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Sports Medicine > Ch 1,2,3 Final Exam > Flashcards

Ch 1,2,3 Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

<p>What is athletic training?</p>

A

A health care profession practiced by athletic trainers who collaborate with physicians to optimize activity and clients.

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2
Q

<p>What does athletic training encompass?</p>

A

Athletic training focuses on prevention, diagnosis, and intervention of emergency, acute, and chronic medical conditions.

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3
Q

<p>Students who want to become certified athletic trainers must earn what?</p>

A

A degree

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4
Q

<p>What are six places that athletic trainers can provide services?</p>

A
  1. Health care rehab
  2. military
  3. occupational health
  4. perfoming arts
  5. physician practice
  6. public safety
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5
Q

<p>What are credentials?</p>

A

A qualification, typically used to show that they are qualified for something.

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6
Q

<p>What does NATA stand for?</p>

A

National Athletic Trainer’s Association.

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7
Q

<p>Roles of an athletic trainer</p>

A 
injury prevention
evaluation and assessment
care of injuries
treatment
organization
professional development
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8
Q

<p>difference between rehabilitation and reconditioning</p>

A

rehabilitation is the process of getting a person back to normal function following an injury or illness.
reconditioning is getting the athlete back into shape for athletic participation

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9
Q

<p>what is sports medicine?</p>

A

sports medicine is not a single career, but instead a widely varied group of professionals all concerned with the health and well being of an athlete.

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10
Q

<p>5 people who make of the central sports medicine team?</p>

A 
<p>Athletes
parents
team physician
certified athletic trainer
coaches</p>
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11
Q

<p>what type of specialist is commonly a team physician</p>

A

<p>an orthopedic physician</p>

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12
Q

<p>primary care physician</p>

A

<p>perform routine check-ups and provide care for patients</p>

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13
Q

<p>podiatrist</p>

A

<p>specializes in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of conditions of the foot, ankle, and lower leg</p>

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14
Q

<p>allergist</p>

A

<p>specializes in the diagnosis and treatement of asthma and other allergic diseases</p>

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15
Q

<p>urologist</p>

A

<p>specializes in diseases of the urinary tract and the male reproductive system</p>

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16
Q

<p>gynecologist</p>

A

<p>specializes in deseases of the female genital tract and women's health</p>

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17
Q

<p>cardiologist</p>

A

<p>specializes in blodd bessels, the heart, and the cardiovascular system</p>

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18
Q

<p>pediatrician</p>

A

<p>manages the health of children, including physical behavior, and mental issues</p>

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19
Q

<p>neurologist</p>

A

<p>treats disorderes that affect the brain, spinal cord, and nerves</p>

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20
Q

<p>chiropractors</p>

A

<p>seeks to prevent and treat health problems by using spinal adjustments</p>

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21
Q

<p>registered dietician </p>

A

<p>can offer help with the choice of foods a person eats and drinks</p>

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22
Q

<p>what is a physician assistant</p>

A

<p>they practice medicine and do many of the jobs doctors do</p>

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23
Q

<p>what are 3 places physician assistants can work</p>

A

<p>family medicine
internal medicine
emergency medicine</p>

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24
Q

<p>what is a physical therapist</p>

A

<p>specializes in fixing impariments and promotes mobility, function, and quality of life</p>

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25
Q

<p>what is a nurse practitioner</p>

A

<p>qualified to treat certain medical conditions without the direct supervision of a doctor</p>

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26
Q

<p>assessment of athletic injuries</p>

A

<p>understand what type of injury it is</p>

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27
Q

<p>exercise physiology</p>

A

<p>how the body responds to exercise and how a body can become more fit</p>

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28
Q

<p>first aid</p>

A

<p>to be able to treat injuries with medicine</p>

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29
Q

<p>human anatomy</p>

A

<p>understanding what is in the body and how those parts function</p>

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30
Q

<p>human physiology</p>

A

<p>the science of the mechanical, physical, and biochemical function of humans</p>

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31
Q

<p>biomechanics</p>

A

<p>the study of the mechanical laws relating to the movement or structure of living organisms</p>

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32
Q

<p>nutrition</p>

A

<p>the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.</p>

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33
Q

<p>pathology of injury and illness</p>

A

<p>priarily concerns the cause, origin, and nature of disease</p>

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34
Q

<p>phramacology</p>

A

<p>concerned with the uses, effects, and modes of action of drugs</p>

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35
Q

<p>therapeutic modalities</p>

A

<p>using ultrasound therapy, shortwave diathermy</p>

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36
Q

<p>superior</p>

A

<p>towards the head or upper part of a structure</p>

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37
Q

<p>inferior</p>

A

<p>away from the head</p>

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38
Q

<p>anterior</p>

A

<p>front of the bodyq</p>

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39
Q

<p>posterior</p>

A

<p>back of the body</p>

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40
Q

<p>medial</p>

A

<p>in the middle of the body</p>

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41
Q

<p>lateral</p>

A

<p>the sides of the body</p>

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42
Q

<p>proximal</p>

A

<p>near the trunk</p>

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43
Q

<p>distal</p>

A

<p>away from the trunk</p>

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44
Q

<p>superficial</p>

A

<p>toward the surface of the body</p>

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45
Q

<p>deep</p>

A

<p>inside the body </p>

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46
Q

<p>3 primary functions of bones</p>

A

<p>helps with movement
blood cell production
protection of organs</p>

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47
Q

<p>how many bones in the human body</p>

A

<p>206</p>

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48
Q

<p>what is the epiphysis</p>

A

<p>the growth plate</p>

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49
Q

<p>what is cartilage</p>

A

<p>tough, flexible connective tissue that is found in many areas of the body</p>

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50
Q

<p>2 main functions of cartilage</p>

A

<p>shock absorption

| permit smooth bone movement</p>

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51
Q

<p>functions of muscles</p>

A

<p>generate movement
maintain body heat
postural alignment</p>

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52
Q

<p>functions of tendons</p>

A

<p>connect muscle to bone</p>

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53
Q

<p>functions of ligaments</p>

A

<p>connect bone to bone</p>

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54
Q

<p>what is the joint capsule</p>

A

<p>a thin, fibrous sac containing fluid, which surrounds an entire joint</p>

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55
Q

<p>what is the synovial membrane</p>

A

<p>the synovial membrane is a slick membrane lining inside a joint</p>

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56
Q

<p>what is flexion</p>

A

<p>the decreasing of the angle at a joint</p>

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57
Q

<p>what is extension</p>

A

<p>the increasing of the angle at a joint</p>

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58
Q

<p>what is hyperextension </p>

A

<p>represents a movement beyond anatomical position in the direction opposite the direction of flexion</p>

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59
Q

<p>adduction</p>

A

<p>bringing a body part toward the midline</p>

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60
Q

<p>abduction</p>

A

<p>moving a body part away from the midline</p>

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61
Q

<p>3 things about medial and lateral rotation</p>

A

<p>seen in the shoulder and hip
movement involved in the transverse plane
occurs with elbow/knee at 90 degrees</p>

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62
Q

<p>what is rotation</p>

A

<p>rotary movement around a fixed axis
moving of a body part in circular motion
</p>

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63
Q

<p>what 3 things happen when a tissue is injured</p>

A

<p>bleed
become inflamed
produce extra fluid</p>

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64
Q

<p>5 signs of inflammation</p>

A 
<p>pain
redness
swelling
loss of function
heat</p>
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65
Q

<p>medical term for swelling</p>

A

<p>edema</p>

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66
Q

<p>what is a strain</p>

A

<p>stretching of a tendon</p>

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67
Q

<p>4 muscle groups that strains often occur in</p>

A

<p>hamstrings
quadriceps
gastrocnemius
groin</p>

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68
Q

<p>what is a sprain</p>

A

<p>a stretching of a ligament</p>

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69
Q

<p>what is joint laxity</p>

A

<p>lose joints due to lose ligaments</p>

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70
Q

<p>what is a contusion</p>

A

<p>a region of injured tissue in which blood capillaries have been ruptured</p>

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71
Q

<p>what is a hematoma</p>

A

<p>another name for the collection of blood under the skin</p>

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72
Q

<p>incision</p>

A

<p>a cut or wound made by cutting with a sharp object</p>

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73
Q

<p>abrasion</p>

A

<p>bleeding knee, falling</p>

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74
Q

<p>laceration</p>

A

<p>skin separates from the wound; scarring is frequent</p>

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75
Q

<p>avulsion</p>

A

<p>the forcible tearing away of a body part by trauma</p>

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76
Q

<p>amputation</p>

A

<p>cutting of bone</p>

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77
Q

<p>puncture</p>

A

<p>a wound that is deeper than it is wide</p>

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78
Q

<p>what is vasoconstriction</p>

A

<p>a blood vessel getting smaller</p>

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79
Q

<p>what is vasodilation</p>

A

<p>a blood vessel getting bigger</p>

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80
Q

<p>3 factors that slow down healing time</p>

A

<p>atrophy
infection
poor nutrition </p>

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81
Q

<p>what is a dislocation</p>

A

<p>disruption of integrity of a joint</p>

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82
Q

<p>4 injuries can a dislocation cause</p>

A

<p>avulsion fractures
strains
sprains
decreased blood flow</p>

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83
Q

<p>what is subluxation</p>

A

<p>when a joint dislocates and relocates on its own</p>

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84
Q

<p>avulsion fracture</p>

A

<p>tearing away of bone

| common in adolescents</p>

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85
Q

<p>stress fracture</p>

A

<p>microscopic damage to bone</p>

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86
Q

<p>epiphyseal</p>

A

<p>fracture to growth plate</p>

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87
Q

<p>spiral fracture</p>

A

<p>bone fracture occurring when torque is applied along the axis of bone</p>

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88
Q

<p>transverse fracture</p>

A

<p>broken piece of bone is at a right angle to the bone's axis</p>

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89
Q

<p>pathological</p>

A

<p>fracture caused by disease</p>

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90
Q

<p>2 common causes of pathological fractures</p>

A

<p>improper nutrition

| eating disorders</p>

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91
Q

<p>brain damage is possible after \_\_\_\_ minutes</p>

A

<p>4-6</p>

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92
Q

<p>Brain damage is likely after \_\_\_ </p>

A

<p>6-10 minutes</p>

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93
Q

<p>Irreversible brain damage is likely after \_\_\_</p>

A

<p>minutes</p>

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94
Q

<p>what does therapeutic mean?</p>

A

<p>something with healing properties</p>

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95
Q

<p>what does the I in impress stand for</p>

A

<p>Initial inflammatory phase</p>

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96
Q

<p>what does the M in IMPRESS stand for</p>

A

<p>mobility restoration phase</p>

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97
Q

<p>what does the P in IMPRESS stand for</p>

A

<p>proprioception phase</p>

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98
Q

<p>what does the R in IMPRESS stand for</p>

A

<p>resistance training</p>

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99
Q

<p>what does the E in IMPRESS stand for</p>

A

<p>endurance training (cardiovascular endurance)</p>

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100
Q

<p>what does the 2 S's in IMPRESS stand for</p>

A

<p>sports specific function</p>

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101
Q

<p>goals of the initial injury phase</p>

A

<p>control of inflammation which produces pain, swelling, warmth, and redness</p>

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102
Q

<p>What does the P in prices stand for</p>

A

<p>protection</p>

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103
Q

<p>what does the R in prices stand for</p>

A

<p>Rest</p>

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104
Q

<p>what does the I in prices stand for</p>

A

<p>Ice</p>

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105
Q

<p>What does the C in PRICES stand for</p>

A

<p>compression</p>

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106
Q

<p>what does the E in PRICES stand for</p>

A

<p>elevation</p>

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107
Q

<p>what does the S in PRICES stand for</p>

A

<p>Support</p>

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108
Q

<p>When can the mobility restoration phase be initiated</p>

A

<p>when they can tolerate the pain</p>

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109
Q

<p>what is Range of motion</p>

A

<p>the full movement </p>

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110
Q

<p>what is passive range of motion</p>

A

<p>ATC moves the injured body segment with the athlete relaxed
(PAIN TOLERANCE)</p>

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111
Q

<p>What is Active-assistive range of motion</p>

A

<p>ATC and athlete work together to move injured segement</p>

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112
Q

<p>what is Active range of motion</p>

A

<p>necessary before strengthening exercises can be initiated.</p>

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113
Q

<p>what is flexibility?</p>

A

<p>ability to move a joint through a full ROM without restritictions
normal flexibility is needed for normal function</p>

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114
Q

<p>what is proprioception?</p>

A

<p>the body's ability to get information to the brain in response to stimulus a rising from the boyd.</p>

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115
Q

<p>What are three types of exercises used to restore proprioception</p>

A

<p>BOSU
Balance board
dynadisk</p>

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116
Q

<p>explain the resistance training phase</p>

A

<p>Introduction of strength exercies</p>

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117
Q

<p>What are five examples of how resistance training can be performed</p>

A 
<p>leg adduction
plank
side plank
wall shin raises
arm raises</p>
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118
Q

<p>what is muscular strength</p>

A

<p>muscular strength is the ability to lift a maximal amount of weight for one repetition</p>

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119
Q

<p>what is muscular endurance?</p>

A

<p>the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions against a resistance for an extended period of time</p>

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120
Q

<p>what is muscular power?</p>

A

<p>ability to contract the muscles with speed and force in short, explosive acts</p>

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121
Q

<p>explain the cardiovascular endurance phase</p>

A

<p>the prolonged ability of your heart and lungs to supply muscles with nutrients and oxygen</p>

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122
Q

<p>explain the muscular endurance phase</p>

A

<p>the ability of your muscles to perform contractions for long periods of time
(ex. # of curl-ups)</p>

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123
Q

<p>what are four examples of how these phases can be performed?</p>

A

<p>biking
jogging
curl-ups
push/pull ups</p>

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124
Q

<p>explain the sports-specific function phase</p>

A

<p>preparing the athlete to meet the demands of the sport they compete in</p>

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125
Q

<p>what are therapeutic modalities?</p>

A

<p>treatments used to facilitate healing

| Ex. heat, cold, ultrasound, electrical muscle stimulation</p>

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126
Q

<p>how are therapeutic modalities categorized?</p>

A

<p>thermal
electrical
mechanical</p>

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127
Q

<p>what are thermal elements?</p>

A

<p>transfer heat into/out of body tissue</p>

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128
Q

<p>what are indications?</p>

A

<p>a sign or piece of information that indicates somethin</p>

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129
Q

<p>what are contraindications?</p>

A

<p>signs to not do a treatment</p>

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130
Q

<p>indications for traction?</p>

A 
<p>spinal disk protrusion
degenerative disk disease
soft tissue stiffness
nerve root compression
muscle spasm
joint tightness</p>
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131
Q

<p>contraindications for traction</p>

A

<p>osteoporosis
malignant tumors
acute injuries</p>

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132
Q

<p>what are 8 factors that impede healing?</p>

A 
<p>infection
edema
atrophy
hemorrhage
age of athlete
muscle spams
separation of tissue
excessive scarring</p>
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133
Q

<p>what is hematoma</p>

A

<p>swelling or clotted blood</p>

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134
Q

<p>what is ecchymosis</p>

A

<p>a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath</p>

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135
Q

<p>what is cyanosis</p>

A

<p>a bluish discoloration of the skin</p>

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136
Q

<p>what is edema</p>

A

<p>swelling</p>

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137
Q

<p>what is congenital?</p>

A

<p>a disease that starts at birth</p>

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138
Q

<p>what is idiopathic?</p>

A

<p>a disease that arises spontaneousely</p>

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139
Q

<p>what is necrosis?</p>

A

<p>tissue death</p>

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140
Q

<p>what is contracture?</p>

A

<p>shortening or hardening of the muscles, tendons, or muscles</p>

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141
Q

<p>what is atrophy?</p>

A

<p>muscle shrinking</p>

142
Q

<p>what is dyspnea?</p>

A

<p>difficult or labored breathing</p>

143
Q

<p>what is apnea?</p>

A

<p>temporary cessation of breathing</p>

144
Q

<p>what is crepitus?</p>

A

<p>a grating sound produced by friction between bone and cartilage</p>

145
Q

<p>What are the three lateral ligaments of the ankle?</p>

A

<p>anterior talofibular
posterior talofibular
calcaneofibular</p>

146
Q

<p>what are the medial ligaments?</p>

A

<p>deltoid ligaments</p>

147
Q

<p>lateral sprains // what structures are injured?</p>

A

<p>ATF
PTF
CF</p>

148
Q

<p>lateral sprains// mechanisms</p>

A

<p>inversion combined with plantarflexion

| </p>

149
Q

<p>what is the MCL</p>

A

<p>medial collateral ligament
attaches femur to tibia
provides valgus/medial stability</p>

150
Q

<p>What is the LCL</p>

A

<p>lateral collateral ligament
attaches femur to fibula
vaurs/lateral stability</p>

151
Q

<p>what is the ACL</p>

A

<p>anterior cruciate ligament
keeps tibia form moving forward on femur
controls rotation of the knee</p>

152
Q

<p>what is the PCL</p>

A

<p>posterior cruciate ligament

| prevents tibia from moving posterior on femur</p>

153
Q

<p>what is knee cartilage called</p>

A

<p>meniscus</p>

154
Q

<p>what are the functions of the meniscus</p>

A

<p>sponge-like material used as shock absorbers and stabilizers within the knee
attached to the top of tibia</p>

155
Q

<p>Medial meniscus is more what?</p>

A

<p>prone to injuries</p>

156
Q

<p>why is the lateral meniscus injured less?</p>

A

<p>it has greater freedom of movement</p>

157
Q

<p>what are the four quadriceps muscles?</p>

A

<p>Rectus femoris
vastus lateralis
vastus intermedius
vastus medialis</p>

158
Q

<p>what are the functions of the rectus femoris?</p>

A

<p>knee extension

| hip flexion</p>

159
Q

<p>what are the functions of the vastus lateralis?</p>

A

<p>knee extension</p>

160
Q

<p>what are the functions of the vastus intermedius</p>

A

<p>knee extension</p>

161
Q

<p>what are the functions of the vastus medialis?</p>

A

<p>knee extension</p>

162
Q

<p>what are the posterior thigh muscles called?</p>

A

<p>hamstrings</p>

163
Q

<p>What are the three hamstring muscles? Functions?</p>

A

<p>biceps femoris
semitenainosus
semimembranosus
hip extension and knee flexion</p>

164
Q

<p>what is the illiotibial band?</p>

A

<p>the distal attachment of the tensor fascia latae muscle

| provides lateral support of the knee</p>

165
Q

<p>what is the bursa sac and its functions?</p>

A

<p>small fluid filled sac lined by synovial membrane

| provides cushion between bones and tendons around an injury</p>

166
Q

<p>how many bursa sacs are in the knee?</p>

A

<p>11 bursae</p>

167
Q

<p>mechanisms of MCL injuries?</p>

A

<p>valgus force</p>

168
Q

<p>what is the mechanism of LCL injuries</p>

A

<p>varus force</p>

169
Q

<p>S/S of MCL/LCL injuries</p>

A

<p>swelling, pain , discoloration
inflammation
instability/ joint laxity</p>

170
Q

<p>what is joint laxity?</p>

A

<p>a looseness in the joint not present in the uninjured leg</p>

171
Q

<p>Four streps in the immediate treatment of a suspected MCL/LCL injury?</p>

A

<p>PRICE
ROM as tolerated
orthopedic referral</p>

172
Q

<p>Which meniscus is injured most often? why?</p>

A

<p>medial firmly attached to medial collateral ligament and joint capsule</p>

173
Q

<p>meniscus injury // mechanism?</p>

A

<p>valgus force</p>

174
Q

<p>S/S of meniscus injuries</p>

A 
<p>edema developing over 48-72 hour period
joint line pain and loss of motion
intermittent locking and giving way
pain w/ squatting
clicking and/or popping in the knee</p>
175
Q

<p>treatment // meniscus injury</p>

A

<p>rest
ice
pain receivers
physical therapy</p>

176
Q

<p>what is a meniscectomy?</p>

A

<p>the surgical removal of all or part of a torn meniscus</p>

177
Q

<p>mechanisms // ACL injuries</p>

A

<p>the athlete attempting to change directions

| jumping / landing</p>

178
Q

<p>s/s of ACL injuries</p>

A

<p>Rapid moderate to severe edema
moderate to severe pian
instability
athlete will report hearing or feeling a "pop"</p>

179
Q

<p>immediate treatment // ACL injury</p>

A

<p>PRICE, IMMOBILIZE knee, crutches

| referral to an orthopedic MD</p>

180
Q

<p>long-term treatment // ACL injury</p>

A

<p>surgical repair

| rehabilitation for 6-10 months</p>

181
Q

<p>what is the unhappy triad?</p>

A

<p>an injury to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and the medial meniscus.</p>

182
Q

<p>mechanisms // PCL sprains</p>

A

<p>athlete falling on a bent knee
hyper flexion
blow to the anterior tibia
hyperextension</p>

183
Q

<p>s/s of PCL injuries</p>

A

<p>may report "a pop"
sometimes doesn't well to the extent of a torn PCL
posterior tibial sag</p>

184
Q

<p>immediate treatment // PCL injury</p>

A

<p>PRICES, NSAIDS</p>

185
Q

<p>long- term treatment // PCL injury</p>

A

<p>Grade 1 and 2 - non-surgical

| Grade 3 - surgery</p>

186
Q

<p>What is patella-femoral syndrome?</p>

A

<p>term for generalized knee pain
usually caused by abnormal stress on the joint
poor patellar tracking is usually the cause
this results in chondromalacia patella</p>

187
Q

<p>what is chondromalacia patella?</p>

A

<p>a wearing away of cartilage being the patella

| (runner's knee)</p>

188
Q

<p>mechanisms // chondromalacia</p>

A 
<p>poor patellar tracking
poor biomechanics
overuse
structural abnormality
weak / under developed thigh muscles or quadriceps</p>
189
Q

<p>what is the Q-angle</p>

A

<p>quadriceps femurs muscle angle</p>

190
Q

<p>treatment of chondromalacia</p>

A

<p>correct biomechanics and structural abnormalities
strengthening of knee muscles
ice/ NSAIDS
bracing</p>

191
Q

<p>what is a patellar dislocation?</p>

A

<p>athletes patella is forced laterally</p>

192
Q

<p>mechanism // patellar dislocation?</p>

A

<p>when knee is bent and forced to twist inward</p>

193
Q

<p>s/s of patellar dislocation?</p>

A

<p>patella will be positioned lateral
moderate-severe edema
pain
inability to move knee/leg</p>

194
Q

<p>treatment // patellar dislocation</p>

A

<p>reduction by physician
immobilization
restore ROM, strength
use of a knee bone when returning to competition</p>

195
Q

<p>what is patellar tendonitis?</p>

A

<p>cross section of knee in flexion</p>

196
Q

<p>mechanism // patellar tendonitis</p>

A

<p>excessive tension over patellar tendon</p>

197
Q

<p>s/s of patellar tendonitis</p>

A

<p>pain distal the patella
pain initially present only at beginning/end of activity
if untreated, pain will be present before during and after physical activity
going up and down stairs painful</p>

198
Q

<p>treatment // patellar tendonitis</p>

A 
<p>RICE
decreased activity
stretching and strengthening 
NSAIDS
taping/ bracing of tendon</p>
199
Q

<p>how might patellar tendonitis be avoided?</p>

A

<p>patellar brace</p>

200
Q

<p>what is osgood-schlatter disease?</p>

A

<p>inflammation of the tibia tuberosity of the tibia

| tendon becomes irritated</p>

201
Q

<p>s/s of osgood-schlatter disease</p>

A

<p>pain in the knee or leg below the knee

| limping / lump below knee</p>

202
Q

<p>treatment of osgood-schlatter disease</p>

A 
<p>ICE
REST
NSAIDS
improve overall leg strength
improve quadriceps flex</p>
203
Q

<p>what is bursitis?</p>

A

<p>inflammation of a bursa

| typically in knee, elbow, or shoulder</p>

204
Q

<p>s/s of bursitis in the knee</p>

A

<p>knee is warm to touch
moderate severe edema
squishy to touch
painful /point tender -> move to pressure</p>

205
Q

<p>treatment // knee bursitis</p>

A

<p>PRICES
protection
risk of infection is high</p>

206
Q

<p>2 types of knee bursitis</p>

A

<p>pre-patellar bursitis

| pes anserine bursitis</p>

207
Q

<p>treatment of bursitis?</p>

A

<p>joint protection
rest, ice, and pain relievers
RICE</p>

208
Q

<p>specific conditions might a woman be more prone to ?</p>

A 
<p>ACL tears
shin splints
patellar tendonitis
patellar dislocations
IT band syndrome
chondromalacia</p>
209
Q

<p>four main bones of the skull</p>

A

<p>frontal (anterior)
parietal (superior)
occipital (posterior)
temporal (lateral)</p>

210
Q

<p>medical term for the jaw bone</p>

A

<p>mandible</p>

211
Q

<p>medical term for the maxilla</p>

A

<p>the upper jaw</p>

212
Q

<p>how many pounds of force can the skull withstand?</p>

A

<p>425 Ib</p>

213
Q

<p>function of the frontal lobe</p>

A

<p>voluntary muscle movement, emotion, and eye movement</p>

214
Q

<p>function // occipital</p>

A

<p>vision</p>

215
Q

<p>function // parietal</p>

A

<p>sensation</p>

216
Q

<p>function // temporal</p>

A

<p>hearing and speech</p>

217
Q

<p>function // cerebellum</p>

A

<p>equilibrium, muscle actions, some reflexes</p>

218
Q

<p>function of cerebrospinal fluid</p>

A

<p>protection
provides vital chemicals
helps maintain pressure</p>

219
Q

<p>4 ways head injuries can be prevented</p>

A

<p>helmets
mouth guards
rules
common sense</p>

220
Q

<p>mechanisms // head injuries</p>

A

<p>impact or rotation</p>

221
Q

<p>what is a coup injury</p>

A

<p>caused by stationary skull being hit by an object traveling at a high velocity</p>

222
Q

<p>what is a contra coup injury</p>

A

<p>a skull in motion moving at a high velocity is suddenly stopped</p>

223
Q

<p>s/s concussion</p>

A 
<p>nausea /vomiting
some mental confusion
amnesia
unsteadiness
tinnitus
dizziness
headache
difficulty speaking
possible battle sign</p>
224
Q

<p>define battle sign</p>

A

<p>discoloration behind the ear</p>

225
Q

<p>what is tinnatus</p>

A

<p>ringing in your ears</p>

226
Q

<p>what is retrograde amnesia</p>

A

<p>the inability to recall events prior to the onset of injury</p>

227
Q

<p>what is anterograde amnesia</p>

A

<p>the inability to remember events following the injury</p>

228
Q

<p>what is nystagmus?</p>

A

<p>rapid fluttering of the eyes</p>

229
Q

<p>what is post-concussion syndrome?</p>

A

<p>a combination of post-concussion symptoms

| occurs within 7-10 days ; goes away after 3 months</p>

230
Q

<p>s/s of post-concussion syndrome?</p>

A

<p>headaches

| dizziness</p>

231
Q

<p>treatment of post-concussion syndrome</p>

A

<p>rest

| removed from play</p>

232
Q

<p>C 1-2</p>

A

<p>Neck flexion</p>

233
Q

<p>C3</p>

A

<p>lateral neck flexion</p>

234
Q

<p>C4 </p>

A

<p>shoulder elevation</p>

235
Q

<p>C5</p>

A

<p>shoulder abduction</p>

236
Q

<p>C6</p>

A

<p>Elbow flexion</p>

237
Q

<p>C7</p>

A

<p>elbow extension</p>

238
Q

<p>C8</p>

A

<p>Thumb extension, finger flexion</p>

239
Q

<p>T1</p>

A

<p>finger abduction</p>

240
Q

<p>L2</p>

A

<p>hip flexion</p>

241
Q

<p>L3</p>

A

<p>knee extension</p>

242
Q

<p>L4</p>

A

<p>ankle dorsiflexion and inversion</p>

243
Q

<p>L2, 3, 4</p>

A

<p>hip adductors</p>

244
Q

<p>L5</p>

A

<p>great toe extension, hip abduction</p>

245
Q

<p>S1</p>

A

<p>ankle plantar flexion, hip extension</p>

246
Q

<p>S2</p>

A

<p>knee flexion</p>

247
Q

<p>what are the four segments of the spine</p>

A

<p>cervical (7)
thoracic (12)
lumbar (5)
sacral</p>

248
Q

what are the bones of the spine called?

A

disc, cervical vertebra

249
Q

3 main functions of the bony spinal column

A

protect spinal cord
hold body upright for walking
site for muscular attachments

250
Q

3 main functions of the intervertebral disks?

A

serve as shock absorbers and resist compression during activity
keep vertebrae separated
provide space for nerves to exit the spinal cord

251
Q

3 shortcomings of the disks

A

do not have a good blood supply
poor healing
disks compress over time

252
Q

functions of trapezius

A

shoulder elevation

horizontal abduction

253
Q

latissimus dorsi functions

A

shoulder adduction

shoulder extension

254
Q

erector spinae functions

A

trunk extension

controls the rate of trunk flexion

255
Q

rhomboids functions

A

scapular retraction

256
Q

what is kyphosis

A

excessive thoracic curve

257
Q

what is lordosis

A

excessive forward curve

258
Q

what is spondylolisthesis?

A

occurs when one vertebra slips forward on the adjacent vertebra on the adjacent vertebrae

259
Q

s/s of spondylolisthesis?

A

pain / numbness

weakness in muscles

260
Q

2 surgical options for spondylolisthesis

A

spinal fusion

freezes nerve

261
Q

what is spondylolysis?

A

a defect/ fracture in the posterior part of the spine

262
Q

mechanism // spondylolysis

A

microtrauma to certain joints

263
Q

what is scoliolosis?

A

lateral curvature of the spine with associate of muscle imbalances

264
Q

which part of the spine do the majority of disk injuries occur in?

A

lumbar

265
Q

mechanism of intervertebral disk injuries

A 
poor posture over time
forced flexion/extension under weight
poor biomechanics
obesity
rarely will a fail cause a herniated disk
266
Q

s/s of intervertebral disk injuries

A

burning pain
numbness/ tingling
weakness of the lower extremities
symptoms tend to be aggravated by sitting

267
Q

treatment // intervertebral disk injuries

A

physical therapy
addressing poor posture / obesity
discectomy / spinal fusion

268
Q

mechanisms // cervical spine injuries

A

fractures occur as a result of axial loading

dislocations are usually the result of neck flexion combined with rotation

269
Q

what is axial loading

A

direct blow to the head with cervical spine aligned

270
Q

s/s cervical spine injury

A

pain around cervical spine
weakness, numbness, and tingling down the arms
possible deformity

271
Q

treatment // cervical spine injury

A

take charge of the situation
call 911
stabilize the cervical spine
primary survey

272
Q

what type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?

A

it is a glenohumeral joint

273
Q

four bones of the shoulder

A

humerus
clavicle
scapula
sternum

274
Q

another term for clavicle

A

collarbone

275
Q

another term for the sternum

A

breastbone

276
Q

another term for the scapula

A

shoulder blade

277
Q

what is the glenoid fossa?

A

a shallow depression on a bone into which another bone fits to form a joint

278
Q

what is the glenoid labrum?

A

a ring of tissue that encircles the glenoid fossa

serves as an attachment for the head of the humerus

279
Q

function of supraspinatus

A

abducts/ elevates the shoulder joint to side

280
Q

function of infraspinatus

A

externally rotates the shoulder joint

281
Q

function of teres minor

A

externally rotates the shoulder joint

282
Q

function of subscapularis

A

depresses the head of the humerus allowing it to move freely
also stabilizes the head of the humerus
internal/ medial rotation

283
Q

3 functions of the deltoid muscle

A

abduction
flexion
extension

284
Q

function of the serratus anterior

A

protracts scapula

285
Q

3 main joints of the shoulder

A

acromioclavicular
glenohumeral
sternoclavicluar

286
Q

2 most commonly injured joints of the shoulder

A

acromioclavicular joint

glenohumeral joint

287
Q

common causes of shoulder injuries

A

fall to the outstretched arm
direct blow to shoulder
overuse

288
Q

another term for an AC ligament sprain

A

shoulder separation

289
Q

mechanisms // AC injuries

A

a fall onto an adducted arm up against the body

pushes the shoulder hip down

290
Q

treatment of a 1st degree AC sprain

A

ICE , support/sling
NSAIDS
ROM
protective padding when resuming activity

291
Q

treatment of a 2nd and 3rd degree AC sprain

A

most likely need surgery

292
Q

mechanisms // muscle and tendon injuries in the shoulder

A

overuse

293
Q

treatment // chronic shoulder injuries

A

rest, ice
NSAIDS
correction of muscle imbalances
orthopedic referral

294
Q

mechanisms of rotator cuff strain

A

excessive motion beyond ROM
repetition
impingement syndrome

295
Q

most often injured rotator cuff sprain

A

the supraspinatus

296
Q

s/s of rotator cuff strain

A

pinching of the supraspinatus and/or biceps tendon in the space under the acromion process

297
Q

what athletes are more prone to rotator cuff strains

A

swimmers
baseball players
volleyball players

298
Q

s/s of impingement syndrome

A

difficulty reaching up behind the back

pain w/ overhead use of the arm and weakness of shoulder muscles

299
Q

treatment // impingement syndrome

A

ICE, rest, anti-inflammatories
strengthening of scapular region
complete tears are surgically repaired

300
Q

mechanisms // clavicular fractures

A

falling onto an outstretched arm

direct blow to the clavicle

301
Q

s/s of clavicular fractures

A

pain
swelling
bruising

302
Q

most common type of shoulder dislocation

A

anterior dislocation

a fall to an outstretched arm

303
Q

s/s of a shoulder dislocation

A

pain in the shoulder
swelling
inability to move joint
bruising

304
Q

treatment // shoulder dislocation

A

calm athlete down
stabilize shoulder
call 911
assess circulation and sensation

305
Q

2 ways circulation can be assessed

A

color
temperature
capillary refill

306
Q

how many bones are in the foot

A

26

307
Q

medial malleolus is the distal head of the ____

A

tibia

308
Q

lateral malleolus is the distal head of the ____

A

fibula

309
Q

what is turf toe

A

stretching/ tearing of the ligaments in the great toe

310
Q

mechanism of turf toe

A

forceful hyperextension

311
Q

s/s of turf toe

A

pain
swelling
limited joint movement

312
Q

3 examples of NSAIDS

A

advil
motrin
aleve

313
Q

most common mechanism // lateral ankle sprain

A

inversion combined with plantarflexion

314
Q

mechanism of medial ankle sprain

A

eversion

pes plans increases risk

315
Q

s/s of 1st degree sprain

A

mild stretching of the ligaments
little loss of function, ROM, strength
no discoloration

316
Q

s/s of a 2nd degree sprain

A

moderate loss of function

etc

317
Q

s/s of a 3rd degree sprain

A

severe pain
swelling
tenderness

318
Q

what is an ankle dislocation

A

a separation of the tibia and fibula from the talus

319
Q

mechanisms of an ankle dislocation

A

foot is forced inward/ outward

foot is planted and lower leg is forcibly rotated internally

320
Q

treatment // ankle dislocation

A

immobilize and apply light pressure

possible open fracture

321
Q

mechanisms of achilles tendonitis

A

repetitive running and/ or jumping

322
Q

s/s of achilles tendonitis

A 
edema
tenderness
crepitus
pain w/ palpation
weakness w/ PF
323
Q

treatment of Achilles tendonitis

A

rest/ ice
NSAIDS
strengthening exercises

324
Q

mechanism of achilles tendon rupture

A

forced DF
blow to achilles
sudden, forceful contraction of gastrocnemius

325
Q

s/s of achilles tendon rupture

A

extreme pain
swelling
discoloration
loss or ability to PF

326
Q

treatment of achilles tendon rupture

A

surgery, non surgical treatments are okay too

327
Q

mechanism of a jones fracture

A

forceful contraction of peroneal muscles when foot is in inversion

328
Q

what is a stress fracture

A

tiny cracks in a bone caused by repetitive actions

329
Q

mechanism of stress fracture

A

overuse

330
Q

s/s of stress fracture

A 
typically seen in lower third of tibia
increased pain with activity
specific point tenderness
pain above and below injury site
night pain
331
Q

treatment of stress fracture

A

ice , rest
physical referral
sometimes surgery

332
Q

define avascular

A

area of the body that has poor blood supply

333
Q

mechanisms of shin splints

A 
pes planus
muscle imbalance/ weakness
improper/ incomplete warm-up
poor flexibility / lack of stretching
poor biomechanics
poor footwear
334
Q

s/s of shin splints

A

pain in the leg

tenderness and soreness

335
Q

what is anterior compartment syndrome

A

fluid build up within the compartments of lower leg

336
Q

what is plantar fascitis

A

pain and inflammation of the plantar fascia

337
Q

mechanism of plantar fascitis

A

overuse
overweight
pregnancy
improper footware

338
Q

s/s of plantar fascitis

A

pain on bottom of foot by heel thats worse w/ your 1st steps in the morning

339
Q

what is a heel spur

A

pointed bony outgrowth on the calcareous

caused by chronic inflmmation

340
Q

mechanisms of hip dislocation

A

caused by violent force

compression trauma or rotation trauma

341
Q

s/s of hip dislocation

A

severe pain in hip

leg in affected side apears

342
Q

treatment of hip dislocation

A

call 911

stabilize victim and treat for shock

343
Q

mechanism of hip pointer

A

blow to the illiac crest

344
Q

s/s of hip pointer

A

swelling
pain
decreased movement
point tenderness

345
Q

treatment of hip pointer

A

initially rest, ice, compression

346
Q

mechanisms // trochanteric bursitis

A

direct blow to greater trochanter

overuse

347
Q

mechanism of illiotibial band syndrome

A 
irrigation between the it band and the femoral ??
repetitive movement with tight it band
bow legs
pes planes
leg length discrepancy
348
Q

s/s of illiotibial band syndrome

A

stabbing/ stinging on outside
swelling
tightness

349
Q

s/s of strains

A 
possible swelling
pain
decreased movement
point tenderness
muscle spasm
350
Q

mechanism of femur fracture

A

usually violent

351
Q

s/s of femur fracture

A

shortened leg
severe pain
severe internal bleeding
possible shock

352
Q

mechanisms // hip muscle strains

A

sudden over stretching of the muscle

Sports Medicine (3 decks)

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