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PHYSL 210A - Hannah’s Version > Central Nervous System > Flashcards

Central Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between the CNS and PNS?

A

CNS is composed of the brain and spinal cord; PNS consists of nerves that connect the CNS to peripheral structures

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2
Q

Describe Neurons

A

Functional units of the nervous system which generates electrical signals (action potentials)

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3
Q

Describe Glial cells

A

Non-neuronal cells that support neurons generate nerve impulses (they do not themselves)

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4
Q

Where are interneurons found?

A

Entirely in the CNS

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4
Q

What type of neuron accounts for >99% of total neurons?

A

Interneurons; the neurons that connect the afferent and efferent

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5
Q

What are the four types of glial cells in the CNS?

A
  1. Astrocytes
  2. Oligodendrocytes
  3. Ependymal cells
  4. Microglia
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6
Q

What participates in the formation of myelin sheaths for the axons in the CNS?

A

Oligodenodrocytes

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7
Q

What are the three types of glial cells in the PNS?

A
  1. Schwann cells
  2. Satellite cells
  3. Enteric glia
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8
Q

What participates in the formation of myelin sheaths for the axons in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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9
Q

Where is the frontal lobe found?

A

Where the forehead is

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10
Q

Where is the parietal lobe found?

A

Behind the frontal lobe, on the upper half of the brain

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11
Q

Where is the temporal lobe found?

A

Below the frontal and parietal lobes; the lower half of the brain

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12
Q

Where is the occipital lobe found?

A

Lower, back portion of the brain; behind the temporal and (also below) the parietal

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13
Q

Where is the cerebellum?

A

Below the temporal and occiptal lobes; in the base of the skull

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14
Q

Where is the medulla oblongata?

A

Long structure in front of the Cerebellum and below the Pons and Temporal Lobe

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15
Q

Where is the Pons?

A

Between the Temporal Lobe, Cerebellum, and the Medulla Oblongata

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16
Q

What is the coronal plane?

A

Splitting the brain into a back and front

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17
Q

What is the Horizontal plane?

A

Splitting the brain into a top and bottom

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18
Q

What is the sagittal plane?

A

Splitting the brain into a left and right

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19
Q

What is the difference between the anterior and posterior?

A

Anterior is the front, posterior is the back

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20
Q

What is the difference between rostral and caudal?

A

Rostral is towards the head (longitudinal axis of the forebrain), Caudal is towards the tail (longitudinal axis of the brainstem and spinal cord)

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21
Q

What is the difference between dorsal and ventral?

A

Dorsal is the top, ventral is the bottom

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22
Q

What structures are found in the sagittal section of the forebrain?

A
  • Cerebrum
  • Diencephalon
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23
Q

What structures are found in the sagittal section of the midbrain?

A
  • Midbrain
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24
Q

What structures are found in the sagittal section of the hindbrain?

A
  • Cerebellum
  • Pons
  • Medulla Oblongata
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25
Q

What is the difference between the forebrain, midbrain, and the hindbrain?

A
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26
Q

What structures are found within the diencephalon?

A
  • Thalamus
  • Pineal gland
  • Hypothalamus
  • Pituitary gland
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27
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Integrating center and relay station for sensory and motor information

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28
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A

Melatonin secretion

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29
Q

What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

A
  • Homeostasis
  • Behavioral drives
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30
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A

Hormone secretion

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31
Q

What are the structures within the brain stem?

A
  • Thalamus
  • Optic nerve
  • Midbrain
  • Pons
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Reticular formation
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32
Q

Where is the thalamus found?

A

On top of the midbrain

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33
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

Eye movement

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34
Q

What are the functions of the Pons?

A
  • Relay station between cerebrum and cerebellum
  • Coordination of breathing
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35
Q

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?

A

Control of involuntary functions

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36
Q

What are the functions of the reticular formation?

A
  • Arousal
  • Sleep
  • Muscle tone
  • Pain modulation
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37
Q

What is gray matter composed of?

A

Cell bodies (which gives the area a gray appearance)

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38
Q

Why is grey matter grey?

A

It lacks relatively few myelinated axons, whereas white matter has more myelinated axons

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39
Q

What is white matter composed of?

A

Tracts of myelinated axons

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40
Q

What are the structures (9) of the limbic system?

A
  • Thalamus
  • Pineal gland
  • Hippocampus
  • Cerebellum
  • Amygdala
  • Pituitary gland
  • Hypothalamus
  • Cerebrum
  • Basal ganglia
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41
Q

What are the structures of the limbic system associated with?

A
  • Learning/memory
  • Emotion
  • Visceral function (Appetite)
  • Sex
  • Endocrine function
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42
Q

What is the function of the cerebral cortex?

A

Participates in perception, generation of skilled movements, and cognitive functions (reasoning, learning, and memory)

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43
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Participate in the initiation of movement and coordination of skeletal muscle activity

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44
Q

What are the functiosn of the thalamus?

A

Acts as a synaptic relay station for sensory pathways on their way to the cerebral cortex; also participates in control of skeletal muscle coordination, and has a key function in awareness

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45
Q

What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

A
  • HOMEOSTASIS
  • Participate in temperature control, water balance, eating and drinking behavior, and emotional behavior, also regulates the reproductive system and circadian rhythms
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46
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A

Coordinates movements, such as eye movement and those for posture and balance. Participates in some forms of learning.

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47
Q

What are the functions of the brain stem (4)?

A
  1. Cardiovascular, respiratory, disgestive control
  2. Sleep/wake cycle, arousal
  3. Balance and posture
  4. Locomotor initiating centre
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48
Q

What are the functions of the spinal cord?

A

Locomotor pattern generator (producing rhythmic movements), spinal reflexes

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49
Q

What are the four protective elements associated with the CNS?

A
  1. Bone
  2. Meninges
  3. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  4. Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)
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50
Q

Which bones are protectice elements with the CNS?

A
  • Skull for the brain
  • Vertebrae for the spinal cord
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51
Q

What are the layers of the meninges?

A
  • Dura Mater
  • Arachnoid mater
  • Pia mater
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52
Q

How does the CSF protect the CNS?

A

It cushions the structures (between the skull/meninges, and the brain)

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53
Q

How does the BBB protect the CNS?

A

Helps maintain a stable environment for the brain; it controls the types of substances that enter the brain extracellular fluid and the rates at which they enter

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54
Q

Define

CSF

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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55
Q

Define

BBB

A

Blood-Brain Barrier

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56
Q

How many spinal nerves convey signals to and from the spinal cord?

A

31

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57
Q

What is the breakdown of the 31 spinal nerves?

A
  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccygeal
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58
Q

In what order are the sections of the spine?

A

Cervical to thoracic to lumbar to sacrum to coccyx (tailbone)

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59
Q

Define

Dermatome

A

areas of skin on your body that rely on specific nerve connections on your spine

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60
Q

Define

Myotome

A

areas of muscles in your body that rely on specific nerve connections on your spine

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61
Q

What dermatomes are the cervical vertebraes responsible for?

A

Head, neck, shoulders, arm, hand

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62
Q

What dermatomes are the thoracic vertebraes responsible for?

A

Trunk

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63
Q

What dermatomes are the lumbar vertebraes responsible for?

A

Waist, front of legs, feet

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64
Q

What dermatomes are the sacral vertebraes and coccygeal responsible for?

A

Buttocks, genitals, anus, back of legs, feet

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65
Q

How are vertebraes named?

A

Letter for their second and number for descending order

ex. C5; the 5th vertebrae in the cervical section of the spine

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66
Q

What does the dorsal root do?

A

Send sensory information from the body to the brain

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67
Q

What does the ventral root do?

A

Send motor commands from the brain to the body

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68
Q

What are the functions of the spinal cord?

A
  • Send info from the body to the brain (dorsal root)
  • Send commands from brain to the body
  • Coordinate reflexes (acting without signals from the brain)
  • Contains central pattern generators that control rhytmic movements (walking, flying, swallowing etc.)
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69
Q

How do afferent neuron axons enter the spinal cord?

A

Enter on the dorsal side of the cord via the dorsal roots

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70
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the afferent neurons?

A

In the dorsal root ganglia

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71
Q

How do efferent neuron axons exit the spinal cord?

A

They leave through the spinal cord on the ventral side via the ventral roots

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72
Q

What is a spinal reflex?

A

Where the spinal cord initiates a response without input from the brain

73
Q

What is the detailed explanation for where information goes in a spinal reflex?

A

Sensory information enters the spinal cord and it acts without input from the brain. However, sensory information about the stimulus may be sent to the brain.

74
Q

What is the path in a spinal reflex?

A

A stimulus occurs, which is translated into sensory information. This info travels via an interneuron to the integrating center which sends a command to muscles or glands, which results in a response.

75
Q

How do spinal cord injuries work, in terms of what control/functions are lost?

A

When spinal cord is damaged at a given level, sensation from and the motor control of functions below that level are likely to be abnormal.

76
Q

What is Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

A

An injury in one side of the spinal cord (left or right)

77
Q

What are the three specializations of the brain from a functional viewpoint?

A
  1. Sensory areas
  2. Motor areas
  3. Association areas (integrate information from sensory and motor areas)
78
Q

What are the association areas of the brain (5)?

A
  1. Motor association area
  2. Sensory association area
  3. Visual association area
  4. Auditory association area
  5. Prefrontal association area
79
Q

How does sensory information travels to the brain?

A
  • From the body to the brain: along ascending pathways in the spinal cord
  • From head to the brain: via cranial nerves
80
Q

What sensory information does not reach the brain?

A
  • Visceral reflexes are integrated in brainstem or spin cord
    They usually do not reach concious perception (e.g., control of blood pressure)
81
Q

What happens to sensory information after going to the primary receiving areas?

A

It continues to association areas for futher complex processing/integration

82
Q

What sensory pathway does not synpase in the thalamus?

A

Olfactory; it first goes to the olfactory bulb

83
Q

What are ascending pathways?

A
  • Also called afferent pathways
  • send somatosensory information from the body up to the brain through a series of afferent nerves
84
Q

What are somatic senses?

A

senses that have to do with the experience of touch

85
Q

What are somatosensory pathways?

A

Pathways that relay information between the brain and nerves in the skin and organs

86
Q

What are the example of the somatic senses?

A
  1. Touch
  2. Proprioception/Kinesthesia
  3. Temperature
  4. Nociception (pain/itch)
87
Q

How do pain, temperature, and coarse touch go through the ascending pathway?

A
  1. Cross the midline in the spinal cord
  2. Sensory pathways synapse in the thalamus
88
Q

How does fine touch, vibration, and proprioception go through the ascending pathway?

A
  1. Crosses the midline in the medulla
  2. Sensory pathways synpase in the thalamus
89
Q

Where do the neurons in the descending pathways come from?

A
  • The primary motor cortex
  • Premotor area
90
Q

What are corticospinal/pyramidal pathways?

A
  • Pathways that control rapid, fine movements of the distal extremities
  • Originate in the cerebral cortex
91
Q

What are the brainstem/extrapyramidal system pathways?

A
  • Involved with coordination of the large muscle groups of the trunk and proximal portions of limbs
  • Originates in the brainstem
92
Q

Where do ascending, sensory nerves cross the midline?

A

The spinal cord and the medulla

93
Q

What are seven classes or neurotransmitters or neuromodulators?

A
  1. Acetylcholin (ACh)
  2. Biogenic amines
  3. Amino acids
  4. Neuropeptides
  5. Gases
  6. Purines
  7. Lipids
94
Q

What is the difference between neurotransmitters and meuromodulators?

A
  • Neurotransmitters: for “rapid” communication
  • Neuromodulators: for “slower” events like learning, can occur over minutes/hours/days, can modify the response to specific neurotransmitters
95
Q

Which neurons release acetylcholine?

A

Cholinergic neurons

96
Q

What are the two receptors for acetylcholine?

A
  • Muscarinic (G protein coupled)
  • Nicotinic (ligand-gated ion channels)
97
Q

What are muscarinic receptors associated with?

A

Higher cognitive processes like learning and memory

98
Q

What are nicotinic receptors associated with?

A

Rewards pathways (nicotine/tobacco addiction)

99
Q

What is the difference in speed between nicotinic and muscarininc receptors?

A
  • Nictonic: Fast EPSP
  • Muscarinic: Slow EPSP
100
Q

What are biogenic amines?

A
  • Small molecules synthesized from amino acids
  • Includes some of the most common neurotrasmitters
101
Q

What are examples of biogenic amines?

A
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Serotonin
  • Epinephrine (not common in CNS)
102
Q

Why is norepinephrine important in CNS?

A

It relates to alterness, attention, cognitive function, and stress reactions such as anxiety

103
Q

What receptors does norepinephrine use?

A

Adrenergic receptors (Alpha and Beta)

104
Q

Do biogenic amines have an excitatory or inhibitory effect?

A

Both!

105
Q

What is the function of serotonin?

A

Regulates food intake, reproductive behaviour, and emotions (mood, anxiety)

106
Q

Why is serotonin an important biogenic amine?

A
  • It is a neuromodulator at every structure in the brain and spinal cord
  • It has 16 different receptor subtypes (G-protein and ligand gated)
107
Q

Why are amino acid neurotransmitters most common in the CNS?

A

They can affect all neurons

108
Q

What are common amino acid neurotransmitters?

A
  • Glutamate (excitatory)
  • Glycine and GABA (inhibitory)
109
Q

What is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A

Glutamate; it accounts for 50% of excitatory synpases in the CNS

110
Q

What is the major inhibitory transmitters in the brain?

A

GABA

111
Q

How does alcohol interact with glutamate and GABA?

A
  • Stimulates GABA synapses
  • Inhibits glutamate synapses
  • This causes depression of brain electrical activity
112
Q

Define

Learning

A

Acquisition of information as a consequence of experience

113
Q

Define

Memory

A

Relatively permanent storage of learned information (ability to retain and recall information)

114
Q

What is the difference between declarative (explicit) and procedural (implicit) memory?

A
  • Declarative: retention and recall of experiences that can be put into words
  • Example is a wedding; when, where it occured
  • Procedural: memory for skilled behaviours independent of any conscious understanding
  • Example is riding a bike, or a fear of spiders
115
Q

What type of memory requires conscious attention?

A

Declarative

116
Q

What areas of the brain are involved in declarative memory?

A
  • Hippocampus
  • Amygdala
  • Other parts of the limbic system
117
Q

What areas of the brain are involved in procedural memory?

A
  • Sensorimotor cortex
  • Basal nuclei
  • Cerebellum
118
Q

What is short-term (working) memory?

A

Memories that last seconds to minutes, and are suscpetible to external interference

119
Q

What are long-term memories?

A

Memories that last days to years, and can survive disruptions

120
Q

What is the transition from short-term to long-term memory called?

A

Consolidation

121
Q

What is the loss of memory called?

A

Amnesia

122
Q

What is the impaired retrieval of old memories called?

A

Retrograde (short-term) amensia

123
Q

What is the impaired formation of new memories called?

A

Anterograde amensia

124
Q

What is the cause of anterograde amnesia?

A

Damage to the limbic system and associated structures, like the hippocampus, thalamus, and hypothalamus

125
Q

What is long-term potentiation?

A
  • a process involving persistent strengthening of synapses that leads to a long-lasting increase in signal transmission between neurons
  • Relates to synaptic plasticity
126
Q

What does a potentiated synapse look like?

A
127
Q

What are examples of long-term potentiation (LTP)?

A

The cooprative activity of AMPA and NMDA receptors; as you potentiate, more AMPA synapses are added, increasing sensitivity to glutamate

128
Q

What portion of the brain produces and comprehends language?

A

The left hemisphere

129
Q

What does it mean to produce and comprehend language?

A

A person is able to:
* Conceptualize the words (to say or write)
* Neural control of the act of speaking or writing
* Recent verbal memory

130
Q

How do males and females process language differently?

A
  • Males: Use mainly the left hemisphere
  • Females: Both hemispheres are used for some language task
131
Q

What is the role of Wernicke’s area?

A

Understanding language/comprehension

132
Q

What is the role of Broca’s area?

A

Producing speech/expression

133
Q

What is the path of speaking a written word?

A
134
Q

What is the path of speaking a heard word?

A
135
Q

What does damage to Wernicke’s area cause?

A
  • Receptive aphasia
  • Unable to understand sensory input
136
Q

What does damage to Broca’s area cause?

A
  • Expressive aphasia
  • Unable to understand complicated sentences with multiple elements
  • Difficulty speaking or writing normal syntax
137
Q

What is global aphasia?

A

A mix of receptive and expressive aphasia; inability to understand, and produce language

138
Q

What is electroencephalogram (EEG)?

A
  • A measurement of electrical activities in the brain using electrodes attached to the scalp
  • Used as a diagnostic tool
139
Q

What is the difference in EEG pattern between someone alert and someone drowsy?

A
140
Q

What are the two phases of sleep?

A
  • NREM (non-rapid eye movement) - N1, N2, N3
  • REM (Rapid eye movement)
141
Q

What are the three stages of NREM sleep?

A
  1. N1: theta waves begin to intersperse among alpha pattern (light sleep)
  2. N2: theta waves, sleep spindles and K complezes
  3. N3: delta waves (slow-wave or deep sleep)
142
Q

How long does the progression of NREM sleep take?

A

30 to 45 minutes

143
Q

What is paradoxical sleep?

A
  • REM sleep
  • The asleep is difficult to arouse but there is intense EEG activity similar to that of the alert/awake state
144
Q

When does REM begin and how long do the episodes last?

A
  • Onset is 50 to 90 minutes
  • First episode is 10 minutes, and gets progressively longer
145
Q

What is the pattern of uniterrupted sleep?

A

N1 to N2 to N3 to N2 to an episode of REM

146
Q

Why do we need sleep?

A
  • It is a homeostatic requirement!
  • During sleep, the brain experiences reactivation of neural pathways stimulated during the prior awake state
147
Q

What are the effects of sleep deprivation (3)?

A
  • Impairs the immune system
  • Causes cognitive and memory deficits
  • Leads to psychosis and even death
148
Q

During what stage of sleep does dreaming occur?

A

REM

149
Q

Define

Motivation

A

Internal signals that shape voluntary behaviours which lead to hromonal autonomic, and behavoural responses

150
Q

Define

Emotion

A

Results from the relationship between an individual and the environment

151
Q

What is primary motivated behaviour?

A

Behaviour directly related to hemostatsis like drinking water, eating, maintaining body temperature

152
Q

What is secondary motivated behaviour?

A

Behaviours related to pleasure or addictive behaviours like over-eating, taking recreational drugs

153
Q

What two things are insperable from motivation?

A
  • Reward
  • Punishment
154
Q

What is the reticular activating system (RAS)?

A

a bundle of nerves that sits in your brainstem whose job is to regulate behavioural arousal, consciousness and motivation

155
Q

What pathways are a part of the RAS?

A
  • Mesolimbic dopamine
  • Mesocortical dopamine
156
Q

Where does the RAS begin, and what does it do in the brain?

A

It begins in the midbrain, and releases dopamine in areas that process emotion

157
Q

How are the forebrain structures involved in relation to emotional responses?

What behaviours are associated with the forebrain structures

A

Modulation, direction, understanding, or even inhibtion of emotional behaviours

158
Q

How are the limbic areas involved in relation to emotional responses?

What responses are associated with the limbic areas?

A

Inner emotions like fear

159
Q

How is the lateral hypothalamus involved in relation to emotional responses?

What responses are associated with the lateral hypothalamus?

A

Rage responses

160
Q

What are dementias?

A

Neurodegenerative disorders with decline in memory and other cognitive skills that reduce a person’s ability to perform everyday activities

161
Q

What is Alzheimer’s Disease (AD)?

A
  • Most common cause of demetia
  • Slowly progressive, characterized by neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in medial temporal lobe and cortical structure
162
Q

What are the components of AD? (3)

A
  • Senile plaques
  • Neurofibrillary tangles
  • Synaptic loss
163
Q

What are the risk factors of AD?

A
  • Age (65 or older)
  • Genetic (70% of cases)
  • Sex (females)
  • Lifestyle
  • Medical factors (CVD, obesity, diabetes)
  • Air pollutants, metals, and infections
164
Q

What is Parkinson’s Disease (PD)?

A
  • A degenerative, progressive disorder affecting neurons in substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc) of basal ganglia
  • Degeneration in dopeminergic neurons which control body movement
165
Q

When does symptoms of PD appear?

A

After the loss of 60-70% of dopaminergic cells in SNpc, usually over 5-10 years

166
Q

What are the symptoms of PD?

A
167
Q

What are the treatments for PD? (2)

A
  • Increase of dopamine in substantia nigra (L-Dopa, a precursor to dopamine is used)
  • Deep brain stimulation (stimulating different regions of the basal ganglia which reduces symptoms)
168
Q

What is ALS?

A

A progressive neurodegenerative disease of the upper and lower motor neurons (cortical and spinal motor neurons)
* Involves the degeneration of axons within the anterior and lateral corticospinal tracts

169
Q

What % of ALS cases are genetic?

A

5-10%; most cases are sporadic

170
Q

When is the first onset of ALS?

A

Usually between ages 50 and 65

171
Q

What are the common symptoms of ALS?

A
  • Muscle weakness, twitching, cramping
  • Slurred speech
  • Trouble swallowing
  • Eventual impairement of muscles
172
Q

What is the possible molecular mechanism of ALS?

A

Excitotoxicity, the ability of glutamate or related excitatory amino acids to mediate the death of central neurons under certain conditions

173
Q

What is Multiple sclerosis? (MS)?

A

An autoimmune disease of the CNS charcetrized by:
* Chronic inflammation
* Demyelination and axonal damage
* Astroglial proliferation (larger glial cells being produced)
* Neuronal loss

174
Q

Which sex is more affected by MS?

A

Females

175
Q

What are the subtypes of MS? (4)

A
  • Relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)
  • Secondary-progressive MS (SPMS)
  • Primary-progressive MS (PPMS)
  • Progressive-relapsing MS (PRMS)
176
Q

What are the risk factors for developing MS?

A
  • Environmental factors (highest in North America, lowest around the equator)
  • Genetic and Racial associations (35-75% inherited, Caucasian and African American at highest risk)
  • Infections
  • Diet (high in animal fat)
  • Toxins
177
Q

What type of waves are associated with N1?

A

Theta waves that intersperse among alpha pattern

178
Q

What type of waves are associated with N2

A

Theta wave, sleep spindles, and K complexes

179
Q

What type of waves are associated with N3?

A

Delta waves

PHYSL 210A - Hannah’s Version (7 decks)

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