict

A

is a disagreement over issues of substance and or emotional antagonism

151
Q

substantive conflict

A

involves disagreements over goals, resources, rewards, policies, procedures and job assignments

152
Q

emotional conflict

A

results from feelings of anger, distrust, dislike, fear and resentment as well as from personality clashes

153
Q

avoidance

A

pretends that a conflict doesnt really exist

154
Q

accommodation (smoothing)

A

plays down differences and highlights similarities to reduce conflict

155
Q

Competition (authoritative demand)

A

uses force, superior skill or domination to win a conflict

156
Q

Compromise

A

occurs when each party to the conflict gives up something of value to the other

157
Q

Collaboration (problem solving)

A

involves working through conflict differences and solving problems so everyone wins

158
Q

Conflict Resolution

A

is the removal of the substantive and or emotional reasons for conflict

159
Q

________ occurs when a group of people is able to achieve more than its members could by working individually

A

Synergy

160
Q

one of the recommended strategies for dealing with a group member who engages in social loafing is to ____________-.

A

redefine tasks to make individual contributions more visible

161
Q

An effective team is defined as one that achieves high levels of task performance, high member satisfaction and ____________.

A

group consensus

162
Q

in the open system model of teams the ________ is an important input factor.

A

diversity of membership

163
Q

A basic rule of team dynamics might be stated this way: the greater the ___________ in a team, the greater the conformity to norms

A

cohesiveness

164
Q

The team effectiveness equation states the following : Team effectiveness = quality of inputs X (_______ - process losses)

A

process gains

165
Q

members of a team become more motivated and better able to deal with conflict during the __________ stage of team development.

A

performing

166
Q

a team member who does a good job at summarizing discussion, offering new ideas, and clarifying points made by others is providing leadership by contributing __________ activities to the group process.

A

task

167
Q

a team performing very creative and unstructured task is most likely to succeed using _________.

A

a decentralized communicat5ion network

168
Q

one way for a manager to build positive norms within a team is to ________

A

act as a positive role model

169
Q

the best way to increase the cohesiveness of a team would be to ___________.

A

start competition with other groups

170
Q

a __________ decision is one in which all members agree on the course of action being taken

A

unanimous

171
Q

groupthink is most likely to occur in teams that are ______________.

A

highly cohesive

172
Q

when people are highly cooperative but not very assertive in a conflict situation the likelihood is that they will be using which conflict managers style?

A

accommodation

173
Q

the interpersonal conflict managment style with the greatest potential for true conflict resolution is __________

A

collaboration

174
Q

Social Capital

A

is the capacity to attract support and help from others

175
Q

Communication

A

is the process of sending and receiving symbols with meanings attached

176
Q

effective communication

A

the receiver fully understands the intended messege

177
Q

efficient communication

A

occurs at minimum cost to sender

178
Q

Persuasive communication

A

presents a message in a manner that causes others to accept and support it

179
Q

Credible communication

A

earns trust, respect and integrity in the eye of others

180
Q

Noise

A

is anything that interferes with the communication process

181
Q

communication channel

A

is the medium used to carry a message

182
Q

channel richness

A

is the capacity of a communication channel to effectively carry information

183
Q

Nonverbal communication

A

takes place through gestures, expressions, posture and even use of interpersonal space

184
Q

mixed message

A

results when words communicate one message while actions body language or appearance communicate something else

185
Q

filtering

A

is the intentional distortion of information to make it more favorable to the recipient

186
Q

Active listening

A

helps the source of a message say what he or she really means

187
Q

Feedback

A

is the process of telling someone else how you feel about something that person did or said

188
Q

proxemics

A

is the study of the way we use space

189
Q

communication transparency

A

involves being honest and openly sharing accurate and complete information

190
Q

open book management

A

managers provide employees with essential financial information about their employers

191
Q

The electronic grapevine

A

uses computer technologies to transmit information around informatl networks inside and outside of organizations

192
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

is the tendency to consider ones culture superior to any and all others

193
Q

cultural etiquette

A

is use of appropriate manners and behaviors in cross cultural situations

194
Q

Who is responsible for encoding a message in the communication procoss?

A

sender

195
Q

issues of respect and integrity are associated with ________ communication

A

credibility

196
Q

which is the best example of a superior making feedback descriptive rather than evaluative?

A

You have been late to work three days this month.

197
Q

When interacting with an angry co worker who is complaining about a work problem, a manager skilled at active listening would most likiely try to ___________.

A

rephrase the co workers complaint to encourage him to say more

198
Q

when the intended meaning of the sender and the interpreted meaning of the receiver are the same communication is _________.

A

effective

199
Q

what happens when a communication is persuasive?

A

the receiver acts as the sender intended

200
Q

how can a manager build credibility for persuasive communications?

A

make sure to establish a good relationship with others

201
Q

one of the rules for giving constructive feedback is to make sure that it is always __________.

A

given in small doses

202
Q

when a worker recieves an amail memo from the boss with information about changes to his job assignment and end up confused because he doesnt understand it, the boss has erred by making a bad choice of __________ for communicating the message.

A

channels

203
Q

the safest conclusion about privacy in electronic communication is _______.

A

it really doesnt exist

204
Q

An _____________ is higher in channel richness than an ____________.

A

instant message; email

205
Q

the negative effects of status difference on communication between lower and higher levels in organizations show up in the form of _____________.

A

filtering

206
Q

a manager who understands the influence of proxemics in communication is likely to ________.

A

arrange work spaces to encourage interaction

207
Q

when a persons words say one thing but his or her body language suggests something quite different the person is sending ___________

A

mixed message

208
Q

if a visitor to a foreign culture makes gestures commonly at home even after learning that they are offensive to locals, the visitor can be described as ___________

A

ethnocentric