Cellular Signalling and Pol II Cis-Regulation Flashcards

1
Q

What is cis-regulation? Give some examples.

A

This is defined by the use of sections of non-coding DNA that regulate the rate of transcription.

This can be promoter proximal elements or cis-regulatory modules that are further from the TSS such as enhancers, silencers, insulators and tethering elements.

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2
Q

How long are enhancers?

A

A few hundred base pairs

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3
Q

How do enhancers work?

A

The enhancer binds specific transcription factors that can be activators or repressors.

These can remodel the chromatin to clear the promoter region and allow for the DNA to bend so that the enhancer lies antiparallel. They also come into direct contact with the PIC via the mediator and GTFs as well as other co-activators.

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4
Q

How do TFs bind to enhancers and why is this useful?

A

Multiple TFs bind cooperatively - hence in a very varied way.

This allows for great fine-tuning of expression as the various co-operative models allow for sharp temporal variation in the amount of bound TF without a change in the local concentration of that TF or an increase in its (generally low) specificity for the DNA section. w

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5
Q

What affects whether or not two TFs bound to different sites on an enhancer can interact?

A

the relative order, spacing and orientation of the different binding sequences on the enhancer - AKA the motif positioning or grammar

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6
Q

What things can affect enhancer motif positioning?

A

if the DNA binding sequence is palindromic the TF may bind in the wrong direction, preventing interaction with the other TF.

The sites for binding TFs may be interrupted by another binding motif for another TF.

If the binding sites for two co-operative TFs is too close or too far away then the helical nature of the DNA may mean that they are sticking out of different sides of the strand and so not in position to interact.

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7
Q

What are the three main models of enhancer activity, and what do these aim to explain?

A

The enhanceosome model, the billboard model and the TF collective model.

These account for the seemingly counter-productive motif grammar that allows enhancers to be arranged in an ineffective manner.

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8
Q

What is the enhanceosome model?

A

The enhanceosome model suggests that in fact these seeming issues with the grammar in fact act as a scaffold for all of the necessary TFs to be recruited to form a higher-order protein that forms an interface through which transcription is regulated.

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9
Q

What is the Billboard Model?

A

The billboard model states that the transcription factors bind in to the sites in patterns so that while they may not always directly interact with one another, only specific combinations of sites may be occupied and so transcription can be regulated depending on which pattern is used.

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10
Q

What is the TF collective model?

A

The TF collective model suggests that regardless of which TFs are able to bind they will be able to recruit the remaining TFs that have been unable to bind through protein-protein interaction due to improper motif grammar. This allows for variable patterns of TF bindings that can be used to regulate transcription.

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11
Q

What is CREB Extracellular Signalling

A

cAMP Response Element Binding signalling

This is a method of using extracellular signals to directly regulate transcription of a wide variety of genes in metabolism, cell structure and neurotransmission simultaneously using their common cAMP Response Element (CRE).

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12
Q

What is the delay between signalling and CREB response?

A

30 minutes to an hour

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13
Q

What initiates CREB signalling?

A

The signalling process is initiated when the agonist, often hormones such as adrenaline, bind to the relevant GPCR causing the signal to be transferred through the membrane to the heterotrimeric G protein.

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14
Q

How does the CREB GPCR transmit the signal into the cell?

A

When the GPCR is activated the Guanine nucleotide Exchange Factor (GEF) activates the G protein by replacing the GDP bound to the α subunit with a GTP.

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15
Q

What is the structure of a G-protein pre-activation?

A

The G protein is made up of an α, β and a γ subunit. The alpha and gamma subunits bind into the membrane.

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16
Q

What happens when the G-protein is activated? What effect does this have?

A

Activation allows the G protein to dissociate from the GPCR receptor domain and itself split into two active and still membrane bound components; the βγ complex and the GTP bound α subunit.

The two components may have different effects allowing the one signal to have multiple effects already, but the main focus is the α subunit.

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17
Q

What is the role of the activated G-protein alpha subunit?

A

Once activated by GTP, the α protein itself activated the membrane-bound enzyme adenylate cyclase

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18
Q

What is the role of adenylate cyclase in CREB signalling?

A

It converts ATP to cAMP.

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19
Q

What is the role of cAMP in CREB signalling? How does it do this?

A

cAMP activates PKA.

Prior to signal activation the two catalytic subunits of PKA are inhibited by the regulatory subunit. When four cAMP bind to this it releases the activated catalytic domains allowing them to travel to the nucleus.

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20
Q

What is the role of PKA in CREB signalling?

A

Once in the nucleus the PKA phosphorylates the, often already DNA bound, cAMP Response Element Binding Protein (CREB protein) on its Ser-133 residue.

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21
Q

What is the binding habit and structure of the CRE Binding Protein?

A

The dimeric CREB protein binds by its leucine zipper domain to the CRE, a palindromic sequence never more than 250bp away from the promoter.

The CREB protein has a central regulatory domain and an N-terminal activation domain where the Ser-133 is found.

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22
Q

What happens when PKA activates CREB?

A

When the CREB is phosphoactivated by PKA its conformation change allows for the recruitment of a large protein called CBP/p300.

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23
Q

What is the role of CBP/p300 in CREB signalling?

A

This effects the actual regulation by directly interfacing with the Basal Transcription Complex via TFIIE and TFIID. It is also involved in chromatin remodelling to allow for easier PIC/Pol II recruitment.

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24
Q

Give an overview of the CREB Signalling Pathway

A
  • agonist activates GPCR
  • GPCR activates G protein
  • G protein alpha subunit activates adenylate cyclase
  • AC converts ATP to cAMP
  • Four cAMP bind to the inhibitory subunit of PKA, causing release of the catalytic subunits
  • PKA translocates to the nucleus
  • PKA phosphorylates the CREB
  • CREB, bound to the CRE, recruits CBP/p300
  • CBP/p300 interacts directly with PIC and remodells chromatin
25
Q

What is c-Myc?

A

An incredibly important transcription factor that regulates hordes of other TFs that are responsible for a vast number of different processes, largely concerned with cell proliferation and differentiation.

26
Q

What processes are up and down regulated by c-Myc?

A
UPREGULATED
cell cycle
cell growth
angiogenesis
apoptosis
genomic instability
transformation

DOWNREGULATED
differentiation

27
Q

By what mechanism can c-Myc repress genes?

A

Several parts of the structure of c-Myc allow for it to displace CBP/p300 enabling its repressive capabilities

28
Q

What is the structure of Myc?

A

Myc is composed of a helix-loop-helix/Leucine zipper domain

29
Q

How does Myc bind DNA when upreguating genes?

A

Myc is composed of a helix-loop-helix/Leucine zipper domain, which must form a dimer with a similarly structured protein named Max in order to bind the DNA.

The shorter helices from each bind to the DNA and the LZ domain is where the dimerisation takes place.

This allows the pair to bind to a palindromic Ebox sequence.

30
Q

What does Myc compete with for Max?

A

Myc must compete for Max with another similar protein called Mad, as they will also form a Mad-Max dimer which performs the opposite activity to the Myc-Max dimer.

31
Q

How does the Myc-Max complex upregulate genes?

A

When a Myc-Max dimer is present they are able to recruit histone acetylases that serve to open the structure of the chromatin.

32
Q

How does the Mad-Max complex downregulate genes?

A

Mad-Max dimers recruit histone deacetylases (HDACs) that promote tighter structure.

33
Q

How often is Myc expression found to be involved in cancer?

A

Myc is found to be overexpressed in more than 50% of cancers, and is often responsible for the onset of tumour generation in such cases.

34
Q

What can overesxpression of myc cause?

A

Overexpression of c-Myc can be crucial to the survival of the tumour, but very high expression can actually be lethal to the cell.

35
Q

What do high levels of myc cause in a normal cell?

A

In a normal cell upregulation of c-Myc increases proliferation and protein production.

36
Q

What do low levels of myc do in a normal cell?

A

decreases proliferation and protein production. Stimulates differentiation.

37
Q

Does myc have the same effects in normal cells and tumour cells?

A

No.

38
Q

What do high levels of myc cause in a tumour cell?

A

When myc is upregulated in cancer cells it stimulates the same proliferation and protein production but inhibits differentiation. At very high levels it can however cause apoptosis of the cancer cells.

39
Q

What do low levels of myc cause in a tumour cell?

A

When myc is low in cancer cells it does not stimulate differentiation, but the decrease in proliferation and protein production can lead to cell death.

40
Q

How is myc transcription regulated?

A

Very Tightly. The DNA preceding the promoter contains binding sites for many TFs, but one of the most important transcriptional control methods is Far Upstream Element (FUSE) mediated regulation.

41
Q

What do problems with FUSE correlate with?

A

renal and colon cancer

42
Q

Which model organism is FUSE notably conserved in?

A

The regulatory axis is conserved in flies

43
Q

What does FUSE regulation do?

A

FUSE regulation is used to cause sharp spikes in Myc during cell proliferation. This means that the system has to be able to very quickly upregulate and then sharply repress the gene, requiring the activator and repressor to work one after the other.

44
Q

Which two proteins make up the FUSE regulatory axis?

A

Fuse Binding Protein (FBP)

FBP-Interacting Protein (FIR)

45
Q

What is the structure and function of FBP?

A

FBP is the activator in the FUSE system. In vertebrates there are three proteins in the FBP family.

It is a multifunctional protein capable of binding DNA and RNA. It contains four KH regions, some Y motifs and an Nbox region that allows binding to the repressor.

46
Q

What is the structure and function of FIR?

A

FIR is the repressor protein for the FUSE system, as well as being involved in the regulation of alternative splicing. Like FBP it is a multifunctional protein that can bind to DNA and RNA. It contains only three relevant domains; RRM1, RRM2 and RRM3/UHM. RMM1 and 2 bind to the Nbox region of FBP

47
Q

What is the FUSE?

A

The Far Upstream Element itself is an AT rich stretch of DNA found 1.7kbp upstream of the c-Myc gene.

48
Q

What form is FUSE often found in?

A

Being AT rich it has a tendency to melt due to the tension produced by negative supercoiling when Pol II is transcribing c-Myc, producing single stranded FUSE DNA.

Hence in proliferating cells, FUSE is always found in ssDNA form, which is how FBP and FIR interact with it.

49
Q

How do the two FUSE regulators bind to the FUSE DNA?

A

FBP binds to ssFUSE DNA by the four KH domains

FIR binds to ssFUSE by the RMM1 domain

50
Q

What is the first protein to bind the FUSE DNA, and what effect does it have?

A

In order to sharply upregulate c-Myc transcription FBP binds to the ssFUSE DNA first, and the Y motifs interact with the TFIIH at the c-Myc promoter. This increases its 3’-5’ helicase activity, stimulating Myc transcription.

51
Q

What happens after FBP binds to FUSE?

A

FIR is recruited and interacts with the XPB subunit of TFIIH and suppresses the activity.

52
Q

Why does FBP bind to FUSE first?

A

There is a 1000-fold difference in affinities for the two proteins for ssFUSE DNA. FBP binds to the FUSE with a Kd of 1.5nM whereas FIR binds with a Kd of 7µM.

53
Q

Why does FIR bind to FUSE after FBP?

A

This is far more likely to happen than FIR binding to the ssDNA alone as this allows it to bind to both the DNA and to FBP, stabilising it and increasing affinity 10-50 fold.

Because of this, small changes in the relative concentrations of FBP and FIR do not change the sequence of binding.

54
Q

Which parts of FIR and FBP interact?

A

FIR RMM1 and 2 bind to the Nbox region of FBP.

The Nbox binding region is a helix that binds into a hydrophobic cavity on FIR.

This defines a novel kind of RMM hydrophobic binding.

55
Q

Which residues are involved in binding and how?

A

The solvent excluded interface is composed of the A30 and A34 residues, with the longer chain hydrophobes I41, L35 and F31 being partially solvent exposed.

56
Q

How is FIR-FBP binding characterised?

A

low affinity but very high specificity

57
Q

Why is the low affinity of FBP-FIR binding useful?

A

To allow the FBP to dissociate from the complex after the FIR binds to both it and the FUSE DNA. This further increases the transience of the complex and therefore the upregulation of c-Myc.

It also has to be weak to prevent the activator and repressor from binding together before interacting with the DNA, as then there would be no delay in repressor binding and so no spike in c-Myc transcription.

58
Q

What is used to investigate the FIR-FBP axis?

A

FBP3, a paralogue protein of FBP

59
Q

Why is FBP3 a useful research tool?

A

It binds to DNA and still affects TFIIH but has 20x lower affinity for FIR so does not recruit it. This leads to longer term expression upregulation of c-Myc.