CFAS Flashcards

1
Q

3 process in the definition given by (AAA) American Accounting Association

A

Identifyng - analytical
Measuring - technical
Communicating - formal

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2
Q

Accounting is a service activity. The accounting function is to provide quantitative information, primarily financial in nature, about economic entities, that is intended to be useful in making economic decision.

A

Accounting Standards Council

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3
Q

CAT

Accounting is the art of ______________________ in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are in part at least of a financial character and _____ the results thereof.

A

recording, classifying and summarizing, interpreting

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4
Q

The 3 important points made in the definition of accounting:

A

It is a quantitative information
Financial in nature
Useful in decision making

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5
Q

This accounting process is the recognition or nonrecognition of business activities as “accountable” events.

A

Identifying

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6
Q

Are all business activities accountable?

A

No

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7
Q

An event is ______________ when it has an effect on assets, liabilities and equity.

A

accountable or quantifiable

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8
Q

Only ___________ are emphasized and recognized in accounting.

A

economic activities

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9
Q

______________ or exchange transactions are those economic events involving one entity and another entity.

A

External transactions

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10
Q

any sudden and unanticipated loss from fire, flood, earthquake and other event ordinarily termed as an act of God

A

Casualty

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11
Q

examples of internal transactions.

A

Production and Casualty

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12
Q

the accounting process of assigning of peso amounts to the accountable economic transactions and

A

Measuring

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13
Q

The measurement bases are

A

historical costa and current value

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14
Q

the original acquisition cost and the most common measure of financial transactions.

A

Historical Cost

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15
Q

the process of preparing and distributing accounting reports to potential users of accounting information

A

Communicating

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16
Q

the sorting or grouping of similar and interrelated economic transactions into their respective classes.

A

Classifying

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17
Q

the process of systematically maintaining a record of all economic business transactions after they have been identified and measured.

A

Recording

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18
Q

the preparation of financial statements which include the statement of financial position, income statement, statement of comprehensive income, statement of changes in equity and statement of cash flows.

A

Summarizing

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19
Q

Implicit in the communication process

A

Recording, classifying, and summarizing

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20
Q

is the body authorized by law to promulgate rules and regulations affecting the practice of the accountancy profession in the Philippines.

A

Board of Accountancy

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21
Q

This law is known as the Philippine Accountancy Act of 2004.

A

Republic Act No. 9298

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22
Q

Certified Public Accountants generally practice their profession in three main areas,

A

Public Accounting
Private Accounting
Government Accounting

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23
Q

Public accountants usually offer three kinds of services, namely

A

Auditing, Taxation and management advisory services

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24
Q

the examination of financial statements by independent certified public accountant for the purpose of expressing an opinion as to the fairness with which the financial statements are prepared.

A

Auditing

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25
Q

includes the preparation of annual income tax returns and determination of tax consequences of certain proposed business endeavors.

A

Taxation or Taxation Services

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26
Q

have become increasingly important in recent years although audit and tax services are undoubtedly the mainstay of public accountants.

A

Management advisory services

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27
Q

The highest accounting officer in an entity is known as the

A

CFO or Controller

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28
Q

encompasses the process of analyzing, classifying, summarizing and communicating all transactions involving the receipt and disposition of government funds and property and interpreting the results thereof.

A

Government Accounting

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29
Q

The focus of government accounting is the

A

custody and administration of public funds.

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30
Q

CPD meaning

A

Continuing Professional Development

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31
Q

required for thebrenewal of CPA license and accreditation of CPA to practice the accountancy profession.

A

CPD

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32
Q

How many CPD are required for accreditation of a CPA to practice the accountancy profession?

A

120 CPD credited units

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33
Q

How many CPD Units are needed for renewal of license

A

15 CPD credited units

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34
Q

A CPA shall be permanently exempted from CPDvrequirements upon reaching the age of __ years.

A

65

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35
Q

refers to the profession of accounting practice.

A

Accountancy

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36
Q

used in reference only to a particular field of accountancy such as public accounting, private accounting and government accounting.

A

Accounting

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37
Q

is procedural and largely concerned with development and maintenance of accounting records.

A

Bookkeeping

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38
Q

primarily concerned with the recording of business transactions and the eventual preparation of financial statements.

A

Financial Accounting

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39
Q

focuses on general purpose reports
known as financial statements intended for internal and external users.

A

Financial Accounting

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40
Q

is the accumulation and preparation of financial reports for internal users only.

A

Managerial Accounting

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41
Q

represent the rules, procedures, practice and standards followed in the preparation and presentation of financial statements.

A

Generally accepted accounting principles

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42
Q

Replacement of Accounting Standards Council

A

Financial Reporting Standards Council or FRSC

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43
Q

The main function is to establish and improve accounting standards that will be generally accepted in the Philippines.

A

FRSC

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44
Q

The approved statements of the FRSC are known as

A

Philippine Accounting Standards or PAS and Philippine Financial Reporting Standards or PFRS.

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45
Q

The Financial Reporting Standards Council issues standards in a series of pronouncements called

A

Philippine Financial Reporting Standards or PFRS.

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46
Q

CPA’s are licensed by

A

PICPA

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47
Q

Accounting standard-setting has been characterized as

A

A political process

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48
Q

What is the standard-setting body in the Philippines at the present time?

A

Financial Reporting Standards Council

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49
Q

Accountants employed in entities in various capacity as accounting staff, chief accountant or controller are said to be engaged in

A

Private Accounting

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50
Q

The primary responsibility for properly applying GAAP lies with

A

Internal Auditor

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51
Q

The Conceptual Framework provides the foundation for Standards that: 3

A

Contribute to transparency
Contribute to economic efficiency
Strengthen accountability

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52
Q

In the absence of a standard or an interpretation that specifically applies to a transaction, management shall consider the applicability of the

A

Conceptual Framework

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53
Q

include the existing and potential investors, lenders and other creditors.

A

Primary users

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54
Q

include the employees, customers, governments and their agencies, and the public.

A

Other users

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55
Q

Users of Financial information

A

Primary users
Other users

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56
Q

financial information are the parties to whom general purpose financial reports are primarily directed

A

Primary users

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57
Q

users of financial information other than the existing and potential investors, lenders and other creditors

A

other users

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58
Q

information about the entity’s economic resources and the claims against the reporting entity.

A

Financial position

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59
Q

the assets and the claims are the liabilities and equity of the entity

A

Economic resources

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60
Q

is the availability of cash in the near future to cover currently maturing obligations.

A

Liquidity

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61
Q

is the availability of cash over a long term to meet financial commitments when they fall due.

A

Solvency

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62
Q

means that income is recognized when earned regardless of when received and expense is recognized when incurred regardless of when paid.

A

Accrual Accounting

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63
Q

The underlying theme of the Conceptual Framework is

A

Decision Usefulness

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64
Q

These users require information on risk and return provided by their investment.

A

Investors

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65
Q

These users are interested in information about the continuance of an entity, especially when they have a long-term involvement with or are dependent on the entity.

A

Customers

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66
Q

These users are interested in information about the profitability and stability of the entity in order to assess the ability of entity to provide remuneration, retirement benefits and employment opportunities.

A

Employees

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67
Q

These users are interested in information that enables them to assess whether their loans,the related interest thereon, and other amounts owing to them will be paid when due.

A

Lenders or Creditors

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68
Q

These users are interested in information in order to regulate the activities of an entity, determine taxation policies and provide a basis for national statistics.

A

Government and its agencies

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69
Q

These users need information on trends and recent developments where an entity makes a substantial contribution to the local economy providing employment and using local suppliers.

A

The public

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70
Q

The overall objective of financial reporting is to provide information

A

that is useful in decision making

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71
Q

The primary objective of financial reporting is to provide useful information to

A

Capital Providers

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72
Q

are the qualities or attributes that make financial accounting information useful to the users.

A

Qualitative Characteristics

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73
Q

The fundamental qualitative characteristics are

A

Relevance and Faithful representation

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74
Q

relate to the content or substance of financial information.

A

The fundamental qualitative characteristics

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75
Q

the capacity of the information to influence a decision.

A

Relevance

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76
Q

Financial information has _______ if it can be used as an input to processes employed by users to predict future outcome.

A

Predictive Value

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77
Q

financial information has predictive value when it can help users increase the likelihood of correctly or accurately predicting or

A

forecasting outcome of events.

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78
Q

Financial information is capable of making a difference in a decision if it has

A

Predictive Value and Confirmatory Value

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79
Q

means that the information provides feedback on previous evaluations

A

Confirmatory Value

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80
Q

is a practical rule in accounting which dictates that strict adherence to GAAP is not required when the items are not significant enough to affect the evaluation, decision and fairness of the financial statements.

A

Materiality

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81
Q

The materiality concept is also known as the

A

doctrine of convenience

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82
Q

The relevance of information is affected by its

A

nature and materiality

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83
Q

Materiality of an item depends on ______ rather than absolute size.

A

Relative size

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84
Q

an item is ______ if knowledge of it could reasonably affect or influence the economic decision of the primary users of the financial statements.

A

material

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85
Q

means the presentation of financial information not readily understood or not clearly expressed.

A

Obscuring Information

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86
Q

may be characterized by deliberate vagueness, ambiguity and abstruseness.

A

Obscuring Information

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87
Q

3 Ingredients of faithful representation

A

a Completeness
b. Neutrality
c. Free from error

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88
Q

means that financial reports represent economic phenomena or transactions in words and numbers.

A

Faithful Representation

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89
Q

means that the actual effects of the transactions shall be properly accounted for and reported in the financial statements.

A

Faithful Representation

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90
Q

requires that relevant information should be presented in a way that facilitates understanding and avoids erroneous implication.

A

Completeness

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91
Q

Actually, to be complete, the financial statements shall be accompanied by

A

notes to financial statements

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92
Q

depiction is without bias in the preparation or presentation of financial information.

A

Neutral

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93
Q

means that all significant and relevant information leading to the preparation of financial statements shall be clearly reported.

A

Adequate disclosure

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94
Q

Neutrality is synonymous with the all-encompassing

A

Principle of Fairness

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95
Q

is the exercise of care and caution when dealing with the uncertainties in the measurement process such that assets or income are not overstated and liabilities or expenses are not understated.

A

Prudence

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96
Q

Neutrality is supported by the exercise of

A

prudence

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97
Q

synonymous with prudence.

A

Prudence

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98
Q

means “in case of doubt, record any loss and do not record any gain.”

A

Conservatism

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99
Q

arises when monetary amounts in financial reports cannot be observed directly and must instead be estimated.

A

Measurement Uncertainty

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100
Q

can affect faithful representation if the level of uncertainty in providing an estimate is high.

A

Measurement Uncertainty

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101
Q

means there are no errors or omissions in the description of the phenomenon or transaction.

A

Free from error

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102
Q

If information is to represent faithfully the transactions and other events it purports to represent, it is necessary that the transactions and events are accounted in accordance with their substance and not merely their legal form.

A

Substance over form

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103
Q

The enhancing qualitative characteristics are: 4

A

comparability, understandability, verifiability and timeliness.

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104
Q

means the ability to bring together for the purpose of noting points of likeness and difference.

A

Comparability

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105
Q

may be made within an entity or between and across entities.

A

Comparability

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106
Q

Comparability within an entity is also known as

A

horizontal comparability or intracomparability.

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107
Q

Comparability across entities is also known as

A

intercomparability or dimensional comparability.

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108
Q

is the uniform application of accounting method from period to period within an entity.

A

Consistency

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109
Q

is the uniform application of accounting method between and across entities in the same industry.

A

Comparability

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110
Q

requires that financial information must be comprehensible or intelligible if it is to be most useful.

A

Understandability

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111
Q

means verifying an amount or other representation through direct observation, for example, by counting cash.

A

Direct Verification

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112
Q

means checking the inputs to a model, formula or other technique and recalculating the inputs using the same methodology.

A

Indirect Verification

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113
Q

means that different knowledgeable and independent observers could reach consensus, although not necessarily complete agreement, that a particular depiction is a faithful representation.

A

Verifiability

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114
Q

Verifiability implies

A

Consensus

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115
Q

means that financial information must be available or communicated early enough when a decision is to be made.

A

Timeliness

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116
Q

enhances the truism that without knowledge of the past, the basis for prediction will usually be lacking and without interest in the future, knowledge of the past is sterile.

A

Timeliness

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117
Q

is a pervasive constraint on the information that can be provided by financial reporting.

A

Cost

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118
Q

The ingredients of relevant financial information are

A

Predictive Value and Confirmatory Value

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119
Q

What is the quality of information that gives assurance that it is reasonably free of error and bias?

A

Faithful representation

120
Q

The financial accounting information is directed toward the common needs of users and is independent of presumptions about particular needs and desires of specific users

A

Neutrality

121
Q

In the event of conflict between the economic substance of a transaction and the legal form, the economic substance shall prevail

A

Substance over form

122
Q

Which concept of accounting holds that, to the maximum extent possible, financial statements shall be based on arm’s length transactions?

A

Monetary Unit

123
Q

Recognizing expected losses immediately but deferring expected gains is an example of

A

Conservatism

124
Q

Which of the following relates to both relevance and faithful representation?

A

Comparability

125
Q

Principle of objectivity includes concept of

A

Verifiability

126
Q

entity, claims against the entity and changes in the economic resources and claims.

A

Financial Statements

127
Q

are the financial statements prepared when the reporting entity comprises both the parent and its subsidiaries.

A

Consolidated Financial Statements

128
Q

are the financial statements when the reporting entity comprises two or more entities that are not linked by a parent and subsidiary relationship.

A

Combined Financial Statements

129
Q

are the financial statements prepared when the reporting entity is the parent alone.

A

Unconsolidated Financial Statements

130
Q

provide information about the assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses of both the parent and its subsidiaries as a single reporting entity.

A

Consolidated Financial Statements

131
Q

is the entity that exercises control over the subsidiaries.

A

The parent

132
Q

are designed to provide information about the parent’s assets, liabilities, income and expenses and not about those of the subsidiaries.

A

Unconsolidated Financial Statements

133
Q

is an entity that is required or chooses to prepare financial statements.

A

Reporting entity

134
Q

A reporting entity is not necessarily a

A

legal entity

135
Q

is the period when financial statements are prepared for general purpose financial reporting.

A

Reporting Period

136
Q

means that in the absence of evidence to the contrary, the accounting entity is viewed as continuing in operation indefinitely.

A

Going Concern Assumption

137
Q

requires that the indefinite life of an entity is subdivided into accounting periods which are usually of equal length for the purpose of preparing financial reports on financial position, performance and cash flows.

A

Time period principle

138
Q

is a twelve-month period that ends on December 31.

A

Calendar year

139
Q

is a twelve-month period that ends on any month when the business is at the lowest or experiencing slack season.

A

Natural business year

140
Q

The monetary unit assumption has two aspects

A

quantifiability and stability of the peso

141
Q

means that the assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses should be stated in terms of a unit of measure which is the peso in the Philippines.

A

Quantifiability

142
Q

assumption means that the purchasing power of the peso is stable or constant and that its instability is insignificant and therefore may be ignored.

A

Stability of peso

143
Q

the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all of the habilities.

A

Equity

144
Q

Obligations can either be

A

legal or constructive

145
Q

arise from normal business practice, custom and a desire to maintain good business relations or act in an equitable manner.

A

Constructive Obligations

146
Q

arises in the course of the ordinary regular activities and is referred to by variety of different names including sales, fees, interest, dividends, royalties and rent.

A

Revenue

147
Q

represent other items that meet the definition of income and do not arise in the course of the ordinary regular activities.

A

Gains

148
Q

The essence of revenue is

A

regularity

149
Q

is defined as decreases in assets or increases in liabilities that result in decreases in equity, other than those relating to distributions to equity holders.

A

Expense

150
Q

encompass losses as well as those expenses that arise in the course of the ordinary regular activities.

A

Expense

151
Q

do not arise in the course of the ordinary regular activities and include losses resulting from disasters.

A

Loses

152
Q

gain resulting from the sale of an asset in an arm’s length transaction.

A

Income

153
Q

can be an effective communication tool about the information in financial statements.

A

presentation and disclosure

154
Q

is the adding together of assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses that have similar or shared characteristics and are included in the same classification.

A

Aggregation

155
Q

primary source of information about an entity’s financial performance for the reporting period.

A

Income Statement

156
Q

is the monetary amount of the net assets contributed by shareholders and the amount of the increase in net assets resulting from earnings retained by the entity.

A

Financial Capital

157
Q

is the traditional concept based on historical cost and adopted by most entities.

A

Financial Capital

158
Q

is an erosion of the capital invested in the entity.

A

Return of Capital

159
Q

means that net income occurs only after the capital used from the beginning of the period is maintained.

A

Capital Maintenance Approach

160
Q

is the quantitative measure of the physical productive capacity to produce goods and services.

A

Physical Capital

161
Q

Accordingly, physical capital is equal to the net assets of the entity expressed in terms of

A

current cost

162
Q

_____ assets include inventories and property, plant and equipment.

A

Productive

163
Q

In physical capital productive assets are measured in _____

A

current cost

164
Q

What is the accounting concept that justifies the usage of accruals and deferrals?

A

Going Concern

165
Q

When a parent and subsidiary relationship exists, consolidated financial statements are prepared in recognition of

A

Economic Entity

166
Q

The valuation of a promise to receive cash in the future at present value is valid because of what accounting concept?

A

Going Concern

167
Q

Accounting for government grant and disclosure of government assistance

A

PAS 20

168
Q

Employee benefits

A

PAS 19

169
Q

Property, plant and equipment

A

PAS 16

170
Q

Income taxes

A

PAS 12

171
Q

Events after the reporting period

A

PAS 10

172
Q

Accounting policies, changes in accounting estimate and errors

A

PAS 8

173
Q

Statement of cash flows

A

PAS 7

174
Q

Inventories

A

PAS 2

175
Q

Presentation of financial statements

A

PAS 1

176
Q

The elements directly related to the measurement of financial position are:

A

a. Asset
b. Liability
c. Equity

177
Q

The elements directly related to the measurement of financial performance are:

A

Income
Expense

178
Q

Which is not within the new definition of an asset?

a. An asset is a present economic resource.
b. The economic resource is a right that has potential to produce economic benefit.
c. The economic resource is controlled by the entity as a result of past event.
d. Future economic benefit is expected to flow to the entity.

A

D

179
Q

Which of the following criteria need not be satisfied for a liability to exist?

a. The entity has an obligation.
b. The obligation is to transfer an economic resource.
c. The obligation is a present obligation that exists as a result of a past event.
d. The settlement is expected to result in an outflow of economic benefit.

A

D

180
Q

Rights that have the potential to produce economic benefits and correspond to an obligation of another entity include all, except

a. Right to receive cash
b. Right to receive goods
c. Right to exchange economic resources with another entity on favorable terms
d. Right over property, plant and equipment

A

D

181
Q

An economic resource could produce economic benefit if an entity is entitled to all, except

a. To receive contractual cash flows b. To exchange economic resources with another entity on unfavorable terms
c. To receive cash by selling the economic resource
d. To extinguish a liability by transferring an economic resource

A

B

182
Q

Obligations to transfer an economic resource include all, except

a. Obligation to pay cash
b. Obligation to deliver goods
c. Obligation to provide services
d. Obligation to transfer an economic resource even specified future event does not occur

A

D

183
Q

It is the present ability to direct the use of an economic resource and obtain the benefit that may flow from it.

a. Control
b. Legal right
c. Obligation
d. Ownership

A

A

184
Q

A decrease in an asset arising from peripheral or incidental transaction is called

A

Loss

185
Q

An outflow of asset based on an activity that represents the major operations is called

A

Expense

186
Q

What is the primary distinction between revenue and gain?

a. The materiality of the amount
b. The likelihood that the transaction will recur
c. The nature of the activity that gives rise to the transaction
d. The method of disclosing the transaction

A

C

187
Q

Only items that meet the definition of an asset, a liability or equity are recognized in the statement of financial position.

A

Recognition

188
Q

A principle means that expenses are
recognized when incurred.

A

Expense Recognition

189
Q

The basic principle of _______ is that income shall

be recognized when earned

A

income recognition
or point of sale recognition

190
Q

The _________ requires that those costs and expenses incurred in earning a revenue shall be reported in the same period.

A

matching principle

191
Q

The matching principle has three applications, namely:

A

a. Cause and effect association
b. Systematic and rational allocation c. Immediate recognition

192
Q

Under the _________, the expense is recognized when the revenue is already recognized.

A

cause and effect association

193
Q

The cause and effect association principle is actually the ________

A

strict matching concept.

194
Q

Under ___________ some costs are expensed by simply allocating them over the periods benefited

A

systematic and rational allocation,

195
Q

is defined as the removal of all or part of a recognized asset or liability from the statement of financial position.

A

Derecognition

196
Q

is defined as quantifying in monetary terms the elements in the financial statements.

A

Measurement

197
Q

Measurement
The Revised Conceptual Framework mentions twoeasurement

A

Historical Cost
Current Value

198
Q

Current value includes:

A

a. Fair value
b. Value in use for asset
c. Fulfillment value for liability
d. Current cost

199
Q

the price that would be received to sell an asset in an orderly transaction between market participants at measurement date.

A

Fair Value

200
Q

is the present value of the cash flows that an entity expects to derive from the use of an asset and from the ultimate disposal.

A

Value in Use

201
Q

is the present value of cash that an entity expects to transfer in paying or settling a liability.

A

Fulfillment Value

202
Q

is the cost of an equivalent asset at the measurement date comprising the consideration paid and transaction cost.

A

Current cost of an asset

203
Q

is the consideration that would be received less any transaction cost at measurement date.

A

Current cost of a liability

204
Q

is the measurement basis most commonly adopted in preparing financial statements..

A

Historical Cost

205
Q

A cause and effect relationship is implicit in the

A

Matching Principle

206
Q

are the means by which the information accumulated and processed in financial accounting is periodically communicated to the users.

A

Financial Statements

207
Q

is the time between the acquisition of assets and their realization in cash.

A

Operating Cycle

208
Q

an entity shall classify all other assets not classified as current as noncurrent.

A

PAS 1, paragraph 66,

209
Q

is simply defined as an identifiable nonmonetary asset without physical substance.

A

Intangible assets

210
Q

The common examples of identifiable intangible assets include

A

patent, franchise, copyright, lease right, trademark and computer software.

211
Q

An example of an unidentifiable intangible asset is

A

goodwill

212
Q

are actually restrictions on the borrower as to undertaking further borrowings, paying dividends. maintaining specified level of working capital and so forth.

A

Covenants

213
Q

is the residual interest of owners in the net assets of a corporation measured by the excess of assets over liabilities.

A

Shareholders’ equity

214
Q

provide narrative description or disaggregation of items presented in the financial statements and information about items that do not qualify for recognition.

A

Notes to financial statements

215
Q

are used to report information that does not fit into the body of the financial statements in order to enhance the understandability of the financial statements.

A

Notes to financial statements

216
Q

is to provide the necessary disclosures required by Philippine Financial Reporting Standards.

A

Notes to financial statements

217
Q

Forms of Financial Statements

A

Report Form
Account Form

218
Q

The financial performance is also known as the

A

Results of Operations

219
Q

constitute costs which are directly related to selling, advertising and delivery of goods to customers.

A

Distribution Cost

220
Q

constitute cost of administering the business.

A

Administrative expenses

221
Q

No More extraordinary items

A

PAS paragraph 87

222
Q

Non-current asset is a ___ definition

A

residual

223
Q

Current liabilities

A

PAS 1 paragraph 69

224
Q

The ________ classifies expenses according to their function as part of cost of goods sold, distribution costs, administrative expenses and other expenses

A

functional presentation

225
Q

is also known as the cost of goods sold method

A

functional presentation

226
Q

Forms of IS

A

Functional Presentation
Natural Presentation

227
Q

is referred to as the nature of expense method

A

Natural Presentation

228
Q

the change in equity during a period resulting from transactions and other events, other than changes resulting from transactions with owners in their capacity as owners.

A

Comprehensive Income

229
Q

are the cash flows derived primarily from the principal revenue producing activities of the entity.

A

Operating Activities

230
Q

are the cash flows derived from the acquisition and disposal of long-term assets and other investments not included in cash equivalent.

A

Investing Activities

231
Q

are the cash flows derived from the equity capital and borrowings of the entity.

A

Financing Activities

232
Q

Statement of Cash flow is strictly a ____ concept

A

Cash

233
Q

may be classified as financing cash flow because it is a cost of obtaining financial resources.

A

Interest Paid

234
Q

may be classified as investing cash flow because it is a return on investment.

A

Interested Received

235
Q

shall be classified as operating cash flow because it enters into the determination of net income.

A

Dividend Received

236
Q

be classified as financing cash flow because it is a cost of obtaining financial resources.

A

Dividend Paid

237
Q

are the specific principles, bases, conventions, rules and practices applied by an entity in preparing and presenting financial statements.

A

Accounting Policies

238
Q

means that any resulting adjustment from the change in accounting policy shall be reported as an adjustment to the opening balance of retained earnings.

A

Retrospective Application

239
Q

are omissions and misstatements in the financial statements for one or more periods arising from a failure to use or misuse of reliable information.

A

Prior Period Errors

240
Q

as those events, whether favorable or unfavorable, that occur between the end of reporting period and the date on which the financial statements are authorized for issue.

A

events after the reporting period

241
Q

Types of events after the reporting period

A

Adjusting Events
Nonadjusting events

242
Q

Types of events after the reporting period

after the reporting period are those that provide evidence of conditions that exist at the end of reporting period.

A

Adjusting Events

243
Q

Types of events after the reporting period

after reporting period are those that are indicative of conditions that arise after the end of reporting period.

A

Nonadjusting Events

244
Q

when the board of directors reviews the financial statements and authorizes them issue.

A

Financial statements are authorized for issue

245
Q

is ownership directly or indirectly through subsidiaries of more than half of the voting power of an entity

A

Control

246
Q

is the contractually agreed sharing of control over an economic activity.

A

Joint Control

247
Q

Examples of Related Parties

A

Affiliates
Associates
Venturers

248
Q

meaning the parent, the subsidiary and fellow subsidiaries.

A

Affiliates

249
Q

If an investor owns more than 50% of an investee, the investor is known as

A

Parent

250
Q

If an investor owns more than 50% of an investee, the imvestee is known as

A

Subsidiary

251
Q

meaning the entities over which one party exercises significant influence.

A

Associates

252
Q

If an investor owns at least 20% of the investee, the investee is known as

A

Associates

253
Q

The term “____” includes the subsidiary or subsidiaries of the associate.

A

Associate

254
Q

are the persons with managerial positions, like the president, vice-president, chief executive officer and other officers with responsibility of controlling the activities of entity.

A

The key management personnel

255
Q

a. The individual’s spouse and children
b. Children of the individual’s spouse
c. Dependents of the individual or the individual’s spouse

A

Close family members of key management personnel

256
Q

owning at least 20% of the reporting entity.

A

Individuals oe shareholders

257
Q

is a transfer of resources or obligations between related parties, regardless of whether a price is charged.

A

Related party transaction

258
Q

PAS 24, paragraph 12, requires ______________ relationships where control exists irrespective of whether there have been transactions between the related parties.

A

disclosure of related party

259
Q

shall comprise cost of purchase, cost of conversion and other cost incurred in bringing the inventories to their present location and condition.

A

Cost of inventories

260
Q

are assets held for sale in the ordinary course of business, in the process of production for such sale or in the form of materials or supplies to be consumed in the production process or in the rendering of services.

A

Inventories

261
Q

The _____ of inventories includes cost directly related to the units of production such as direct labor.

A

Cost of conversion

262
Q

means that specific costs are attributed to identified items of inventory.

A

Specific Identification

263
Q

PAS 2, paragraph 9, provides that inventories shall be measured at the lower of

A

cost and nrv

264
Q

The cost of inventory is determined using either

A

FIFO cost
Average cost

265
Q

the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less the estimated cost of completion and the estimated cost of disposal.

A

Net realizable value or NRV

266
Q

The write down of inventory to net realizable value is accounted for using the

A

Allowance Method

267
Q

PPE initial measurement

A

Cost

268
Q

Major characteristic of PPE

A

Tangible Asset
Used in business
More than one year

269
Q

means that property, plant and equipment are carried at cost less any accumulated depreciation and any accumulated impairment loss.

A

Cost model

270
Q

means that property, plant and equipment are carried at revalued carrying amount.

A

Revaluation model

271
Q

the fair value at the date of revaluation less any subsequent accumulated depreciation and subsequent accumulated impairment loss.

A

revalued carrying amount

272
Q

as assistance by government in the form of transfer of resources to an entity in return for part or future compliance with certain conditions relating to the operating activities of the entity.

A

Government Grant

273
Q

is action by government designed to provide an economic benefit specific to an entity or range of entities qualifying under certain criteria

A

Government Assistance

274
Q

Intangible Assets

A

PAS 38

275
Q

Impairment of Assets

A

PAS 36

276
Q

Investment in Associates

A

PAS 28

277
Q

Borrowing Cost

A

PAS 23

278
Q

Related Party Disclosure

A

PAS 24

279
Q

is an asset that necessarily takes a substantial period of time to get ready for the intended use or sale.

A

Qualifying Asset

280
Q

defined as interest and other costs that an entity incurs in connection with borrowing of funds.

A

Borrowing Cost

281
Q

PAS 23 requires that borrowing costs incurred in connection with acquisition of a qualifying asset should be

A

capitalized as cost of the qualifying asset.

282
Q

Capitalization of borrowing costs shall cease when substantially all the activities necessary to prepare the qualifying asset for the intended use or sale are

A

Complete

283
Q

is simply defined as an entity over which the investor has significant influence.

A

Associate

284
Q

is the power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of the associate but not control or joint control over those policies.

A

Significance influence

285
Q

The investment in associate is measured using the

A

equity method of accounting

286
Q

If the carrying amount of an asset is higher than the recoverable amount, the asset is judged to have suffered an

A

impairment loss

287
Q

is an incremental cost directly attributable to the disposal of an asset, excluding finance cost and income tax expense.

A

Cost of disposal

288
Q

is the smallest identifiable group of assets that generate cash inflows from continuing use that are largely independent of the cash inflows from other assets or group of assets

A

Cash generating unit

289
Q

Future economic benefits may include

A

Revenue
Cost Savings

290
Q

is the systematic allocation of the amortizable amount of an intangible asset over the useful life.

A

Amortization

291
Q

cost of the intangible asset less residual value.

A

Amortizable Amount

292
Q

The useful life of an intangible asset must be assessed as either

A

indefinite and definite

293
Q

The useful life of an intangible asset is ______ when there is no foreseeable limit to the period over which the asset is expected to generate net cash flows.

A

indefinite

294
Q

is the application of research findings or other knowledge to a plan or design for the production of new or substantially improved material, device, product, process, system or service, prior to the commencement of commercial production.

A

Development

295
Q

is original and planned investigation undertaken with the prospect of gaining scientific or technical knowledge and understanding.

A

Research

296
Q

expenditure on research or on the research phase of an internal project shall be recognized as expense when

A

incurred